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    Search on Mathematics… 101 ●1 Home Questions Tags Users Unanswered Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y) Ask Question 1 It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will explain what I mean: Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another variable. Say x=2y. I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different ways: f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself. f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y) I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable f in terms of y. My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two. functions notation terminology definition shareciteeditflag edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48 fiftyeight 1,05911118 add a comment start a bounty 2 Answers active oldest votes 0 It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain. Let us work in the easy setting: f:R→R, z↦f(z):=z, (∗) and y:R→R, x↦y(x):= 1 2 x. When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (∗)). When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should introduce the composition the composition g:=f∘y:R→R, where g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)= 1 2 x. shareciteeditflag answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 Avitus 11.6k11840 add a comment 0 I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the whole real line, (f:R→R). Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y) is meaningless if y is not a real number. In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there exists x∈R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of equality and of f. If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense is f∘y and, given x∈R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)∈R. Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and that you should look at f(y) as f∘y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x', which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y). shareciteeditflag answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29 Git Gud 28.7k1050100 In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary to write f(u) instead of f∘u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. – Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47 @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. – Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50 add a comment Your Answer community wiki Post Your Answer Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged functions notation terminology definition or ask your own question. asked 5 years, 1 month ago viewed 132 times active 5 years, 1 month ago BLOG Adios to Winter Bash 2018 FEATURED ON META Announcing Our Amazing 2018 Stuff-A-Way! HOT META POSTS 16 How do we earn reputation more easily? 21 2018: a year in moderation 11 Re-asking another user's on-hold question Love this site? Get the weekly newsletter! In it, you'll get: The week's top quest

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    Search on Mathematics… 101 ●1 Home Questions Tags Users Unanswered Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y) Ask Question 1 It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will explain what I mean: Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another variable. Say x=2y. I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different ways: f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself. f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y) I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable f in terms of y. My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two. functions notation terminology definition shareciteeditflag edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48 fiftyeight 1,05911118 add a comment start a bounty 2 Answers active oldest votes 0 It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain. Let us work in the easy setting: f:R→R, z↦f(z):=z, (∗) and y:R→R, x↦y(x):= 1 2 x. When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (∗)). When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should introduce the composition the composition g:=f∘y:R→R, where g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)= 1 2 x. shareciteeditflag answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 Avitus 11.6k11840 add a comment 0 I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the whole real line, (f:R→R). Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y) is meaningless if y is not a real number. In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there exists x∈R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of equality and of f. If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense is f∘y and, given x∈R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)∈R. Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and that you should look at f(y) as f∘y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x', which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y). shareciteeditflag answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29 Git Gud 28.7k1050100 In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary to write f(u) instead of f∘u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. – Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47 @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. – Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50 add a comment Your Answer community wiki Post Your Answer Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged functions notation terminology definition or ask your own question. asked 5 years, 1 month ago viewed 132 times active 5 years, 1 month ago BLOG Adios to Winter Bash 2018 FEATURED ON META Announcing Our Amazing 2018 Stuff-A-Way! HOT META POSTS 16 How do we earn reputation more easily? 21 2018: a year in moderation 11 Re-asking another user's on-hold question Love this site? Get the weekly newsletter! In it, you'll get: The week's top quest

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    Mati

    Uploaded by

    ubi bhatt
    Search on Mathematics… 101 ●1 Home Questions Tags Users Unanswered Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y) Ask Question 1 It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will explain what I mean: Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another variable. Say x=2y. I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different ways: f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself. f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y) I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable f in terms of y. My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two. functions notation terminology definition shareciteeditflag edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48 fiftyeight 1,05911118 add a comment start a bounty 2 Answers active oldest votes 0 It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain. Let us work in the easy setting: f:R→R, z↦f(z):=z, (∗) and y:R→R, x↦y(x):= 1 2 x. When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (∗)). When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should introduce the composition the composition g:=f∘y:R→R, where g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)= 1 2 x. shareciteeditflag answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01 Avitus 11.6k11840 add a comment 0 I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the whole real line, (f:R→R). Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y) is meaningless if y is not a real number. In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there exists x∈R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of equality and of f. If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense is f∘y and, given x∈R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)∈R. Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and that you should look at f(y) as f∘y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x', which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y). shareciteeditflag answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29 Git Gud 28.7k1050100 In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary to write f(u) instead of f∘u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. – Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47 @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. – Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50 add a comment Your Answer community wiki Post Your Answer Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged functions notation terminology definition or ask your own question. asked 5 years, 1 month ago viewed 132 times active 5 years, 1 month ago BLOG Adios to Winter Bash 2018 FEATURED ON META Announcing Our Amazing 2018 Stuff-A-Way! HOT META POSTS 16 How do we earn reputation more easily? 21 2018: a year in moderation 11 Re-asking another user's on-hold question Love this site? Get the weekly newsletter! In it, you'll get: The week's top quest

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as TXT, PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
    Flag for inappropriate content
    of 15

    Search on Mathematics�

    101
    ?1

    Home
    Questions
    Tags
    Users
    Unanswered
    Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y)
    Ask Question

    It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will


    explain what I mean:

    Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple
    example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another
    variable. Say x=2y.

