BIO LT2 REVIEWER
Production of WBC – Vitamin K
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In a healthy person, after a large meal,
the production of ___ will increase.
After fasting the production of ___ will
increase.
A. Trypsin, trypsinogen
B. Glucagon, glucose
C. Glucagon, pepsinogen
D. Insulin, glucagon
2. In a well-fed human eating a Western
diet, the richest source of stored
chemical energy in the body is
A. Fat in adipose tissue
B. Glucose in the blood
C. Protein in muscle cells
D. Glycogen in muscle cells
3. Animals that migrate great distances
would obtain the greatest energetic
benefits of storing chemical energy as
A. Proteins
B. Minerals
C. Carbohydrates
D. Fats
4. Certain nutrients are considered
“essential” in the diets of some animals
because
A. Only those animals use those
nutrients
B. These animals are not able to
synthesize these nutrients
C. The nutrients are necessary
coenzymes
D. Only certain foods contain them
5. Which pair correctly associates a
physiological process with the
appropriate vitamin
A. Blood clotting – Vitamin C
B. Normal Vision – Vitamin A
C. Synthesis of cell membrane –
Vitamin D
D.
6. What is the importance of consuming
an adequate amount of proteins in the
diet?
A. They are most commonly used to
meet energy demands of cells
B. Proteins serve a variety of
functions, and the body does not
store excess quantities of proteins
C. They are used as cofactors for
metabolic reactions and are
required in minute quantities
D. Proteins are necessary to produce
urea and other important
metabolites
7. An advantage of a complete digestive
system over a gastrovascular cavity is
that the complete system
A. Excludes the need for extracellular
digestion
B. Allows for specialized regions with
specialized functions
C. Allows extensive branching
D. Facilitates intracellular digestion
8. Because the foods eaten by animals are
often composed largely of
macromolecules, animals need to have
mechanisms for
A. Dehydration synthesis
B. Enzymatic hydrolysis
C. Regurgitation
D. Demineralization
9. Fat digestion yields fatty acids and
glycerol, whereas protein digestion
yields amino acids; both digestive
processes
A. Are catalyzed by the same enzyme
B. Use H20 molecule when breaking
bonds (hydrolysis)
C. Require the presence of HCl to
lower the pH
 D. Require ATP as an energy source
10. The function of mechanical digestion is
to break down large chunks of food into
smaller pieces. Why is this important?
Smaller pieces of food
A. Do not taste as good as larger
pieces of food
B. Have more surface area for
chemical digestion than do larger
pieces of food
C. Are easier to excrete than are larger
pieces of food
D. Are more easily stored in the
stomach than are larger pieces of
food
11. The larger surface area in the gut
directly facilitates
A. Secretion
B. Absorption
C. Filtration
D. Temperature regulation
12. Peristalsis is
A. A process of fat emulsification in
the small intestine
B. Voluntary control of the rectal
sphincters regulating defecation
C. The transport of nutrients to the
liver through hepatic portal vessel
D. Smooth muscle contractions that
move food along the esophagus
13. Among mammals, it is generally true
that
A. All types of foods begin their
enzymatic digestion in the mouth
B. After leaving the oral cavity, the
bolus enters the larynx
C. The epiglottis prevents swallowed
food from entering the trachea
D. The trachea leads to the esophagus
and then to the stomach
14. Stomach cells are moderately well
adapted to the acidity and protein-
digesting activities in the stomach by
having
A. A sufficient colony of H. pylori
B. A thick, mucous secretion and
active mitosis of epithelial cells
C. A high level of secretion of enzymes
by chief cells
D. A cell wall impermeable to acid
15. Villi and microvilli in the small intestine
A. Neutralize stomach acid
B. Activate trypsinogen
C. Increase the surface area to
increase the efficiency of nutrient
absorption
D. Emulsify lipid molecules
16. The secretions of the parietal cells
A. Initiate the chemical digestion of
protein in the stomach
B. Initiate the mechanical digestion of
lipids in the stomach
C. Initiate the chemical digestion of
lipids in the stomach
D. Delay digestion until the food
arrives in the small intestine
17. The bile salts
A. Are enzymes
B. Are manufactured by the pancreas
C. Emulsify fats in the duodenum
D. Are normally an ingredient of
gastric juice
18. After surgical removal of an infected
gallbladder, a person must be especially
careful to restrict dietary intake of
A. Protein
B. Sugar
C. Fat
D. Water
19. Obesity in humans is most clearly linked
to
A. Diabetes and prostate cancer
B. Diabetes and muscle hypertrophy
C. Diabetes and cardiovascular disease
 D. Diabetes and decreased appetite
20. Food being digested in the stomach is in
a highly acidic environment. When the
food is released from the stomach into
the small intestine, why is the
environment no longer acidic?
