St.

Paul School
Barotac Nuevo, Iloilo
nd
2 Periodical Examination
Environmental Science
Grade 7 –St. Augustine
Name:______________________________ Date:_________________ Score:_______________
I. Multiple Choice:
Choose the letter of the best answer. Write your answer on the space before the number.
_____1. What percentage of the Earth's water supply is freshwater?
a. 3 % b. 15 % c. 20 % d. 5%
_____2. Most of the Earth's freshwater is in ___________________.
a. wells b. man-mad reservoirs c. aquifers d. streams
_____3. In which step of the water cycle does liquid water transform into gas?
a. Evaporation b. condensation c. precipitation d. any of the choices
_____4. Which two elements make up water?
a. Hydrogen and oxygen c. Calcium and oxygen.
b. Sodium and calcium d. Hydrogen and sodium
_____5. Which word completes the following statement: Water _________ when it freezes?
a. contracts b. expands c. dissolves d. conducts
_____6. What is evaporation?
a. Water freezes.
b. Water vapor meets cold air and changes back into liquid.
c. Water gets warm and changes from liquid water to water vapor.
d. Plants take in water from the soil.
_____7. What is the correct term for moisture that falls to the ground from clouds?
a. condensation b. precipitation c. hibernation d. evaporation
_____8. What is the correct term for rising water vapor meeting colder air and turning back into water droplets?
a. condensation b. dehydration c. precipitation d. evaporation
_____9. What are the three stages of the water cycle?
a. evaporation, condensation, precipitation c. condensation, precipitation, hibernation
b. precipitation, dehydration, evaporation d. transpiration, dehydration, condensation
_____10. Where is water vapor found?
a. in the air around you c. in your breath
b. in steam from a kettle d. all of the above
_____11. What can water pollution cause?
a. Diseases b. Deforestation c. Death of aquatic animal d. Climate change
_____12. Thermal pollution refers to _______________.
a. Excessive heat entering an aquatic ecosystem c. Too many bacteria living in one body of water
b. Excessive amounts of algae growing in an area d. All of the choices
_____13. An aquifer is __________________.
a. An area above ground where lakes form c. An area below ground where water collects
b. The best place to get your drinking water d. None of the above
_____14. Artificial eutrophication or nutrient poisoning mostly comes from
a. Oil b. Toxic waste c. Agricultural runoff d. Algal Bloom
_____15. Which of the following is not a natural cause of water pollution?
a. Volcanoes b. Algae blooms c. Animal waste d. Oil spills
_____16. What type of water pollution can occur when sulfur dioxide gets into the Earth's atmosphere?
a. Oxygen depletion b. Acid rain c. Sewage pollution d. Algae blooms
_____17. What can happen to fish when there isn't enough oxygen in the water?
a. They can be suffocated c. They can no longer float in the water
b. They can't see d. They will grow really big
_____18. What type of water pollution is produced from chemicals used to kill bugs and weeds?
a. Sewage c. Animal waste
b. Pesticides and herbicides d. Construction
_____19. How can you help prevent water pollution?
a. Don't use weed killer in the yard c. Scrape plates clean
b. Don't put grease in the kitchen drain d. Use less clean water All of the above
_____20. How do we use water?
a. we have to drink it every day
b. we use it to grow plants and animals on farms
c. we use it to wash ourselves and our homes
d. all of the above
_____21. What do you call rain that is contaminated by pollution?
a. pure rain b. acid rain c. pollution d. runoff
_____22. What can you do about water pollution?
a. make sure you let the water run when washing your car
b. do not let the water run while you are brushing your teeth
c. pour used car oil and dirty water into the street
d. all of the above
_____23. What minerals are found in the run-off from agricultural land and treated and untreated sewage
effluents, which are highly responsible for eutrophication of water bodies?
a. Phosphorous and carbon c. Nitrogen and phosphorus
b. Potassium and arsenic d. Iron and manganese
_____24. The principle source of infectious waste material in water is ______________.
a. industrial waste b. surface runoff c. animal feces d. agricultural pesticides
