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3 pairs of hooklets in Hymenolepis Diminuta

an ovum

Which is the agent Coxsackie A.

of hand, foot and
mouth disease of
humans?

Detection of antigen Legionella

in urine specimen
can be used for
which of the
following type of
pneumonia infection
a. Fusobacterium
B. Y. Pestis
C. Legionella
D. Mycobacterium
TB.
Antler hyphae found Microsporum Audouinii
in ...

What grows on Haemophilus spp.

chocolate agar *requires X and V factor

It could grow around colonies of with Staph. Aureus

forming Satellitism as Staph. Aureus (in addition
Neisseria and Pneumococcus) releases Hemin and
NAD AKA factor 10 and Factor 5

Double zone of Clostridium Perfringens

hemolysis and beta
lactamase

Which increases first Myoglobin

after an MI

Which of the Strongyloides Stercoralis

following parasite
cause autoinfection
in
immunocompromise
d patients?
Which of the Graves Disease = TSHR antibody
following causes
antibody against increase T3 and T4
TSH? decrease TSH

Which of the Hashimotos = Anti-thyroglobulin

following causes
antibody against decrease T3 and T4
Thyroglubulin and increase TSH
Thyroid cells?

What RBC inclusion Heinz Bodies

can be seen on
blood smear of a
child who
accidentally
ingested moth
balls?

Which of the Sickel cell or any chronic Hemolytic Anemia

following causes
decrease HbA1c?

Which of the Eosinophil and Basophil

following cells
releases
histamine/heparin?

Which of the Mycobacterium Gordonae

following
Mycobacteria we
can acquire from tap
water?

Which of the Magnesium (Zinc too)

following analytes is
cofactor for most of reference range: 1.7-2.4 mg/dl
300 enzymes?

Which of the Uremia (Renal failure), Lactic acidosis, Ketoacidosis,

following condition Hypernatremia, ingestion of Methanol, Ethylene
is the most common Glycol or Salycilate (SLUMPED)
cause of increase
anion gap?

Double zone of positive reverse CAMP test.

hemolysis bacteria...
how to
confirmation?

Gram negative Veillonella

anaerobes after a
Jaw surgery reduce nitrate to nitrite, does not ferment
carbohydrates.

Gram negative, beta Aeromonas

hemolytic, oxidase
positive organism
isolated from
wound. A/A on TSI

ONPG negative N meningitis, not sure?

What requires oil or Malassezia furfur (Tinea Versicolor)

olive oil
Spaghetti and meatballs appearance
Patient receiving Irradiated blood
blood from mother
requires what type relatives might probably have similar HLA which will
of blood recognized by the baby's immune system as same,
hence won't be attacked.

May cause Graft vs Host disease. Hence, Leukocyte

need to be irradiated

HTLV- confirmatory Western blot

test

Positive RPR False positive

negative FTA for
Syphilis

Given a mini panel of anti-I because it did not react with cord cells
antibody reactions.
The serum is tested
against Group 0
RBCs and cord cells.
Reacts with all adult
cells, no reaction
with cord cells. What
antibody?

Antigens Le a and Le Is absorbed from the serum onto red cells

b

A cold agglutinin Mycoplasma pneumoniae and

picture. The first
question asked what Cold reacting antibodies
disease/infection it
was associated with
it and second asked
what would cause
this blood picture

Given mother blood Since O blood type is impossible from AB mom, get
type (AB-) and baby a new heelstick from baby.
type (O+), what do
you do next?

Biggest problem Contamination with nucleotides.

with PCR?

Quantitative (real EBV

time) PCR is useful in
detecting ...

What HBV disease Anti-HBc

marker is found in
individuals with a
past infection? life
time marker?

Positive anti-HBe, Immunity to Hep B due to previous infection

anti-HBc IgG, and
Anti-HBs indicates
what stage of
hepatitis?

Following a throat Streptococcus pyogenes

infection, patient is
having kidney
problems. What
bacteria causing it?