A. Secretion increases the flow of
bicarbonate ions from the pancreas
into the small intestine to neutralize
the stomach acid
B. Enterokinase activates trypsinogen,
thus neutralizing the stomach acid
C. Bile salts from the gallbladder
neutralize the stomach acid
D. When pepsinogen activates pepsin,
one result is the neutralization of
stomach acid in the stomach
21. If there is a strong genetic link for
diabetes mellitus in your family, how
might you minimize your risk of
developing the disorder
A. Monitor your blood glucose levels
daily
B. Take oral insulin daily
C. Maintain a healthy weight, eat a
balanced diet, and exercise
D. Eat complex carbohydrates like
starch instead of sweets
22. When digestion and absorption of
organic carbohydrates results in more
energy-rich molecules than are
immediately required by an animal, the
excess is
A. Eliminated in the feces
B. Stored as starch in the liver
C. Stored as glycogen in the liver and
muscles
D. Oxidized and converted to ATP
23. The reason that the steroid hormone
aldosterone affects only a small number
of cells in the body is that
A. Only its target cells get exposed to
aldosterone
B. Only its target cells contain
aldosterone receptors
C. It is unable to enter non-target cells
D. Non-target cells destroy
aldosterone before it can produce
any effect
24. You are dissecting a fish in your biology
laboratory section. Your teaching
assistant points out a long oval
structure and tells you it is an endocrine
gland. Which of the following would
you then know is a true statement?
A. It secretes a product that is
released through a series of ducts
B. The gland’s products will only
interact with receptors on the cell
membrane
C. The gland’s product is lipid soluble
D. The gland produces and secretes its
product into the blood
25. In experiments where researchers
suspect that a hormone may be
responsible for a certain physiological
effect, they may cut the neurons
leading to the organ where the effect
being studied occurs. What is the
purpose of cutting these neurons?
A. To make sure that the effect is not
occurring through actions in the
nervous system
B. To make sure that the organ being
affected cannot function unless
researchers stimulate it with an
external electrical probe
C. To impair the normal functions of
the organ so that the hormonal
effect can be more easily studied
D. To numb the organ so that it can be
probed without inducing pain in the
lab animal
26. Different body cells can respond
differently to the same peptide
hormones because
A. Different target cells have different
set of genes
B. A target cell’s response is
determined by the components of
its signal transduction pathways
C. The circulatory system regulates
responses to hormones by routing
the hormones to specific targets
D. The hormone is chemically altered
in different ways as it travels
through the circulatory system
27. Growth factors are local regulators that
A. Are modified fatty acids that
stimulate bone and cartilage
growth
B. Are found on the surface of cancer
cells and stimulate abnormal cell
division
C. Bind to cell-surface receptors and
stimulate growth and development
of target cells
D. Convey messages between cells
28. Steroid and peptide hormones typically
have in common
A. The building blocks from which they
are synthesized
B. Their solubility in cell membranes
C. Their requirement for travel
through the bloodstream
D. Their reliance on signal
transduction in the cell
29. Which of the following are similar in
structure to cholesterol?
A. Leptin and serotonin
B. Luteinizing hormone and insulin
C. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
and vasopressin
D. Testosterone, estradiol, and cortisol
30. What property of steroid hormones
allows them to cross the phospholipid
bilayer?
