Fall

08
Summer
11

GRADE 12 BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM

SBI 4U1
DURATION: 2.5 HOURS
165 MARKS
[AUTHORS]
MEGAN STEEVES
HANIYA KHAN
ELIZABETH CHAN
TARYN THEAKER

ANSWER COPY
SECTION 1: DIAGRAM LABELING
COMMUNICATION [25 MARKS]

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PLEASE PLACE ANSWERS BESIDE THEIR CORRESPONDING NUMBERS IN THE CHART BELOW:

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SECTION 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [50 MARKS]

BIOCHEMISTRY:

1. Mitochondria will not be found in which of the following organisms:

a) Protists
b) Plants
c) Arachaebacteria
d) Fungi

Explanation: Prokaryotic organisms (arachaebacteria) lack membrane bound

organelles.

2. Vacuoles do not:
a) Transport proteins
b) Store and release wastes
c) Transport wastes
d) Keep cells rigid

3. An example of a monomer is a (n):

a) Maltose
b) Amino acid
c) Proteins
d) Nucleic acid

Explanation: Amino acids are monomers that bond together to form protein
molecules.

4. Which of the following statements best describes olive oil?

a) Contains double bonds between carbon atoms
b) Saturated fat
c) Unsaturated fat
d) Both a & c
e) None of the above

Questions 5 & 6 questions refer to the diagram below:

5. Identify the molecule shown above:
a) Disaccharide
b) Polysaccharide
c) Monosaccharide
d) Glucose

6. Classify the molecule above:

a) Protein
b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrate
d) Nucleic acid

7. Purine bases include:

a) Guanine & Adenine
b) Cytosine & Thymine
c) Cytosine & Guanine
d) Adenine & Thymine

8. Without enzymes biological reactions:

a) Stop
b) Slow down
c) Speed up
d) Experience no change in speed

9. A (n) _____________ stabilizes the inactive form of an enzyme:

a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Allosteric regulator
c) Allosteric inhibitor
d) Competitive regulator

10. A cell is placed in an unknown solution. After some time the cell begins to shrink.
Which of the following is true of the solution?
a) It had a lower [water] than the cell
b) It had a higher [water] than the cell
c) It is hypotonic
d) It is isotonic
METABOLIC PROCESSES:

11. Pyruvate oxidation releases one ___________ molecule and a ____________

enzyme is added to make ___________.
a) H2O, CoA, acetyl-CoA
b) CO2, PFK, pyruvate
c) H2O, CoA, oxaloacetate
d) CO2, CoA, acetyl-CoA

12. Which of the following about lactic acid fermentation is false?

a) Lactic acid fermentation occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in a local area
(i.e. during exercise).
b) The process produces 2 ATP molecules via SLP.
c) The process produces lactic acid which is toxic (the “burn” of exercising).
d) 2 FAD molecules become 2 FADH2 molecules.
e) Both d and b

13. What is the correct order of intermediates in glycolysis?

a) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, BPG,
G3P, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
b) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, 3PG,
2PG, BPG, G3P, PEP, pyruvate
c) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
d) Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, glucose-6-phosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate

14. The Krebs cycle occurs in the __________ and produces ___________ ATP
molecules via ___________. (1 cycle)
a) Mitochondrial membrane, 1, SLP
b) Mitochondrial matrix, 2, OLP
c) Mitochondrial matrix, 1, SLP
d) Cytoplasm, 1, SLP
e) Cytoplasm, 1, OLP

15. ___________ acts as the final _____________ in the ETC.

a) H2O, electron acceptor
b) Oxygen, electron acceptor
c) ATP Synthase, protein complex
d) Oxygen, protein complex
16. Which of the following orders of protein complexes in the ETC are correct?
a) Ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
b) NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c,
cytochrome oxidase complex
c) Cytochrome c, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
d) None of the above

17. What type of plant is more efficient in fixing carbon at lower temperatures?
a) Cactus
b) Potatoes
c) Sugarcane
d) Dandelions
e) Both b and d

18. A competitive inhibitor:

a) Binds to the active site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind to
the active site.
b) Binds to the allosteric site and causes a conformation change that prevents
the substrate from binding.
c) Binds to the active site and causes a conformation change that prevents the
substrate from binding.
d) Binds to the allosteric site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind to
the active site.

