Class - X: Scholastic Aptitude Test (Sat)

Code
Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division

2
NTSE ALL INDIA TEST-(FST-1)
CLASS –X
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Min. Date : 17-09-2017 Max. Marks : 100
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help
of HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. The question paper contains 100 questions, 40 Questions from Science (1-40), 20 Questions
from Mathematics (41-60), 40 Question from Social Science (61-100), each carries
one mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in
any form is not allowed.
5. Write your Name & Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
6. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
7. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
8. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : …………………………………………………………ROLL NO. : ………………………..…
I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.
------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
PCCP Head Office :
Address : Plot No. A-51 [A], IPIA, Near Resonance CG Tower,
Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Contact. No. : +91-0744-2434727, 8824078330, Fax : 0744-2427146
Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : pccp@resonance.ac.in

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NTSE ALL INDIA TEST-FST-1 | 17-09-2017 |
SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Let E,G and N represents the magnitude of electromagnetic, gravitational and nuclear forces between
two electrons at a given separation . Then
(A) N < E < G (B) E > N > G (C) G > N > E (D) E > G > N
2. A 60 kg man pushes a 40 kg man by a force of 60 N. The 40 kg man has pushed the other man with a
force.
(A) 40 N (B) 0 N (C) 60 N (D) 20 N
3. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for some time and with uniform
velocity v2 for the next equal time. The average velocity v is given by
v v 2 1 1 1 1 1
(A) v  1 2 (B) v v1 v 2 (C)   (D)  
2 v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2
4. Two objects A and B are thrown upward simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of A is greater
than the mass of B .Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on the two bodies.
(A) The two bodies will reach the same height.
(B) A will go higher than B.
(C) B will go higher than A.
(D) Any of the above three may happen depending on the speed with which the objects are thrown.
5. The work done by all the forces (external and internal) on a system equals the change in
(A) total energy (B) kinetic energy (C) potential energy (D) none of these.
6. A metal cube is placed in an empty vessel. When water is filled in the vessel so that the cube is
completely immersed in the water, the force on the bottom of the vessel in contact with the cube
(A) will increase (B) will decrease (C) will remain the same (D) will become zero
7. When sound wave is refracted from air to water, which of the following will remain unchanged?
(A) wave number (B) wavelength (C) wave velocity (D) frequency
8. Light is
(A) wave phenomenon (B) particle phenomenon
(C) both particle and wave phenomenon (D) None of these
9. A solar panel is made by combining a large number of :

(A) solar cookers (B) solar cells (C) solar water heaters (D) solar concentrators
10. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight -
(A) remains precisely constant (B) increases slightly
(C) decreases slightly (D)may increase slightly or may decrease slightly
11. Two resistance R and 2R are connected in series in an electric circuit. The thermal energy developed in
R and 2R are in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
12. A positively charged particle projected towards east and deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The
field may be -
(A) towards west (B) towards south (C) upward (D) downward
13. Two spheres (identical) of mass m and radius R are separated by 3R from their centres. The force
between them is proportional to :
(A) R–2 (B) R2 (C) R–4 (D) R4
14. Which of the following is not a pair of homologues ?
(A) Ethylacetylene and Dimethylacetylene (B) Methylacetylene and Ethylacetylene
(C) 1-Butyne and 2-Pentyne (D) 1-Pentyne and 3-Hexyne
Corporate Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.)- 324005
PCCP Head Office: Plot No. A-51 [A], IPIA, Near Resonancen CG Tower
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15. Write the IUPAC name of :
(A) 3-amino-3-methyl-5-hexanone (B) 4-amino-4-methyl-2-hexanone

(C) 4-amino-4-ethyl-2-hexanone (D) none of these
16. The addition of hydrogen to vegetable oils to obtain vegetable ghee (vanaspati ghee) is known as
(A) halogenation (B) hydrogenation (C) combustion (D) esterification
17. Which of the following compounds contains the functional group of highest priority ?
(A) N  C – CH2 – CH2 – CHO. (B) CH3 – CH2 – CO – CH3.
(C) H – O – C – CH2 – OH (D) CH 3 – C – O – CH 3
|| ||
O O
18. Efflorescence is shown during