A. Steroid hormones are lipid soluble
and easily cross the phospholipid
bilayer
B. Steroid hormones can act in very
small concentrations and very few
molecules of steroids need to cross
the lipid bilayer
C. Steroid hormones act on cells close
to where they are produced and
very few molecules are required to
travel such short distance to cross
the lipid bilayer
31. During mammalian labor and delivery,
the contraction of uterine muscles is
enhanced by oxytocin. This is an
example of
A. A negative feedback system
B. A hormone hat acts in an
antagonistic way with another
hormone
C. A hormone that is involved in a
positive feedback loop
D. Signal transduction immediately
changing gene expression in its
target cells
32. Analysis of a blood sample from a
fasting individual who had not eaten for
24 hours would be expected to reveal
high levels of
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Gastrin
D. Glucose
33. When the beta cells of the pancreas
release insulin into the blood
A. The skeletal muscles and the
adipose cells take up glucose at a
faster rate
B. The liver catabolizes glycogen
 C. The alpha cells of the pancreas
release glucose into the blood
D. The kidneys begin gluconeogenesis
34. An example of antagonistic hormones
controlling homeostasis is
A. Thyroxine and parathyroid
hormone in calcium balance
B. Insulin and glucagon in glucose
metabolism
C. Progestin and estrogens in sexual
differentiation
35. Hormones secreted by the posterior
pituary gland are made in the
A. Cerebellum
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
36. The interrelationship between the
endocrine and the nervous systems are
especially apparent in a
A. Steroid-producing cell in the
adrenal cortex
B. Neurosecretory cell in the
hypothalamus
C. Brain cell in the cerebral cortex
D. Cell in the pancreas that produces
digestive enzymes
37. If a person loses a large amount of
water in a short period of time, he or
she may die from dehydration.
Antidiuretic hormone can help reduce
water loss through its interaction with
its target cells in the
A. Anterior pituitary
B. Posterior pituitary
C. Bladder
D. Kidney
38. In a lactating mammal, the two
hormones that promote milk synthesis
and milk release, respectively, are
A. Prolactin and calcitonin
B. Prolactin and oxytocin
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone and
luteinizing hormone
D. Luteinizing hormone and oxytocin
39. The body’s reaction to parathyroid
hormone, raising plasma levels of
calcium, can be opposed by
A. Thyroxine
B. Epinephrine
C. Growth hormone
D. Calcitonin
40. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation for hypothyroidism in a
patient whose iodine level is normal?
A. Greater production of T3 and T4
B. Hypo secretion of thyroid
stimulating hormone
C. Hypersecretion of thyroid
stimulating hormone
D. A decrease in the thyroid secretion
of calcitonin
41. When a person drinks alcohol, the rate
of urination increases. Which of the
following best accounts for the increase
in urination?
A. Alcohol stimulates the release of
ADH
B. Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH
C. Alcohol inhibits the binding of ADH
to receptors in the nephron
D. Alcohol could inhibit ADH release of
the binding of ADH receptors in the
nephron
42. Removing which of the following glands
would have the most wide-reaching
effect on bodily functions?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Pituitary gland
C. Thyroid gland
D. Ovaries and testes
43. Glucocorticoids do which of the
following
A. Promotes the immune response
 B. Promote the release of fatty acids
C. Increase blood glucose levels
D. Increase insulin production
44. Fight-or-flight reactions include
activation of the
A. Parathyroid lands, leading to
increased metabolic rate
B. Anterior pituitary gland, leading to
the cessation of gonadal functions
C. Adrenal medulla, leading to
increased secretion of epinephrine
D. Pancreas, leading to a reduction in
the blood sugar concentration
45. A disease that destroys the adrenal
cortex should lead to an increase in the
plasma levels of
A. Glucocorticoid hormone
B. Epinephrine
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Acetylcholine
46. In response to stress, the adrenal gland
promotes the synthesis of glucose from
non-carbohydrate substrates via the
action of the steroid hormone
A. Glucagon
B. Cortisol
C. Thyroxine
D. ACTH
47. The force driving simple diffusion is ___,
while the energy source for active
transport is ___.