Patient has walking Bacteria has no cell wall

pneumoniae and is
prescribed penicillin.
2 weeks later, still
sick. What
happened?

Potassium Quenching agent

permanganate in
auramine-rhodamine
stain for
Mycobacterium

Specimen of choice stool

for rotavirus?

Took a swab sample Swab material inhibited the sample.

from a wound and
incubated on three
different medias
(including anaerobic
media). Nothing
grew. What
happened?

Latex agglutination Protein A and clumping factor

for Staphylococcus
Aureus detects
what?

Different between Staphylococcus Aureus is Coagulase Positive

Staphylococcus
aureus and other
Staph. Spp?

How to differentiate Micrococcus arranged in tetrads

between Colonies are yellow and none hemolytic on SBA
Staphylococcus
aureus and most importantly Micrococcus is Furazolidone
Micrococcus resistant

Burr cells blood uremia

picture

Stomatocytes blood Liver disease

picture

Badly discolored Slide not dry

blood picture with
very spiky cells. Looks like dark Burr cells
What caused this?

Iatrogenic anemia is to excessive blood draws.

due to what?

What cell type is lymphs

increased in
Infectious B cells infected
mononucleosis? T cells reactive (pictured)
Lupus anticoagulant Increased risk of thrombosis
causes what?

Sample taken from Heparin contamination from the catheter

indwelling catheter.
Patient isn't on any
anticoagulants yet
PTT and TT are way
elevated.

Anti-Thrombin III It is a Heparin Co-factor

deficiency is associated with thrombosis

In which case is Pre-eclampsia (eclampsia)

Magesium
monitored?

Patient taking Test phenobarbital level.

primidone showing
toxicity, but blood
levels normal. What
do you do next? -

Sperm count can be Liquefaction is complete (30-60 minutes)

done on semen
sample when

anti-sperm causes agglutination in the form of attached sperms.

antibodies Head to head, tail to tail or head to tail.

Tumor marker seen CA 19-9

in pancreatic cancer

Fasting glucose 120. Impaired fasting glucose.

What's the
diagnosis? 0-50 mg/dl = hypoglycemia
50-100 mg/dl = normal
100-125 mg/dl = impaired
>126 mg/dl = diabetes

What increase in Metanephrines in urine (24 hours collection)

Pheochromocytoma
?

sensitivity is TP/TP +FN X 100

specificity is TN/TN+TP X 100

Type 1 anaphylactic shock . Examples: bee sting, hay fever,

hypersensitivity asthma, food allergies.
reaction

Type 2 Agglutination, eg transfusion reaction, HDFN.

hypersensitivity Hashimotos
reaction

Type 3 Immune complex like serum sickness, Systemic

hypersensitivity Lupus Erythematosus, Rheumatoid Arthritis
reaction

Type 4 T-cell dependent like contact dermatitis, TB,

hypersensitivity Leprosy, GVHD
reaction

Increased Alkaline Obstruction Jaundice (post hepatic)

Phosphatase in

Chronic hepatitis anti-smooth muscle antibody (not sure)

Waxy cast found in End stage of degeneration (renal failure)

urine indicates ?
HgbA1c decrease in Chronic Hemolysis (hemolytic anemia)

Lipoprotein that LDL

transport the
majority of
cholesterol into cells

Micrococcus Resistance to Furazolidone

Procainamide NAPA
metabolite that need
to be measured
along with
Procainamideis

Main metabolite of Benzoylecgonine

cocaine

Type 1 IgE
hypersensitivity
stimulated by

Blood product that Needle stick during a procedure

has highest
capability of
transmitting hepatitis

Heinz bodies Heinz bodies

Child swallowed Heinz Bodies

naphthalene ball,
what is expected to
be seen on
peripheral blood
smear ?