_____25. Eutrophication ___________________.
a. can lead to algal blooms
b. can cause the collapse of an aquatic ecosystem
c. cans sometimes be beneficial, enabling fish to grow faster
d. All of the above
_____26. Where should you take unused and unwanted chemicals?
a. Pour it down the drain c. To the grocery store
b. To a hazardous waste collection center d. Wash your car with them
_____27. When is the time to fertilize your lawn?
a. When rain is not in the forecast c. Before it rains
b. After you water it d. After it rains
_____28. What is the most likely source of nutrient pollution?
a. decaying plant matter in the soil. c. rainwater run-off after a storm.
b. animal waste in wooded areas. d. nutrients and fertilizers.
_____29. When fecal coliform bacteria is found in a water sample, what is the likely conclusion?
a. It came from military and industrial sites in the area.
b. Dangerous bacteria and pathogens are likely present.
c. It causes too much growth of surface plants.
d. Harmless bacteria is likely present.
_____30. The best method for assessing water pollution is to:
a. Look at the water, most pollution is visible.
b. Drink the water and see whether you get sick.
c. Have scientists conduct tests for contaminants.
d. Add fecal coliform bacteria and see if pathogens appear.
_____31. Large number of organisms can die if there is ________.
a. low level of oxygen c. low level of carbon dioxide
b. low level of methane d. low level of ethane
_____32. Poisonous substances that can be present in industrial wastes does not includes _________.
a. Phosphates b. nitrates c. mercury and lead d. oxygen
_____33. What is a main cause of water pollution?
a. use of water as a coolant for power plants c. illegal dumping in natural habitats
b. marine dumping d. all of the above
_____34. Thermal water pollution can be reduced by all of the following methods except _________.
a. discharging hot water into ponds, allowing cooling, and reusing the same water.
b. using cooling towers.
c. returning heated water away from the ecologically vulnerable shore zone.
d. using more electricity.
_____35. Nitrates and phosphates are examples of
a. disease-causing agents. c. oxygen-demanding wastes.
b. organic chemicals. d. inorganic plant nutrients.
II. True/False:
Analyze the statements below. Write the word true if the statement is correct and false if
otherwise of the space before the number.
__________1. Rainwater is the purest form of water.
__________2. Condensation is water that comes from the air.
__________3. Water boils more quickly in the mountains than at sea level.
__________4. Many people on Earth do not have access to clean water.
__________5. Although water pollution is bad, it doesn't actually cause anyone to die.
__________6. It only takes a little bit of pollution to make water unsafe for drinking.
__________7. Eutrophication is a natural process that has been greatly stimulated by human activities.
__________8. Runoff of pesticides from lawns, fields, golf courses, and other areas is considered to be one of
the most important sources of toxic organic pollution of water.
__________9. Pollution of water in large aquifers is essentially irreversible.
__________10. Fish can go into "thermal shock" when the water temperature decreases abruptly.
__________11. Polluted water harms fish, birds, and animals but rarely causes adverse health effects in
humans.
__________12. The use of pesticides must be limited and controlled to protect all inhabitants of the ecosphere.
__________13. Polluted water creates disturbance in ecological balance.
__________14. We should allow flow of drainage only after treatment to the rivers and ponds.
__________15. Seawater is toxic to drink because your kidneys cannot get enough freshwater to produce
enough urine to dilute the additional salt in your body to get rid of the excess salt.
__________16. Water that has moved underground has underground natural filtration, therefore its purity is
guaranteed.
__________17. Turbidity or water clarity testing can provide information about the bacteriological safety of
water.
__________18. Running or moving water purifies itself to “drinking water quality” after flowing a specified
distance.
__________19. Chemical water pollutants have nothing to do with humans.
__________20. Common pathogenic microbes are nonliving.