A. The concentration gradient, ADP
B. The concentration gradient, ATP
C. Transmembrane pumps, electron
transport
D. Phosphorylated protein carries, ATP
48. To maintain homeostasis, freshwater
fish must
A. Excrete large quantities of
electrolytes
B. Consume large quantities of water
C. Excrete large quantities of water
D. Take in electrolyte through simple
diffusion
49. A necropsy of a marine sea star that
died after it was mistakenly placed in
freshwater would likely show that it
died because
A. It was stressed and needed more
time to acclimate to the new
conditions
B. It was so hypertonic to the
freshwater that it could not
osmoregulate
C. Its contractile vacuoles ruptured
D. Its cell dehydrated and lost the
ability to metabolize
50. The body fluids of an osmoconformer
would be ___ with its ___ environment
A. Isosmotic, freshwater
B. Hyperosmotic, saltwater
C. Isosmotic, saltwater
D. Hypoosmotic, saltwater
51. A human who has no access to fresh
water but is forced to drink seawater
instead will
A. Thrive under such conditions, as
long as he lived at the ocean most
of his life
B. Excrete more water molecules than
taken in, because of the high load
of ion digestion
C. Develop structural changes In the
kidneys to accommodate the salt
overload
52. Urea is produced in the
A. Liver from NH3 and CO2
B. Liver from glycogen
C. Kidneys from glycerol and fatty
acids
D. Bladder from uric acid and water
53. Urea is
A. Insoluble in water
 B. The primary nitrogenous waste
product of humans
C. The primary nitrogenous waste
product of most birds
D. The primary nitrogenous waste
product of most aquatic
invertebrates
54. Excessive formation of uric acid crystals
in humans leads to
A. Diabetes, where excessive urine
formation occurs
B. Insatiable thirst and excessive urine
formation
C. Gout, a painful inflammatory
disease that primarily affects the
joints
D. Osteoarthritis, an inevitable
consequence of aging
55. Ammonia
A. Is insoluble in water
B. Has low toxicity relative to urea
C. Its metabolically more expensive to
synthesize than urea
D. It’s the major nitrogenous waste
excreted by insects
56. The advantage of excreting nitrogenous
wastes as urea rather than ammonia is
that
A. Urea can be exchanged for sodium
ions
B. Urea is less toxic than ammonia
C. Urea does not affect the osmolar
gradient
D. Less nitrogen is removed from the
body
57. In animals, nitrogenous wastes are
produced mostly from the catabolism of
A. Starch and cellulose
B. Triglycerides and steroids
C. Proteins and nucleic acids
D. Phospholipids and glycolipids
58. Birds secrete uric acid as their
nitrogenous waste because uric acid
A. Is readily soluble in water
B. Is metabolically less expensive to
synthesize than other excretory
products
C. Requires little water for
nitrogenous waste disposal, thus
reducing body mass
D. Can be reused by birds as a protein
source
59. Which accurately describes selectively
permeability?
A. An input of energy is required for
transport
B. Lipid-soluble molecules pass
through a membrane
C. There must be a concentration
gradient for molecules to pass
through a membrane
D. Only certain molecules can cross a
cell membrane
60. Why are the renal artery and vein
critical to the process of
osmoregulation in vertebrates?
A. The kidneys require constant and
abnormally high oxygen supply to
function
B. The renal artery delivers blood and
nitrogenous waste to the kidneys
and the renal vein
C. The kidneys require higher than
normal levels of hormones
D. The renal artery and vein are the
main pathways regulating how
much is produced by the kidneys
61. The transfer of fluid from the
glomerulus to Bowman’s capsule
A. Results from active transport
B. Transfer large molecules as easily as
small ones
 C. Is very selective as to which
subprotein-sized molecules are
transformed
D. Is mainly a consequence of blood
pressure in the capillaries of the
glomerulus
62. Which process in the nephron is least
selective
A. Filtration
B. Reabsorption
C. Active transport
D. Secretion
63. What is the function of the osmotic
gradient found in the kidney? The
osmotic gradient allows for
A. Electrolytes to move from low to
high concentrations in the absence
of ATP
B. The precise control of the retention
of water and electrolytes
C. The loop of Henle to deliver water
to the renal vein
D. The filtration of large cells at the
glomerulus
64. Processing of filtrate in the proximal
and distal tubules
A. Achieves the conversion of toxic
ammonia to less toxic urea
B. Maintains homeostasis of pH in
body fluids
C. Regulates the speed of blood flow
through the nephrons
D. Reabsorbs urea to maintain osmotic
balance
65. The high osmolarity of the renal
medulla is maintained by all of the
following EXCEPT
A. Active transport of salt from the
upper region of the ascending limb
B. The spatial arrangement of
juxtamedullary nephrons
C. Diffusion area from the collecting
dust
D. Diffusion of salt from the
descending limb of the loop of
Henle
66. Increased ADH secretion is likely after
A. Drinking lots of pure water
B. Sweating-induced dehydration
increases plasma osmolarity
C. Eating a small sugary snack
D. Blood pressure becomes
abnormally high
67. After blood flow is artificially reduced at
one kidney, you would expect that
kidney to excrete more of the hormone
known as
A. Angiotensinogen
B. Renin
C. ADH
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide
68. Food processing occurs in stages. What
is the correct order?
A. Ingestion, digestion, absorption,
elimination
B. Absorption, digestion, elimination
C. Ingestion, absorption, digestion,
elimination
D. Ingestion, absorption, digestion
E. None of the above
69. Digestion begins in the oral cavity.
Which statement does not describe the
processes taking place?