Stomatocytes liver disease

Urine Bilirubin liver disease

crystals
brownish in color

Urine Tyrosine liver disease

crystals

Urine Leucine Liver disease

crystals

Eosinphils in urine Interstitial nephritis

Chopped meat agar Anaerobes

(iron and glycerol)

Anaerobes causing Veillonella (gram - cocci) and Peptostreptococcus

jaw abscess (gram + cocci) -

they are normal flora of the oral cavity

t(15;17) for Acute Promyelocytic leukemia -APL, or M3

hypergranular Promyelocytes in bone marrow

apirate

Retics stain with .... New methylene blue

wrights (polychomactophilic)

Howell jolly bodies Wrights and new methylene blue

stain with

Papperheimer Wrights, new methylene blue, and

bodies stain with
confirm with Prussain blue

Heinz bodies stain new methylene blue

with supravital stain
How do yo Y. Enterocolitica: ODC positive
differentiate
1. Yersinia MR + urease +; Lactose negative, H2S negative, VP
enterocolitica vs negative, citrate negative, PD negative
2. Yersinia pestis?
Y. Pestis: ODC negative

Differentiate echinocyte: equal

between Echinocyte acanthocyte: crazy looking
and Acanthocyte

the action of to measure unconjugated bilirubin

Caffeine for Diazo
reaction.

Enzyme that uses p- Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

Nitrophenylphospha
te (pnp) as substrate
@ pH of 9.6

Enzyme that uses p- Paget disease (bone destruction disease)

Nitrophenylphospha
te (pnp) as substrate
@ pH of 9.6 is
highest at what
disease

Estrogen increase in Estriol

pregnant women
......

Increased right Luetinizing hormone-LH

before ovulation
 estraDIol
"di-ing from cramps"

Nucleolar pattern scleroderma

ANA is seen in ...

Butterly rash is seen Systemic Lupus Erythematosus-SLE

in ...

Measurement of Phosphatidyl glycerol

FLM- Fetal Lung
Maturity

Oral Contraceptives Serum Fe (not sure?)

cause an Increase in

Hashimoto's lab and T4 and T3 decreased , TSH increased

antibodies
Most common cause of Primary hypothyroidism
TPOAb, TMAb, TgAb present

TMAbs = Thyroid Anti-Microsomal Antibody

TPOAbs= Anti-Thyroid PeroOxidase Antibody
TgAbs= Anti-Thyroglobulin Antibody

Most severe cause ABO (I don't think so)

of HDN

How to calculate Reference Range is 13-130

LAP score and its
importance in Increase in Leukemoid reaction
hematology? decreased in CML

The number of 1+ cells x 1

 The number of 2+ cells x 2
The number of 3+ cells x 3
The number of 4+ cells x 4
ADD TOGETHER

Trepanomal highest FTA-ABS

Sensitivity (may be
specificity) Fluorecent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption Test

preferred testing for urine antigen testing

legionella

What is the immunity PCR DNA urine (not sure)

test for CMV? IgG and IgM titer (not sure)

Sezary syndrome is T cell lymphoma

A variant of Mycosis Fungoides

Patient has walking no cell wall

pneumonia but
treatment shows
penicillin resistance
because .....

Normocytic, pure red cell aplasia

normochromic,
normal WBC, normal
platelet, but retics is
0.1%

Blood smear picture Heinz body staining

that looks like
Howell bodies, the
retic is 18%, the
technologist should
stain with?

Adrenal cushing Decreased ACTH, ↑ cortisol increased

syndrome causes:

Apolipoprotein A - HDL
found in .....

The stain being too Decrease pH buffer

blue and what do
you do?

How is LDL Heparin-manganese

extracted from HDL?

What's the purpose Take the albumin off (probably wrong, correct
of the caffeine in response should be solubilize and measure
bilirubin? unconjugated bilirubin)

Difference between All Yersinia Species are motile at 25C but not at 37C
yersinias? except,

Yersinia Pestis is not motile at both temperature

Increased in Pheochromocytoma
cathecolamines in
what disease?

Elevated level of Lead poisoning

aminolevulinic acid
in urine is due to
presence of .......