“Nothing is softer or more flexible than water, yet nothing can resist it.”
-Lao Tzu-

God Speed!!
Msmyshielgmontille
 St. Paul School
Barotac Nuevo, Iloilo
nd
2 Periodical Examination
Science 8
St. Joseph, St. James, St. Ma. Goretti and St. Jude
Name: ______________________________________ Date:__________________ Score:________________
I. Multiple Choice:
Choose the letter of the best answer. Write your answer on the space before the number.
_____1. The point within the Earth where seismic waves originate is______________.
a. the epicenter. b. the fault scarp. c. the origin. d. the focus.
_____2. The Richter Scale is used to determine ________.
a. intensity of earthquakes. c. the magnitude of earthquakes.
b. the damage from earthquakes. d. the number of casualties in an earthquake.
_____3. Most earthquakes at divergent plate boundaries are_____.
a. shallow focus b. intermediate focus c. deep focus d. all of these
_____4. Which of the following is characteristic of a tsunami?
a. very long wavelength c. very fast moving
b. very low amplitude in the open ocean d. all of these
_____5. The fastest seismic waves are ____.
a. P-waves b. S-waves c. Love Waves d. Rayleigh Waves
_____6. The height of the lines traced on paper is a measure of the energy released of the ________of the
earthquake.
a. Stress b. Strain c. Magnitude d. Intensity
_____7. All of the following will improve safety factors during an earthquake EXCEPT to __________.
a. Study an area's earthquake history
b. Stand next to a window
c. Make sure hot-water heater are held securely in place
d. Take heavy objects down from high shelves
_____8. Most earthquakes happen ___________.
a. without warning
b. in areas where earthquakes have occurred in the past
c. along plate boundaries
d. all of the above
_____9. What is the epicenter of an earthquake?
a. The duration of an earthquake
b. Place on the earth's surface, exactly above the hypocenter of the earthquake
c. The Region where the earthquake was felt
d. Any of the choices
_____10. The concept that Earth's upper layer, or lithosphere, is divided into large, quite rigid segments which
float over the more dense upper mantle, is termed as _____.
a. pushing margins b.plate tectonics c. floating continents d. convection currents
_____11. Plate boundaries where two plates are moving apart from one another, and new plate material is being
formed as molten rock rises to fill the gap between them, are called _____.
a. divergent margins c. convergent margins
b. subduction margins d. transform margins
_____12. The plates of the Earth move because of
a. pressure from volcanoes c. bumping from bubbling magma
b. convection currents in the mantle d. earthquake activity
_____13. Two obvious ways plate tectonic activity can be witnessed is in
a. wind and ocean currents c. earthquakes and volcanoes
b. avalanches and snowstorms d. changing weather patterns
_____14. The strongest shock waves of an earthquake occur close to what is called the epicenter, a point on the
surface of the crust directly above what is called the ______.
a. Magnitude b. focus c. current d. margin
_____15. Most earthquakes occur _______.
a. in the middle of the ocean c. where volcanoes are
b. near major cities d. along plate boundaries
_____16. It is a break in the Earth’s crust where significant movement occurred.
a. Intensity b. focus c. focus d. fault
_____17. It is an instrument used to measure the amount of energy released by an earthquake
a. seisnograph b. seismograph c. microscope d. stenograph
_____18. People are interviewed and buildings are inspected to determine _________.
a. Intensity b. location of the focus c. magnitude d. location of an active fault
_____19. PHILVOLCS stands for?
a. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology
b. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seisnology
c. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Sismology
d. Philippine Institution of Volcanology and Seismology
_____20. A vibration due to the rapid release of energy is known as _________.
a. earthquake b. typhoon c. tidal wave d. focus
_____21. A big wave produced by earthquakes that originate from under the ocean is called ______.
a. typhoon b. tsunami c. flood d. storm surge
_____22. Earthquakes are common in the Philippines because it is located in an area called _______.
a. Southeast Asia c. Earthquake Prone Area
b. Pacific Ocean d. Pacific Ring of Fire
_____23. Which of the following statements is FALSE about an earthquake?
a. Earthquakes have caused countless deaths all over the world.
b. Earthquake was caused by movement along the fault
c. Earthquake is a vibration of the Earth due to the rapid release of energy.
d. Earthquakes with a magnitude of 2 can cause severe damage.
_____24. It has caused an earthquake in the past and is capable of generating more in the future.
a. active epicenter b. active fault c. active focus d. active vibration
_____25. Which of the following differentiates intensity from magnitude? Magnitude is ____.
a. a measure of how strong an earthquake is c. an instrument that measures earthquake
b. expressed using roman numerals d. all of the above
_____26. How do faults produce earthquake?
a. Energy from inside the Earth makes the ground move, once friction is overcome, a fault slips
producing earthquake.
b. Magma and lava causes the ground to spread producing faults.
c. Molten rock materials accumulate and go out along the fault producing earthquake.
d. Tectonic plates collide forming volcanoes and causing earthquakes.
_____27. Which of the following can be triggered by an earthquake?
a. Tsunami c. intense ground shaking
b. a landslide d. all of these
_____28. Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake prediction?
a. scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all earthquakes
b. scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50% of all earthquakes
c. scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but not where
d. scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but cannot yet accurately predict most
earthquakes
_____29. How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquefy?
a. It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
b. It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
c. It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
d. It melts the sediment
_____30. Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
a. Fires b. High winds c. Mass wasting d. Trembling
_____31. This is used to measure how powerful an earthquake is.
a. Seismo Scale b. Zonometer c. Mercalli Scale d. Richter Scale
_____32. An earthquake of this magnitude would cause minor damage, but would probably not destroy any
buildings.
a. 9.1 b. 6.2 c. 7.3 d. 2.4
_____33. The name of the land mass that had all of the 7 continents together on it.
a. Elturo b. Pangea c. Greek d. Palia
_____34. When two plates crash into each other, what is typically formed?
a. Deserts b. Mountains c. Rivers d. Rain forests
_____35. Plates that push together are called ____.
a. Transform b. Divergent c. Convergent d. Any of the choices
_____36. An earthquake that measured 2.0 on the Richter Scale.
a. Would shake walls and knock things off tables.
b. Would cause major damage.
c. Would not be felt, but could be detected by a seismograph.
d. Would cause minor damage to buildings.
_____37. Plates that slide past one another is called _____.
a. Transform b. Divergent c. Convergent d. Plate Tectonics
_____38. Where does the lava from volcanoes come from?
a. Mantle b. Igneous Rock c. Ocean d. Sedimentary Rock