A. The teeth break up food
B. Saliva moistens it for easier
swallowing
C. An enzyme in saliva begins the
hydrolysis of starch
D. The tongue pushes the bolus of
food into the pharynx
E. None of the above
70. During diastole
A. The heart contracts
 B. The heart relaxes C. To vibrate when air is exhaled to
C. The atria contracts produce sounds
D. The ventricles contract D. To dislodge food that may have
E. None of the above slipped past the epiglottis
71. Heart attacks may be due to E. To sweep mucus with trapped
A. Smoking particles up and out of the
B. Atherosclerosis respiratory tract
C. Cholesterol 76. Smoking is a serious assault on the
D. Stress respiratory system causing the
E. Al of the above following, except
72. Arteries are connected to veins via A. Lung cancer
A. Arterioles B. Heart disease
B. Venules C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary
C. Capillaries disease (COPD)
D. Nerve cells D. Goiter
E. None of the above E. None of the above
73. Allow the transfer of substances 77. In general, these blood vessels carry
through their walls oxygen-poor blood
A. Arteries A. Arteries
B. Arterioles B. Veins
C. Capillaries C. Pulmonary vein
D. Veins D. Coronary artery
E. All of the above E. None of the above
74. Countercurrent exchange of gas in the 78. The heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to
gills of a fish the lungs via
A. Speeds up the flow of water A. Pulmonary artery
through the gills B. Pulmonary vein
B. Maintains a gradient that enhances C. Ventricles
diffusion D. Atria
C. Enables the fish to obtain oxygen E. None of the above
without swimming 79. Hemoglobin
D. Means that blood and water flow at A. Carries O2
different rates B. Helps transport CO2
E. Allow O2 to diffuse against its C. Buffers the blood
partial pressure gradient D. All of the above
75. What is the function of the cilia in the E. None of the above
trachea and bronchi? 80. Alveoli are so small that specialized
A. To sweep air into and out of the secretions are required to keep them
lungs from sticking shut from the surface
B. To increase surface area for gas tension of the moist environment.
exchange What are these called?
A. Mucus
 B. Surfactants 87. All are part of the alimentary canal
C. Moist air except
D. Interstitial fluid A. Pharynx
E. None of the above B. Stomach
81. All are fat soluble vitamins, except C. Intestine
A. A D. Anus
B. C E. Rectum
C. D 88. Regulate the passage of food into and
D. E out of the stomach
E. K A. Satiety
82. In order to prevent birth defects, B. Hypothalamus
pregnant women are given Vitamin B9, C. Muscles
otherwise known as D. Sphincters
A. Retinol 89. Gastric juice
B. Riboflavin A. Kills all bacteria and all microbes
C. Ascorbic acid B. Breaks cells apart
D. Folic acid C. Protect proteins
E. None of the above D. All of the above
83. Circulatory system facilitates exchange E. None of the above
with all body tissues to 90. Water soluble hormones are
A. Exchange gases A. Carbohydrate-derived
B. Dispose waste products B. Lipid-derived
C. Acquire nutrients C. Amino acid-derived
D. All of the above D. Nucleic acid-derived
84. Generally returns blood to the heart
A. Capillaries II. TRUE/FALSE
B. Arteries 1. After glycogen stores are filled,
C. Veins excessive calories are stored as fat,
D. Bronchiole regardless of their original food source
85. When carbon dioxide is exchange for TRUE
oxygen, it is transported back to the 2. Carbohydrates and fats are normally
lungs as used as fuel before proteins are used
A. Carbon dioxide TRUE
B. Carbonic acid 3. The small intestine is the major organ of
C. Bicarbonate ion chemical digestion and nutrient
D. None of the above absorption F
86. Breaking down of food into molecules TRUE
involves two phases: 4. Negative pressure breathing ventilates
A. Mechanical and physical your lungs. The relaxation of the rib
B. Physical and chemical muscles diaphragm expands the chest
C. Chemical and mechanical cavity, reducing air pressure in the
D. None of the above alveoli and drawing air into the lungs
 FALSE
5. The circulatory systems facilitate
exchange with all body tissues
TRUE
6. Pepsinogen, Na, and Cl are secreted
into the lumen of the stomach
FALSE
7. It is not important for the internal sacs
of the lungs to be moist, as this disrupts
the exchange of gases
FALSE
8. Villi are projection that move mucus
trapped with contaminants upward to
the pharynx
FALSE
9. When the diaphragm contracts, it
moves upward, thus giving more room
for the air to expand
FALSE
10. Saliva may act as a buffer to neutralize
stomach acid
TRUE