(A) crystallization of washing soda. (B) loss of some molecules of water of crystallization.
(C) formation of anhydrous sodium carbonate. (D) cleansing action of washing soda
19. Oxides of non-metals on reaction with bases produce
(A) salt and water. (B) base. (C) acid. (D) hydroxides
20. In the reaction PCl3 + Cl2  PCl5
(A) PCl3 is acting as reductant (B) Cl2 is acting as reductant
(C) both PCl3 and Cl2 are acting as reductant (D) both PCl3 and Cl2 are acting as oxidant
21. Which of the following gases can be separated completely from a mixture by using water as a solvent?
(A) CO2 and O2 (B) N2 and NH3 (C) CO2 and NH3 (D) H2 and N2
22. Identify the wrong statement in the following :
(A) Amongst isoelectronic species, the smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
radius.
(B) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
(C) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
(D) Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the second period
of the periodic table
23. The equation between an acid and a base is
XOH + HY  XY + H2O
which of the following is the cation part of salt ?
(A) X (B) OH (C) H (D) Y
24. Which is not basic postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory ?
(A) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(B) In a given cmpound, the relative number and kinds of atoms are constant.
(C) Atoms of all elements are alike, including their masses.
(D) Each element is composed of extermely small particles called atoms
25. A solution, which at a given temperature dissolves as much solute as it is capable of dissolving, is said to
be a -
(A) saturated solution (B) semi saturated solution
(C) unsaturated solution (D) super saturated solution
26. 1 mole of a compound contains 1 mole of carbon and 2 moles of oxygen. The molecular weight of the
compound is :
(A) 3 (B) 12 (C) 32 (D) 44
27. A clone is defined as
(A) a part of DNA. (B) genetically similar individuals.
(C) genetically different individuals. (D) morphologically different individuals.
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28. The process of transfer of male gametes to the female sex organ in plants is
(A) pollination. (B) budding. (C) gametogenesis. (D) fertilisation.
29. Expanded form of A.C.T.H. is
(A) Adrenocorticol hormone. (B) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone.
(C) Adrenocortosoltrophic hormone. (D) Adrenocaretonoids hormone.
30. Recombinations were occurs due to
(A) modifications. (B) mutations.
(C) crossing over (D) linkage.
31. The modern concept of evolution is a modified form of Darwin’s theory of natural selection and is often
called
(A) New-Darwinism. (B) Neo-Darwinism. (C) Niu-Darwinism. (D) Noe-Darwinism.
32. The energy we get from outside the earth is
(A) solar energy. (B) thermal energy. (C) hydro energy. (D) food energy.
33. Expanded form of IUCN is
(A) International unity for conservation of nature and natural resources.
(B) International union for conservation of nature and natural resources.
(C) International union for commitment of nature save.
(D) Internal union for conservation of nature and natural resources.
34. In invertebrates, nerve cells aggregate to form masses called
(A) Substantia nigra. (B) Cerebellum. (C) Thalamus. (D) Ganglia.
35. Chemicals and pesticide residues are transferred in food chain from one level to another. The amount of
these chemicals in human beings is
(A) minimum in concentration. (B) maximum in concentration.
(C) same as present in first level. (D) same as present in second level.
36. Two bones are connected to each other by a
(A) ligament. (B) calcium. (C) tendon. (D) potassium.
37. The cells of the cork of the older plants have deposits of
(A) lignin. (B) suberin. (C) calcium. (D) cutin.
38. Milk producing females are called
(A) milch animals. (B) milk animals. (C) draught animals. (D) sterile animals.
39. An example of egg laying mammal is
(A) kangaroo. (B) platypus. (C) rat. (D) whales.
40. The thread like structures that develop in the bread mould are
(A) flagella. (B) cilia. (C) sporangia. (D) hyphae.
MATHEMATICS
Straight Objective
41. The simplest rationalisation factor of 50 is :
(A) 5 2 (B) 2 (C) 10 (D) 50
1 2 1
42. Find the value
2 3 5 3 2 5
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 2
3 3
43. The degree of the polynomial p(x) = (x – 7) – x is :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
3 2
44. If x + 6x + 4x + k is exactly divisible by x+ 2 then k is equal to
(A) –6 (B) –7 (C) –8 (D) -10
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3 3 3
1 1 7
45. Find the value of : .
4 3 12
7 –7
(A) 0 (B)(C) (D) 3
48 48
46. ‘Two intersecting lines cannot be parallel to the same line’ is stated in the form of :
(A) an axiom (B) a definition (C) a postulate (D) a proof
47. In given figure QP || ML. Find the value of x.