_____39. Cracks in the earth where rock is crushed and bent.

a. p-waves b. faults c. earthquakes d. l-waves
_____40. ________ carry the energy of an earthquake away from the focus.
a. Mercalli waves b. Richter waves c. Seismic waves d. Surface waves

II. True/False
Analyze the statements below. Write the word true if the statement is correct and false if
otherwise on the space before the number.
___________1. An active fault has move in the past and is not capable of producing more earthquake in the
future.
___________2. People are interviewed to determine intensity.
___________3. A downward movement of the fault planes is capable of producing a tsunami.
___________4. A seismograph is used to determine intensity.
___________5. Intensity I is described as Scarcely Perceptible and is felt only by people under favorable
conditions.
___________6. In the Tsunami experiment, the water represents the tsunami.
___________7. Focus is the origin of an earthquake.
___________8. PAG-ASA is the government agency tasked in monitoring earthquakes and volcanic activities.
___________9. When an earthquake happens, the effects are greater in the areas away from the focus.
___________10. Shaking is a phenomenon where loose soil or sand behave like water during an earthquake.
___________11. Tsunamis are always caused by earthquakes.
___________12. The global distribution of earthquakes marks the boundaries of tectonic plates.
___________13. P-waves are also called compressional waves.
___________14. During a large earthquake, you should take cover under a strong table, doorway, or corner of
your home.
___________15. There are many thousands of earthquakes every year on Earth.
___________16. Large waves can destroy buildings.
___________17. Earthquakes can happen in a rain forest biome.
___________18. The earth's crust may at first bend and when the stress force exceeds the strength of the rock, it
changes and breaks. The process of breaking results in seismic waves.
___________19. Not only are plate tectonics directly related to earthquakes, but they are also responsible for
our beautiful mountain ranges.
___________20. The majority of earthquakes occur along the earth's plate boundaries.

“There is nothing on earth divine except humanity”.