Purpose of AHG : Detect immunoglobulins present on surface of RBC

and serum

Blastoconidia are Pseudohyphae

the beginning of ...
Liver cancer Marker Alpha-Fetoprotein

may be significant in ovarian or testicular cancer as

well.

Breast cancer CA 15-3

Marker

Pancreatic cancer CA 19-9

Marker

Ovarian cancer CA 125

Marker

Colorectal cancer CEA

B-hCG marker for BETA SUBUNIT of Human chorionic gonadotropin

malignancy (unique to hCG) increase in trophoblastic tumors

If there is a Rouleaux Saline replacement

formation on the
blood what will you
do?

How to determine add normal saline

true from false
agglutination

RIST- Measures total IgE

Radioimmunosorben
t test- test detects
what?

Why is albumin the The molecular size is smallest

first protein to be
detected in tests for
renal failure?

Cortisol excess will Hyperglycemia - Elevated glucose levels in blood

result in _____

Organism that gives Eikenella

off a "bleach-like"
odor in culture?

Organism that gives Clostridium Dificile

off a "Horse-stable"
odor in culture?

This spiral-form Leptospira

organism is seen in
urine and cultured
on Fletcher's media

How many bands for CDC requires at least 5 out of 10 bands to be

Lyme disease testing positive
?

Presence of VDRL
rheumatoid factor in
blood may result in
false positives for
what test?

Disease associated Pituitary tumor

with the following
results? Elevated
TSH; Elevated T3;
Elevated free T4

If excess PTH is Calcium

released, what
would you find in
elevated amounts in
serum?

Mucoid, pink Klebsiella oxytoca

colonies on plate;
produces gas;
indole (+). On TSI
tube you see yellow
on the slant and
yellow in the deep.
What organism is
this?

PAD (+); indole (+); Proteus vulgaris

Organism stains
gram negative. What
is it?

You see a curved Test for urease

gram negative
bacilli. It was
cultured from the GI
tract of a person
with ulcers. What
test would you do
next to confirm its
identity?

Enzyme controls run Controls were left at room temperature for several
on a machine give days
results around -3
standard deviations.
Samples run on the
same machine give
results of less than 1
standard deviation.
What could be the
problem?

HIV-1 & HIV-2 do EHIV-2 western blot

combination ELISA
test is positive in a
patient with
symptoms of
immune deficiency.
Western blot was
inconclusive for HIV-
1. What do you do
next?
What are the steps Denaturation, Annealing, Transcription
of PCR?

RAST test detects IgE to particular Antigens

what?

After collecting a report these results

blood sample in an
EDTA tube for CBC,
you find that the
Hematocrit is very
high (67%). What
should you do next?

Blood was collected Nov 1; 10 years from now

on Nov 1. Blood was
then frozen in
glycerol on Nov 5.
What should the
expiration date
read?

When you conduct a Excited light

procedure using
fluorescence, it's
important to protect
yourself from the:

fluorescence The amount of analyte in the sample is inversely

polarized proportional to the amount of fluorescence
immunoassay polarization. That is, the greater the concentration of
(competitive analyte, the less the amount of polarized light
inhibition) detected

A person was VDRL, RPR

successfully treated
for syphilis 12 years
ago. However, he
has just come in
again, worried about
having been re-
infected. What
would you look for
in his blood?

A patient Rule out c antigen but cannot confirm the presence

demonstrates a or absence of K antigen on the patients red cells
positive antibody
screen. You suspect
either Jka, K or c
antibodies. You
know from a
previous history that
this patient has Jka
antigen on their red
cells. You then react
the patients serum
with cells positive
for certain antigens
and see the
following:

Patient serum vs:

reagent K cells
reagent c cells
Reaction strength: 0
4+

What can you

conclude about the
antigenic makeup of
this patients red
cells?
Urine protein Bence jones proteins in urine (proteins other than
chemistry dipstick Albumin)
(Reagent strip)
detected no
proteins but
sulfosalicylic acid
(SSA) test did detect
proteins. Why?