19. When __________ instead of CO2 is fixed by RuBP in the _____________,

___________ is produced; this process is called ____________.
a) Oxygen, Kreb’s cycle, CO2, photorespiration
b) Oxygen, Kreb’s, oxygen, photosynthesis
c) Oxygen, Calvin Cycle, CO2, photorespiration
d) Oxygen, Calvin Cycle, H2O, photorespiration

20. Who was the first to discover that light and CO2 are essential to photosynthesis?
a) C.B. Van Niel
b) F.F. Blackman
c) Joseph Priestley
d) J.B. Van Helmont
e) Jan Ingenhosz
POPULATIONS:

21. Population density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

22. Crude density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

23. Ecological density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

24. Density dependent factors are:

a) Factors whose effects on the size of population vary with the population size.
b) Factors that affect the size of the population regardless of what the
population density is.
c) Factors whose effects on the growth of the population vary with the
population size.
d) Both a and c

25. When species are equally spaced throughout a habitat, what kind of dispersion is
this?
a) Random
b) Clumped
c) Uniform
d) None of the above
26. What type of growth does the graph show?
a) Exponential
b) Logistic
c) Geometric
d) None of the above

27. In an Ontario forest, close to the Quebec border line, the deer population has
been growing. There is a population of 547 deer. This year 38 migrated from the
Quebec and 18 died. There were 6 births and 12 migrated to Quebec. What is the
population change?
a) 2.56
b) 6.78
c) 13.53
d) 6.95

28. A frog that feeds on an insect is called a

a) Decomposer
b) Tertiary Consumer
c) Primary Consumer
d) Secondary Consumer

29. A stick insect, Carausius morosusi, is sitting on the stump of a tree. This is an
example of what type of mimicry?
a) Concealing
b) Aggressive
c) Mullerian
d) Batesian

30. The rapidly growing human population is endangering populations of K-

strategists while favouring r-strategists. Examples of K-strategists and r-strategists
are, respectively,
a) Whales and houseflies
b) Elephants and Spruce Trees
c) Cockroaches and Dandelions
d) Mosquitoes and Woodpeckers
MOLECULAR GENETICS:

31. Which scientist is responsible for discovering the “nuclein” after analyzing white
blood cells in the pus of surgical band-aids?
a) Joachim Hammerling
b) Frederick Griffith
c) Friedrich Miescher
d) Erwin Chargoff

32. The following are the steps of DNA replication in the incorrect order:
1. DNA helicase disrupts hydrogen bonds and unwinds the helix.
2. DNA gyrase relieves the tension from the unwinding DNA.
3. Replication bubble is formed.
4. Proteins bind to the origin of replication.
5. Single-stranded binding proteins bind to exposed bases.
6. Primase makes RNA primers that bind to the 3’ end of the parental strand.
7. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
8. DNA polymerase I remove RNA primers and replaces with the appropriate
nucleotides.
9. DNA polymerase III used the RNA primer as a starting point.

The correct order of the steps of DNA replication is:

a) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 9, 8, 7
b) 7, 8, 9, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 9, 8, 7
d) 7, 8, 9, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

33. What is the mutation caused by a single substitution of one base that causes in a
premature start codon?
a) Frameshift Mutation
b) Silent Mutation
c) Nonsense Mutation
d) Missense Mutation

34. Which of the following statements about PCR is false?

a) Similar to DNA replication
b) Heat is used to separate DNA strands
c) Does not require recombinant DNA
d) Indirect method of making copies of a desired sequence of DNA
35. What is the purpose of methylases?
a) Regulates which genes are transcribed
b) Protects chromosomes by binding proteins that stop the ends from being
degraded and sticking together
c) Prevents restriction enzymes from cutting the bacterium’s own DNA
d) Removes incorrect nucleotides and replaces it with the correct one

36. What is the enzyme involved in the initiation of transcription?

a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase III
c) RNA ligase
d) RNA polymerase

37. If the promoter region of a gene in a DNA molecule is removed, how will the
corresponding amino acid sequence be affected?
a) The sequence will be no longer than usual.
b) The sequence will be longer than usual.
c) The sequence will not be affected.
d) The sequence will not be produced.

38. Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at recognition sites with to create sticky
ends. Which of the following DNA sequences is a complimentary palindromic
sequence?
a) 5’GAATTC 3’ and 3’CTTAAG 5’
b) 5’AATTCG 3’ and 3’GCGTAA 5’
c) 3’GAATTG 5’ and 5’ CCATTG 3’
d) 3’GATCGT 5’ and 5’TCGTAG 5’

39. What is the correct order for the three stages that make up transcription and/or
translation?
a) Elongation, Initiation, Termination
b) Initiation, Elongation, Termination
c) Initiation, Elongation, Translation
d) Transcription, Translation, Termination

40. With regards to the lac operon, what happens when lactose is absent?
a) The shape of the repressor protein changes and no longer binds to the
operator.
b) The repressor protein binds to the operator and partially blocks the
promoter.
c) There is no effect on the operon.
d) None of the above
HOMEOSTASIS:

41. The renal cortex:

a) Produces the hormone cortisol and aldosterone
b) Produces testosterone
c) Produces adrenaline and noradrenaline
d) None of the above
e) Both a and b

42. Blood is pumped in through the ____________ arteriole and pumped out
through the ___________ arteriole.
a) Efferent, efferent
b) Afferent, efferent
c) Efferent, afferent
d) Afferent, afferent
e) None of the above

43. The descending loop of Henley is permeable to ___________ and the ascending
loop of Henley is permeable to ____________.
a) K+, NaCl
b) H2O, NaCl
c) NaCl, H2O
d) H2O, H2O and NaCl

44. The movement of wastes from the blood back into the nephron primarily occurs
via active transport. Which organelle is likely found in high concentration in the
cells that line the tubules involved with secretion?
a) Vesicles
b) Golgi body
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
e) None of the above

45. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) made and stored?

a) Made in anterior pituitary, stored in anterior pituitary
b) Made in hypothalamus, stored in anterior pituitary
c) Made in anterior pituitary, made in posterior pituitary
d) Made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary

46. Steroid hormones:

a) Are made from amino acids and are fat soluble
b) Are made from cholesterol and are fat soluble
c) Are made from amino acids and are water soluble
d) Are made from cholesterol and are water soluble
 47. The Myelin Sheath wraps around the ________and is made up of
_____________, which is a type of ___________cell.
a) Axon, dendrites, glial
b) Axon hillock, Schwann cells, glial
c) Axon, nodes of Ranvier, Schwann
d) Axon, Schwann cells, conducting
e) Axon, Schwann cells, glial

48. What voltage needs to be reached to reach action potential?

a) Below rest potential
b) Above rest potential
c) Usually 40 mV
d) Usually 20 mV
e) None of the above

49. What of the following about synaptic transmission is true?

a) A presynaptic neuron carries impulse toward the synapse and the
postsynaptic neuron carries impulse away from synapse
b) Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are found in axonal end plates
c) Excitatory NTs are more permeable to K+
d) Inhibitory NTs opens Na+ channels
e) Inhibitory NTs causes depolarization
f) Both a and b

50. Which of the following is a function of the parietal lobe?

a) Body senses (touch, pain, etc)
b) Vision
c) Hearing
d) Memory

SECTION 3: MODIFIED TRUE AND FALSE

KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]

1. In order to engulf food from the extracellular fluid, cell membranes grows
extensions called “pseudo pods” during pinocytosis.