Q A M
35º
10º
15º x
P B L
(A) 10º (B) 15º (C) 25º (D) 30º
48. For the given triangle PQR, which of the following is true (See figure) ?
125º P
Q R
100º
(A) PQ = QR (B) PQ > QR (C) PQ < QR (D) P = Q
49. Area of a rhombus is 90 cm2 . One of its diagonals measures 10 cm. Length of the other diagonal is :
(A) 18 cm (B) 36 cm (C) 80 cm (D) 9 cm
50. Find the area of triangle form by line x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 3 in the Cartesian system.
(A) 9 sq. unit (B) 4.5 sq.unit (C) 6 sq.units (D) 12 sq.unit
51. In a quadrilateral ABCD, B = 130º, C = 60º and angle bisectors of A and D meet at P Find APD.
A B
130º
P
60º
C
D
(A)105º (B) 95º (C) 80º (D) 90º
52. X and Y are points on AC in ABC, such that AX = XY = YC. If AB || XZ, if ar (AYZ) = k. ar (BZYX). Find
the value of k.
A
T
Y
B Z C
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (D) (C)
2 4
53. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. Quadrilateral PQTS is a cyclic quadrilateral. IfPOT =
130º, then find the measure of PST.
S
x T
130º
P Q
O
(A) 115º (B) 120º (C) 130º (D)150º

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54. The volume of a conical tent is 1232 m3 and the area of base floor is 154 m2. Calculate the length of
canvas required to cover this conical tent if its width is 2 m.
(A) 275 m (B) 250 m (C) 225 m (D)220 m
55. Find the radius of a sphere whose volume is numerically equal to its surface area.
1
(A) 3 units (B) 6 units (C) 9 units (D) units
3
56. The mean of 20 numbers is 43. If 6 is subtracted from each of the numbers, what will be the new mean?
(A) 37 (B) 50 (C) 43 (D) 40
57. If sin – cos  = 0 then the value of (sin  + cos ) is :
1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
2 4 4
58. In the given figure, ABC is a right angled triangle, right angled at C and DE AB. Find the length of AE
A
E
3 cm
2 cm
C B
12cm
36 15 12 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 13
59. The pair of linear equations 2x – 3y = 5 and – 6y + 4x – 10 = 0 has :
(A) two solutions (B) one solution (C) no solution (D) many solutions
2
60. If  and  are the zeroes of the polynomial x – 5x + k such that  –  = 1, find the value of k.
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) –2
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Straight Objective
61. Column - I Column – II
(symbols) (meaning)
(A) Broken chain (p) Eternity
(B) Winged women (q) Act of becoming free
(C) Snake biting its tail to form a ring (r) Strength lies in unity
(D) Bundle of rods (s) Personification of law
(A) A – (s); B – (p); C – (q); D – (r) (B) A – (r); B – (p); C – (s); D – (q)
(C) A – (s); B – (r); C – (p); D – (q) (D) A – (q); B – (s); C – (p); D – (r)
62. Column I Column II

(A) Waste land (p) Valuable timber
(B) Sal (q) Uncultivated land
(C) Massi (r) Commercially rich forests
(D) Reserved (s) Nomadic people of Kenya
(A) A – (q); B – (p); C – (s); D – (r) (B) A – (s); B – (r); C – (p); D – (q)
(C) A – (r); B – (q); C – (s); D – (p) (D) A – (q); B – (s); C – (r); D – (p)
63. Which of the following was not among the measures adopted by French revolutionaries to create a
collective identity ?
(A) Ideas of ‘la patrie’ and ‘le citoyen’ (B) Tricolour flag
(C) Regional dialects were encouraged (D) Hymns composed
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64. Who was declared by the French ‘Mad Bonze’ ?