    I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different
    ways:

    f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it


    accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself.

    f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y)
    I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in
    terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being
    defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable
    f in terms of y.

    My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient


    notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two.

    functions notation terminology definition


    shareciteeditflag
    edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01
    asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48

    fiftyeight
    1,05911118
    add a comment
    start a bounty
    2 Answers
    active oldest votes

    It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain.


    Let us work in the easy setting:

    f:R?R, z?f(z):=z, (*)


    and
    y:R?R, x?y(x):=
    1
    2

    x.
    When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element
    y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (*)).

    When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should
    introduce the composition the composition g:=f�y:R?R, where
    g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)=
    1
    2

    x.

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01

    Avitus
    11.6k11840
    add a comment

    I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the
    whole real line, (f:R?R).

    Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y)
    is meaningless if y is not a real number.

    In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there
    exists x?R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of
    equality and of f.

    If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real
    values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense
    is f�y and, given x?R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)?R.

    Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and
    that you should look at f(y) as f�y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the
    convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x',
    which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y).

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29

    Git Gud
    28.7k1050100
    In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary
    to write f(u) instead of f�u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. �
    Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47
    @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last
    paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. �
    Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50
    add a comment
    Your Answer
    community wiki
    Post Your Answer
    Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged functions notation
    terminology definition or ask your own question.
    asked

    5 years, 1 month ago

    viewed

    132 times

    active

    5 years, 1 month ago

    BLOG
    Adios to Winter Bash 2018
    FEATURED ON META
    Announcing Our Amazing 2018 Stuff-A-Way!
    HOT META POSTS
    16 How do we earn reputation more easily?
    21 2018: a year in moderation
    11 Re-asking another user's on-hold question
    Love this site?
    Get the weekly newsletter! In it, you'll get:

    The week's top questions and answers


    Important community announcements
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    Search on Mathematics�

    101
    ?1

    Home
    Questions
    Tags
    Users
    Unanswered
    Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y)
    Ask Question

    It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will


    explain what I mean:

    Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple
    example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another
    variable. Say x=2y.

    I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different
    ways:

    f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it


    accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself.

    f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y)
    I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in
    terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being
    defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable
    f in terms of y.

    My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient


    notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two.

    functions notation terminology definition


    shareciteeditflag
    edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01
    asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48

    fiftyeight
    1,05911118
    add a comment
    start a bounty
    2 Answers
    active oldest votes

    It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain.


    Let us work in the easy setting:

    f:R?R, z?f(z):=z, (*)


    and

    y:R?R, x?y(x):=
    1
    2

    x.
    When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element
    y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (*)).

    When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should
    introduce the composition the composition g:=f�y:R?R, where
    g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)=
    1
    2

    x.

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01

    Avitus
    11.6k11840
    add a comment

    I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the
    whole real line, (f:R?R).

    Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y)
    is meaningless if y is not a real number.

    In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there
    exists x?R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of
    equality and of f.

    If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real
    values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense
    is f�y and, given x?R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)?R.

    Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and
    that you should look at f(y) as f�y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the
    convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x',
    which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y).

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29

    Git Gud
    28.7k1050100
    In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary
    to write f(u) instead of f�u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. �
    Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47
    @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last
    paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. �
    Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50
    add a comment
    Your Answer

    community wiki
    Post Your Answer
    Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged functions notation
    terminology definition or ask your own question.
    asked

    5 years, 1 month ago

    viewed

    132 times

    active

    5 years, 1 month ago

    BLOG
    Adios to Winter Bash 2018
    FEATURED ON META
    Announcing Our Amazing 2018 Stuff-A-Way!
    HOT META POSTS
    16 How do we earn reputation more easily?
    21 2018: a year in moderation
    11 Re-asking another user's on-hold question
    Love this site?
    Get the weekly newsletter! In it, you'll get:

    The week's top questions and answers


    Important community announcements
    Questions that need answers
    Sign up for the newsletter
    see an example newsletter

    Related
    1
    question on jargon and notation of higher order functions
    7
    Removable discontinuity question
    2
    Do these two different ways of interpreting stochastic processes have names?
    1
    Birational affine schemes
    0
    Function notation (domain �maps to� range) for a parameterized function
    0
    Terminology and notation for construction of complicated sets?
    0
    Set membership notation for indexed elements in a set
    0
    Trying to get all this terminology straight in logic
    2
    Terminology for free variables
    1
    What is the terminology for nonlinear terms that aren't cross terms?
    Hot Network Questions
    What kind of equipment would a giant-slayer use?
    Is an 8th level and above cleric with the death domain harmed by channeled positive
    energy?
    Can exams in university be called "session"? (Similarly to Russian "??????")
    Cleaner way to handle double pointer in C++ BST?
    Selling a property - multiple offers of same value?
    How do I ensure that a search committee won't contact my current colleagues (that
    are not references) to ask about me?
    Can I use rice wine vinegar in risotto?
    Can someone read my E-Mail if I lose ownership of my domain?
    more hot questions
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    site design / logo � 2019 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under cc
    by-sa 3.0 with attribution required. rev 2019.1.7.32550
    Search on Mathematics�

    101
    ?1

    Home
    Questions
    Tags
    Users
    Unanswered
    Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y)
    Ask Question

    It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will


    explain what I mean:

    Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple
    example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another
    variable. Say x=2y.