2. Most proteins are functional at the tertiary structure.

3. During translation of a protein, the start codon is ‘read’ in the A site where a
tRNA molecule delivers methionine. The second codon is exposed in the P site.
4. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase I works in the 5’ to 3’ direction adding
nucleotides.

5. The somatic nervous system includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic

nervous systems.

6. Anabolic steroids cause kidney problems, hair loss, oily skin, acne, shrinking
testes, infertility, and cancer.

7. A C4 plant consists of a mesophyll cell and bundle sheath cell underneath,

connected by plasodesmata, ensuring that there is always a high concentration of
CO2 to fix.

8. CAM plants use spatial separation by closing their stomata during the day and
opening them at night so that there is little water loss when up taking CO2.

9. The three symbiotic relationships are not; parasitism, mutationism and

commensalism.

10. Social parasites manipulate the social behaviour of another species to complete
their life cycle.
SECTION 4: MATCHING
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]

Vernon Ingram

Antrum

Nephron

Diffusion

Receptor-Mediated
Endocytosis
Intraspecific
Competition
Interspecific
Competition
NAD+ and FAD+

NADH
Dehydrogenase
Histones

SECTION 5: SHORT ANSWER

INQUIRY & APPLICATION [39 MARKS]

1. Draw the formation of a triglyceride with four carbon monounsaturated fatty

acids [3]. On the diagram:
a) Clearly draw the individual monomers. [2]

b) Label all functional groups on the monomers. [2]

 c) Label and name the resulting bond. [1]

d) Classify the reaction. [1]

2. Explain what is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model” of the plasma
membrane. Discuss at least three different components in the membrane that
lend it this name. [4]

3. Clearly explain what would happen to ATP production in the following situations,
stating the exact number of ATP produced if possible. [3]
a) What if a mutation occurred in the mitochondrial matrix so that 2 NADH
and 2 FADH2 were produced in the Calvin Cycle during cellular
respiration? [1 pyruvate]
b) Photosystem I does not have a Z protein attached to it? [3]

4. Describe any 2 of the following and give an example: [4]

a) Microparasites:

b) Macroparasites:.
 c) Endoparasites:

d) Ectoparasites:

5. What are the differences between Facultative and Obligatory Mutualism? [2]

6. Using the original DNA template given below, answer part (a) and (b).

Original DNA template: 3’ATCCTGAG 5’

a) State the corresponding mRNA stand and DNA coding strand. [2]

b) What type of mutation is present in the strand, 3’ATCTGAG 5’ compared to

the original DNA template? Explain the effect that this mutation will have. [2]

7. If given DNA samples from a crime scene, how would you go about determining
whether the individual was present at the scene of the crime? [3]

8. John is a marathon runner and every day after his early morning jog, he becomes
very hot. Explain in detail how his body works to maintain homeostasis with
regards to body temperature during this time. Be sure to reference all important
glands and organs. [3]
 9. Explain briefly any 2 of the phases of the menstrual cycle. Be sure to identify all
hormones at work in each phase. [4]

SECTION 6: LONG ANSWER

INQUIRY & APPLICATION [31 MARKS]

1. Explain what is occurring in each of the following pictures. Use correct

terminology. [6]

All three pictures describe osmosis, where water moves from an area of high [water]
to an area of low [water]
2. Should manufacturers be focusing more on the quality of their products as
opposed to the quantity of products produced and purchased? Explain both the
local and global perspectives looking at the social, political, environmental and
economic issues. Explore the pros and cons of each issue. [6]

3. Explain why feedback inhibition is important and how it relates to cellular

respiration. Provide a specific example. [4]
4. Explain in detail at least three of the ethical factors that shape the genetics
industry. Be sure to explain the positive and negative effects that these factors
have on the social, political, environmental, and ecological landscape of the
industry. [9]

5. a) Which hormone(s) play a role in establishing homeostasis when the body has
low blood pressure? [2]

b) Explain how the hormone(s) work(s) to increase blood pressure and re-
establish homeostasis in the body. Be sure to indicate the hormone’s
function, target organ and where it’s produced/ released. [4]