Syndrome of Dilutional Hyponatremia- deficient sodium

inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone
secretion (SIADH)
would result in what
in blood?

Fiber strands in urine Hyaline cast

resemble what
under the
microscope?

HBa1c levels cannot sickle cell

always be used to
monitor glucose
levels in conditions
such as:

Which of the Cardiac troponins

following regulates
myocyte
contraction?
Increased total liver diease, hemolysis, HDFN
bilirubin is in what
situations In infants with >20mg/dL is kernicterus

Increased liver disease and obstructive jaundice

conjugated (direct)
bilirubin is in what
situations

Increased prehepatic, posthepatic, and some types of hepatic

unconjugated jaundice
bilirubin is in which
situations

ACTH produced by Pituitary Gland

FSH is _____ sperm and ovum

production

ACTH is regulated corticotropin-releasing hormone from

by hypothalamus

LH regulates maturation of follicles, ovulation, production of

estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone

Prolactin regulates lactation

Pituitary gland ACTH

(activated by FSH
Hypothalamus) growth hormone (GH)
produces LH
prolactin
TSH
ADH
Oxytocin

Amylase breaks Starch

down

Lipase breaks down fats

LD is increased in AMI (LD2 > LD1-not specific), Hemolysis (LD 1 > LD 2)

which situation
Which of the Cs137
following is used as
a source for
irradiation of blood
products:

Which of the Prostate cancer

following conditions
would NOT be
associated with an
increased level of
alpha-fetoprotein?

The prozone effect ( False negatives

when performing a
screening titer) is
most likely to result
in:

The radioactive Cr51

method used to
measure red cell
survival uses which
of the following
isotopes:

Which of the Aspirin

following is not a
likely cause of an
abnormal thrombin
time (TT):

When evaluating a increased urine copper, decreased serum copper

patient for a
suspected Wilson's
Disease diagnosis,
low values of plasma
ceruloplasmin would
be expected along
A hemoglobin F Delta-beta thalassemia major
with:
concentration of
100% may be seen in
which beta
thalassemia?

Pappenheimer splenectomies
bodies are usually
seen in patients who
have:

Order of draw Blue

Red
Green
Purple
Gray (other)

*Big Red Grosses People Out

The half life of IgM are approximately 5-6 days.

and IgA

The half life of IgD 2.8 days (1-3)

Half life of IgE 2-3 days

Half life of IgG 23 days

At an alkaline pH, Hb D
which hemoglobin
cannot be separated (Sad Dog Gets Love)
from hemoglobin S
during hemoglobin
electrophoresis?

Which of the B3
following group B
antigens is generally
associated with a
mixed field reaction:
Which of the MCHC
following
parameters may be Lipemia and high WBCs count interfere with the light
affected by the used for measureing MCHC
lipemia?

Which of the Glucagon and epinepherine

following hormones
increases plasma
glucose
concentration by
converting glycogen
to glucose?

Which of the Mycobacterium Xenopi

following species of
Mycobacterium
might be associated
with contamination
of the hot water
system in large
institutions such as
hospitals?

Acute phase Glycoproteins

proteins generally
fall into which
category?

Rhinocladiella Growth on the side and around the tip

description

Electrical fire is class C

What is the correct Draw and discard a waste light-blue top tube
procedure when before the tube that will be used for coagulation
using a winged studies.
collection device
(butterfly) to draw a
light-blue top tube
intended for a
coagulation test if
this is the first tube
that will be
collected in the
draw?

Which of the A 70-year-old type 2 diabetic patient

following patients is
most at risk for
hyperosmolar
nonketotic coma?

Beta hemolytic Bacillus spp.

spore forming agent "box car"
is GPB

Non-beta hemolytic, Bacillus Anthracis

Non Motile, Medusa-Head Colonies
Catalase positive, Black escher ulcers
spore forming agent GPB
is .....