-Anonymous-

Goodluck!!!
msmyshielmontille
 St. Paul School
Barotac Nuevo, Iloilo
nd
2 Periodical Examination
Biotechnology
8 - St. Joseph
Name:______________________________ Date:_________________ Score:_______________
I. Multiple Choice:
Choose the letter of the best answer. Write your answer on the space before the number.
_____1. The term "homologous chromosomes"
a. refers to replications of the same chromosome
b. is another name for sister chromatids
c. must be haploid
d. means a pair of chromosomes of the same kind, such as sex chromosomes.
_____2. ____________ begins when pairs of sister chromatids align in the center of the cell.
a. Anaphase b. Interphase c. Metaphase d. Prophase
_____3. During metaphase mitosis chromosomes _______.
a. undergo coiling c. undergo uncoiling
b. line up at the equator d. break and disintegrate
_____4. Division of cell in mitosis is classified as _________.
a. anabolism b. catabolism c. cytokinesis d. cytosol
_____5.In which phase does the paired chromatids are separating and being pulled to opposite ends of the cell?
a. metaphase b. anaphase c. prophase d. telophase
_____6. _______ is where two nuclear membranes are formed around the chromosomes located at opposite
ends of the cell.
a. telophase b. prophase c. metaphase d. cytokinesis
_____7. Each chromosomes is made of identical halves called_______.
a. centromeres b. centrioles c. chromatids d. cytosol
_____8. During prophase , as the centrioles are migrating to opposite ends of the cell, their spindle fibers attach
to the __________ of the chromatids.
a. telomeres b. centromeres c. microtubules d. chromatids
_____9. If you count 46 centromeres during mitosis, how many chromosomes are present?
a. 23 b. 46 c. 92 d. 12
_____10. The paired chromatids are pulled apart during anaphase. The new cells that are formed consist of
chromatids, now called chromosomes. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a. G phase of interphase c. G2 phase of interphase
b. S phase of interphase d. M phase
_____11. If a cell begins with 50 chromosomes, after the completion of all the mitotic events, each of the new
cells will have ______ chromosomes.
a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 120
_____12. The development of sperm cells and egg cells is via _______.
a. mitotic division b. meiotic division c. cytokinesis d. karyokinesis
_____13. The union of a sperm cell with an egg cell results in a developing child having cells with a complete
number of chromosomes. To accomplish this, each sperm cell and each egg cell has to have a (n)
______ set of chromosomes.
a. haploid b. diploid c. triploid d. zygote
_____14. In what stage does a cell spend the majority of its life?
a. telophase b. mitosis c. meiosis d. interphase
_____15. What is the type of cell division that results in the production of gametes?
a. mitosis b. meiosis c. cytokinesis d. interphase
_____16. What can happen when cell division goes wrong?
a. cancer b. chaos c. hunger d. explosions
_____17. How do the chromosomes become different from each other in meiosis?
a. It just happens b. They “crossover” c. They are all the same d. Nothing happens
_____18. Meiosis takes place in________.
a. only in haploid individuals c. only in diploid individuals
b. both in haploid and diploid individuals d. none of these
_____19. The mechanism ensuring genetic continuity in mitosis is _______.
a. having of chromosome number between the two new cells
b. formation of cells with 8 chromosomes
c. formation of two daughter cells
d. formation of two cells with identical kind of DNA
_____20. Homologous chromosomes are________.
a. morphologically and genetically similar c. morphologically similar
b. those which pair during synapsis d. none of these
_____21. Which is the fundamental property of all living organisms?
a. respiration b. germination c. growth d. photosynthesis
_____22. Which factors are required for growth?
a. An increase in group of cells, a duplication of genetic material.
b. An increase in group of cells, production of daughter cells by mitosis.
c. A duplication of genetic material and a division assuring that daughter cells receive an equal
the complement of genetic material.
d. An increase in cell mass, a duplication of genetic material, and a division assuring that each
daughter cell receives an equal complement of the genetic material.
_____23. Which of the following is present in maximum number in adult person?
a. somatic cells b. gametes c. cytosol d. zygote
_____24. The stage of mitosis during which nucleolus disintegrates and chromosomes appear is known as___.
a. interphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. anaphase
_____25.The significance of meiosis is associated with_____.
a. DNA duplication c. asexual reproduction
b. sexual reproduction d. growth of the body
II. True/ False:
Analyze the statements below. Write the word true if the statement is correct and false if
otherwise on the space before the number.

__________1. Meiosis results in new cells with genetic material that is identical to the original cell.
__________2. A human being has 23 pairs of chromosomes.
__________3. Kinetochore forms between poles of a cell during mitosis and meiosis.
__________4. The cell cycle is controlled by both internal and external chemical signals.
__________5. Mitosis is a type of cell division in which a complete set of chromosomes is distributed to each
daughter cell.
__________6. Duplicated chromosomes attach to the spindle fibers by their centrioles.
__________7. Cytokinesis begins with the formation of the cleavage furrow.
__________8. Mitosis requires two nuclear division, while meiosis requires one nuclear division.
__________9. Following meiosis, the daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell.
__________10. Meiosis can occur at any time, in all body cells.
__________11. The process of sperm production is called oogenesis.
__________12. The complete number of chromosomes in an organism is the haploid number.
__________13. Oogenesis has an uneven cytokinesis resulting in one large cell.
__________14. When the sperm fertilizes the egg, the full number of chromosomes is restored.
__________15. Cells that continually produce new cells during the life span are adult stem cells.

III. Illustration:
Draw/illustrate the Phases of Mitosis and briefly explain each phase. ( 5pts each)

“Don’t let the fear of losing be greater than the excitement of winning.”
-Robert Kiyosaki-

God Speed!!
msmyshielgmontille