    I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different
    ways:

    f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it


    accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself.

    f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y)
    I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in
    terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being
    defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable
    f in terms of y.

    My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient


    notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two.

    functions notation terminology definition


    shareciteeditflag
    edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01
    asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48
    fiftyeight
    1,05911118
    add a comment
    start a bounty
    2 Answers
    active oldest votes

    It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain.


    Let us work in the easy setting:

    f:R?R, z?f(z):=z, (*)


    and

    y:R?R, x?y(x):=
    1
    2

    x.
    When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element
    y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (*)).

    When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should
    introduce the composition the composition g:=f�y:R?R, where
    g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)=
    1
    2

    x.

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01

    Avitus
    11.6k11840
    add a comment

    I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the
    whole real line, (f:R?R).

    Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y)
    is meaningless if y is not a real number.

    In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there
    exists x?R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of
    equality and of f.

    If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real
    values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense
    is f�y and, given x?R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)?R.

    Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and
    that you should look at f(y) as f�y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the
    convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x',
    which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y).
    shareciteeditflag
    answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29

    Git Gud
    28.7k1050100
    In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary
    to write f(u) instead of f�u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. �
    Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47
    @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last
    paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. �
    Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50
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    Notation and terminology for functions, interpreting f(y)
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    It seems to me there are two different interpretations of a symbol f(y). I will


    explain what I mean:

    Suppose I have a function f(x)=x. (I took the identity map to have a simple
    example). Also suppose I have a dependence between x and y which is another
    variable. Say x=2y.

    I seems to me I can interpret f and particularly the symbol f(y) in two different
    ways:

    f is strictly a map and it taken whatever variable we give it and maps it


    accordingly. In this case f(y)=y as f is the identity map so just maps y to itself.

    f is a variable dependent on x, since I've defined f(x)=x, then when I denote f(y)
    I can interpret it as the variable f but now expressed in terms of y instead of in
    terms of x, so in this case f(y)=x=2y. In this case I viewed f as already being
    defined in terms of x and the symbol f(y) merely gives me this predefined variable
    f in terms of y.

    My question is what is the usual interpretation, and if there is convenient


    notation and/or common terminology which distinguish the two.

    functions notation terminology definition


    shareciteeditflag
    edited Nov 30 '13 at 9:01
    asked Nov 30 '13 at 8:48

    fiftyeight
    1,05911118
    add a comment
    start a bounty
    2 Answers
    active oldest votes

    It is better to consider the composition of functions specifying range and domain.


    Let us work in the easy setting:

    f:R?R, z?f(z):=z, (*)


    and

    y:R?R, x?y(x):=
    1
    2

    x.
    When you write f(y)=y in 1. you are just considering the function f on any element
    y (call it y, z, x etc...it is the same: you are using (*)).

    When you write f(y)=x=2y in 2. notation is confusing, instead. I believe you should
    introduce the composition the composition g:=f�y:R?R, where
    g(x)=f(y(x))=y(x)=
    1
    2

    x.

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Nov 30 '13 at 9:01

    Avitus
    11.6k11840
    add a comment

    I'll restrict this answer to the case where f is a real function defined on the
    whole real line, (f:R?R).

    Since the domain of f is R, its input are real numbers. Therefore, the symbol f(y)
    is meaningless if y is not a real number.

    In your example you set f=idR. Let y be a real number. If it is the case that there
    exists x?R such that y=2x, then f(y)=f(2x)=2x, by virtue of the definition of
    equality and of f.

    If y is a function (for simplication, let dom(y)=R and let it take only real
    values), then, as said before, f(y) doesn't make sense. Something that makes sense
    is f�y and, given x?R, f(y(x)) also makes sense because y(x)?R.

    Now answering your question, the usual interpretation is that y is a function and
    that you should look at f(y) as f�y (accompanied by a deep sigh), which is the
    convenient notation. Common terminology is saying that 'y is a function of x',
    which doesn't excuse the wrongness of f(y).

    shareciteeditflag
    answered Dec 8 '13 at 12:29

    Git Gud
    28.7k1050100
    In some disciplines, mainly PDE theory and Calculus of Variations, it is customary
    to write f(u) instead of f�u. However, I agree that this is an abuse of notation. �
    Siminore Dec 8 '13 at 12:47
    @Siminore Unfortunately it is common. I thought I made that clear in the last
    paragraph. In any case your comment makes it clear, if it wasn't already. Thanks. �
    Git Gud Dec 8 '13 at 12:50
    add a comment
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    7
    Removable discontinuity question
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    Do these two different ways of interpreting stochastic processes have names?
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    Function notation (domain �maps to� range) for a parameterized function
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    Terminology and notation for construction of complicated sets?
    0
    Set membership notation for indexed elements in a set
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    Trying to get all this terminology straight in logic
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    Terminology for free variables
    1
    What is the terminology for nonlinear terms that aren't cross terms?
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