Enterobacteriaceae Enterobacter
that is MR negative Kleb
Serratia

How to differentiate E. coli is citrate negative (IMViC++--)

between citrobacter
and E. coli Citrobacter is citrate positive (?+?+)

How to differentiate Kleb is non motile

kleb and
enterobacter enterobacter is motile

*both are LF negative methyl red

How to differentiate Lysine.

different species of
enterobacter E. cloacae is negative
E. aerogines and E. seikazaki is positive

How to differentiate Kleb oxytoca is indole positive

kleb species
Kleb pneumo is indole negative

Lactose fermenting E.coli

enterobacteriaceae Klebsiella
Citrobacter
Enterobacter

Non lactose shigella

fermenting salmonella
enterobacteriacea yersinia
morganella
serratia
edwardsiella
proteus
providencia

Of the NLF Shigella

enterobacteriaceae *DO NOTHING BUG
which one is non
motile

How to differentiate Mannitol.

shigella species
Shigella dysenteriae is the only one that is negative

How to differentiate S. sonnei is the only one that is ONPG positive (+)
the mannitol positive
shigellas

PAD positive proteus

providencia
morganella

How to differentiate Proteus is the only one that is H2S positive

the PAD positive
species

How to differentiate P. Vulgaris is indole positive - citrate negative

proteus species P. Mirabilis is indole negative - citrate positive

How to differentiate Providencia is citrate positive

between Morganella is citrate negative
providencia and
morganella +morgan can't CIT with us because she doesn't have
H2S

Of the PAD negative Yersinia

organisms, which
one does not
produce H2S

How to differentiate salmonella is indole negative

Salmonella from edwardsiella is indole positive
edwardsiella

How to differentiate Y. enterocolitica is ODC +

yersinia species Y. pestis and pseudoTB are ODC negative

How to differentiate Y. pestis is nonmotile at 25C

Y. pestis and Y. Y. pseudoTB is motile at 25C
pseudoTB

Selective and CIN Medium = Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin

differential medium Medium
for Y. entercolitica
Colonies will ferment mannitol and absorb the dye
=> clear colonies with pink center
Staphylococus on Staphylococci can tolerate the high salt
Mannitol Salt agar concentration (7.5%) of
(MSA) Mannitol salt agar (MSA)

Produces Yellow Colonies

Different between Staph. Aureus is coagulase positive

s.aureus and other Other Staph. Species Coagulase Negative
staph spp?

Micrococcus as a Micrococcus is
normal flora must be Furazolidone Resistant
differentiated from Bacitracin Sensitive
Staphylococcus by
........ non hemolytic on SBA

Gram Positive Cocci Streptococcus Bovis/Gallolyticus

in chains Group D Streptococcus
Catalase Negative
Bile-Esculin Positive
(BEM positive)
No Growth on 6.5%
NaCl
Associated with
Colorectal Cancer

Optochin Sensitive Streptococcus Pneumonia

bacteria
 Polysaccharide capsule

Lancet-Shaped diplococci

Grame Positive Enterocuccus

Cocci
Catalase: (-) Vanocmycin-resistant enterococci is E. Faecium
Bile Esculin: positive
(+)
6.5% NaCl: positive
(+)
PYR: Positive (+)

Gram Positive cocci Leuconostoc

BILE ESCULIN
positive
6.5 NACL (+)
PYR negative (-)
LAP negative (-)

Butchers cut (or Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae

fishermen,
veterinarians) It is important to differentiate it from Listeria

Catalase Negative
(-)
Esculin Negaive (-)
H2S Positive on TSI
Test tube brush
growth in Gelatin

Gram Positive (+) Nocardia asteroides

BRANCHING
(Filamentous) Bacilli
PARTIALLY ACID
FAST

Musty odor of a Nocardia spp

colony
Pasteurella Multocida

Gram Postive Bacilli Bacillus Anthracis

Catalase Positive (+)
Spore forming
Non-Motile
Non=Hemolytic

Gram Postive Bacilli Bacillus Cereus

Motile
Beta-Hemolytic Differentiate between B. Cereus and B. Anthracis

What Antibiotics 1. Vancomycin

(contents) in THYER- 2. Nystatin
MARTIN Selective 3. Colistin
Media 4. Isovitalex
5. Hemoglobin