(A) Phan Boi Chau (B) Huynh Phu So (C) Phan Chu Trinh (D) Bao Dai
65. Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer, who criticised the excesses of Catholicism, expressed
a deep anxiety about printing in his book
(A) Adages (B) Confessiones (C) De Doctrina Christiana (D) De civitate dei
66. With reference to Western Ghats consider the following statements.
(a) Western Ghats are lower than the Eastern Ghats.
(b) Aravali Hills lie on the western Ghats.
(c) Western Ghats is divided into three parts
Which of the statement (s) is/are correct?
(A) (a) only (B) (b) only (C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Only (c)
67. With references to the tributaries of the river Ganga. Consider the following statements :
(a) The Yamuna and the Son are right bank rivers.
(b) The Gandak and the Kosi are its major left bank tributaries.
Which of the statement (s) given above is /are correct?
(A) (a) only (B) (b) only (C) Neither (a) nor (b) (D) Both (a) and (b)
68. The condition in which people experience extreme weather conditions are known as:
(A) Altitudes (B) continentality (C) cyclone (D) Wind system
69. Inorganic and organic are two sectors of which industry?
(A) Cement (B) Chemical (C) Jute (D) Information Technology
(A) Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways (p) PWD
(B) Viillage Roads (q) Zila Parishad
(C) State Highways (r) CPWD
(D) District Highways (s) Gram Panchayat
(A) A – (s); B – (q); C – (p); D – (r) (B) A – (r); B – (q); C – (s); D – (p)
(C) A – (q); B – (s); C – (p); D – (r) (D) A – (s); B – (r); C – (p); D – (q)
71. Which of the following countries does not have the majority in voting power in the IMF?
(A) Australia (B) Germany (C) Italy (D) Japan
(A) Jammu and Kashmir(p) Geography
(B) Andhra Pradesh (q) Chandigarh
(C) Uttaranchal (r) Separate constitution
(D) Punjab and Haryana (s) Linguistic state
(A) A – (r); B – (s); C – (p); D – (q) (B) A – (r); B – (p); C – (q); D – (s)
(C) A – (q); B – (s); C – (p); D – (r) (D) A – (q); B – (p); C – (r); D – (s)
73. Which of these reasons is not the cause for occupational mobility?
(A) Large scale urbanisation (B) Economic development
(C) Growth of literacy and education (D) Attraction to city life
74. Which one of the following countries disintegrate on the basis of competition along religious and ethnic
lines?
(A) Yugoslavia (B) Sweden (C) Belgium (D) Austria
75. The socialist ideology emphasised which one of the following?
(A) Private ownership (B) Individual controlled property
(C) Socially controlled property (D) Democratic government
(A) 1871 (p) Royal commission Agriculture
(B) 1920 (q) Independence of Tanganyika
(C) 1961 (r) Zanzibar and Tanzebar united
(D) 1964 (s) Criminal Tribes Act
(A) A – (q); B – (s); C – (r); D – (p) (B) A – (r); B – (s); C – (p); D – (q)
(C) A – (s); B – (p); C – (q); D – (r) (D) A – (p); B – (r); C – (q); D – (s)
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77. Which was one of the most important aspect of Indian Cricket club during Eighteen century?
(A) Cricket club based on nationalities
(B) Cricket club based on regions
(C) Cricket club based on communal and racial lines
(D) Cricket club based on caste lines
78. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna ?
(A) Britain (B) Russia (C) Prussia (D) Switzerland
79. Criticizing many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church, in 1517 the religious reformer
Martin Luther wrote
(A) Sixty Five Theses (B) Seventy Five Theses (C) Eighty Five Theses (D) Ninety Five Theses
80. The Dibang and the Lohit are the tributaries of which river?
(A) The Indus (B) The Ganga (C) The Brahmaputra (D) The Godavari
81. Match the following
A B
1. ITCZ (A) 18ºS
2. Madagascar (B) 14ºN
3. Tahiti (C) 20ºS
4. Easterly Jet Stream (D) 5ºN-5ºS
(A) 1-B , 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (B) 1-D , 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (C) 1-C , 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (D) 1-A , 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
82. On the basis of following features identify the correct option.
I. It is an equatorial crop.
II. It requires moist and humid climate.
III. It is mainly grown in Kerala and Garo Hills.
IV. It is a raw material
(A) Cotton (B) Silk (C) Jute (D) Rubber
83. Where is the Mennambakkam airport located?
(A) Bangalore (B) Chennai (C) Hyderabad (D) Assam
84. In which of the following countries democracy was not overthrown by military coup?
(a) Pakistan (b) Zimbabwe (c) Nepal (d) Myanmar
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (c) and (d) (D) (a) and (d)
85. Among the following which party represents the Protestants in Ireland?
(A) Nationalist Party (B) Unionist Party (C) Communist Party (D) Socialist Party
86. A communal mind often leads to a quest for ________________ dominance of one’s own religious
community.
(A) Social (B) economical (C) religions (D) political
87. Bonded Labour falls under which fundamental right.
(A) Right to equaility (B) Right aganist exploitation
(C) Right to freedom (D) Cultural and educational right
88. Match the following column –
Column A Column B
(a) 1868 (i) French living in Vietnam
(b) Paul Bernard (ii) Young Annan
(c) Colon (iii) Scholars Revolt
(d) Political Party (iv) Policy maker
(A) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv) (B) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iv)
(C) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (ii) (D) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iii)
89. Penny chapbooks were sold by petty pedlars known as chapmen in
(A) England (B) France. (C) Germany. (D) Italy.
90. Which one of the following ocean currents is associated with the ‘El Nino’ phenomenon?
(A) Humboldt (B) Benguela (C) Canaries (D) Kurushio
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91. In which state is Tarapur located?

(A) Tamilnadu (B) West Bengal (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra
92. On the basis of the following features identify the fundamental right.
I. This right makes other fundamental rights effective
II. Dr. Ambedkar called this right as “ the heart and soul’ of our constitution.
III. By this right, we directly approach supreme or the High Court of a state.
(A) Right to equality (B) Right to constitutional remedies
(C) Right to freedom (D) Right against exploitation
93. Which one of the following countries region Ireland belongs to?
(A) France (B) United Kingdom
(C) United States of America (D) Russia
94. Communalism involves the use of sacred________
(A) books (B) theories (C) flags (D) symbols
95. Column - I Column - II
(A) Suffragette (p) Horseman of Russian army
(B) Cossack (q) Emperor
(C) Cheka (r) A movement for women
(D) Tsar (s) Soviet police
(A) A – (r); B – (p); C – (s); D – (q) (B) A – (s); B – (q); C – (r); D – (p)
(C) A – (p); B – (r); C – (q); D – (s) (D) A – (r); B – (s); C – (p); D – (q)
96. Which one of the following European managing agencies did not control Indian Industries.?
(A) Birth Heighers and Company
(B) Andrew Yule
(C) Indian Industrial and Commerce Congress
(D) Jardine Skinner and Company
97. What is the normal date of burst of monsoon in Mumbai?
(A) 1st June (B) 5th June (C) 10th June (D) 25th June
98. When did the Third Estate formed National Assembly?
(A) 1780 (B) 1784 (C) 1789 (D) 1774
99. Vladimir Lenin belonged to which group of Socialists in Russia?
(A) Social Democrats (B) Mensheviks (C) Bolsheviks (D) Other group
100. Match the following:
1. Palampur (a) Maharashtra
2. Mussoorie (b) Himachal Pradesh
3. Mahabaleshwar (c) Karnataka
4. Kodaikanal (d) Uttrakhand
(A) 1–(a), 2–(b), 3–(c), 4–(d) (B) 1–(b), 2–(d), 3–(a), 4–(c)
(C) 1–(d), 2–(b), 3–(a), 4–(c) (D) 1–(b), 2–(d), 3–(c), 4–(a)
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Pre-foundation Career Care Programmes (PCCP) Division

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : …………………………………………………………ROLL NO. : ………………………..…

and shall abide by them of the candidate.

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

PCCP Head Office :

Address : Plot No. A-51 [A], IPIA, Near Resonance CG Tower,

Behind City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

Contact. No. : +91-0744-2434727, 8824078330, Fax : 0744-2427146

Website : www.pccp.resonance.ac.in E-mail : pccp@resonance.ac.in

9. A solar panel is made by combining a large number of :

15. Write the IUPAC name of :

(A) 3-amino-3-methyl-5-hexanone (B) 4-amino-4-methyl-2-hexanone

18. Efflorescence is shown during

47. In given figure QP || ML. Find the value of x.

(A) 115º (B) 120º (C) 130º (D)150º

62. Column I Column II

64. Who was declared by the French ‘Mad Bonze’ ?

91. In which state is Tarapur located?

Space for Rough Work

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