Lactose Fermenter Enterobacter Cloacae

Bacilli (Pink on MAC)
LOA: Negative,
Positive, Positive (-
++)

Lysine negative (-)

Ortherine positive
(+)
Argenine positive (+)

Biochemical K/A H2S on TSI

Reaction for MOTILE
Salmonella CITRATE POSITIVE

Indole, Urease, Lactose Negative

Green Colonies with Black centers on Hektoen agar

Edwardsiella Edwardsiella is
resemble Salmonella Indole positive (+)
biochemically, how Citrate Negative (-)
can you differentiate
between them? Salmonella
Indole Negative
Citrate positive

SALMONELLA Heat
ISOLATED BUT
ANTISERA IS Vi-Antigen is the heat labile capsular antigen
NEGATIVE? what
might be the reason

How you Providencia Citrate Positive (+)

differentiate Morganella Citrave Negative (-)
between
Providencia and
Morganella?

Which of the E. Coli

following doesn't
belong to the HACEK group are fastidious and an important cause
HACEK group of endocarditis

Haemophilus Haemophilus growth requires Hemin AKA factor X

Satellitism and NAD AKA Factor V.

it can grow around colonies of S. Aureus producing

satellitism as S. Aureus releases NAD.

How to differentiate Growth @ 42°C

Pseudomonas
aeruginosa from P. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is able to grow at 42°C
putida?

Stenotrophomonas Ferment Glucose, Grows on Mac

malthophilia Oxidase negative (-)
Catalase Posive (+)

Specimen recovery Nasopharyngeal swab

for whooping
cough? Swabs of the nasopharynx are inoculated on the
selective agar Regan-Lowe show as mercury drops.
 Cephalexin is added to the culture medium to inhibit
the growth of contaminating indigenous flora

Bacteria acquired by 1. Pasteurella Multocida is the most common

cat/dog bite is ..... 2. Actinobacillus

Rapid detection test Antigen detection test (Urine Antigen Assay)

for legionella in
urine specimen?

BCYE = buffered Legionella

charcoal yeast
extract agar used for as it requires L-cystein for growth
...

Nugent scoring for 0-3 is considered negative for BV

Bacterial Vaginosis 4-6 is considered intermediate
7+ is considered indicative of BV

Cat-Scratch disease Bartonella henselae

Organism isolated Aeromonas hydrophila
from wound.
is typically found in fresh water and has been
TSI: A/A implicated in human infections. Growth on
Catalase: positive (+) MacConkey agar and a positive oxidase reaction
Oxidate: positive (+) are characterisic of this organism. A positive oxidase
reaction differentiates this organism from all of the
Enterobacteriaceae, except the recently added
Plesiomonas shigelloides. On sheep blood agar,
many strains of Aeromonas produce beta-
hemolysis. TSI => A/A

GRAM STAIN Campylobacter jejuni

(PICTURE ) FOR
STOOL ISOLATE
GROW IN 42
MICROAEROPHILIC
?

DECONTAMINATIO NaOH with N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)

N OF SPUTUM FOR
Acid-Fast Bacillus NALC is a mucolytic
(AFB) CULTURE? NaHO is antibacterial

a positive culture of Inadequate scanning of slide (not sure)

sputum was stained.
carbol fusshin was
added, washed, de
colorized and
malachite blue was
used as counter
stain. two entire field
was scanned and no
acid fast bacilli were
found. the most
probably reason is
.....?

Bio-safety level for Bio safety Level III

TB

PICTURE OF AN AFB M. TUBERCULOSIS

SMEAR
GROWS WELL ON
AN EGGS BASED
MEDIUM AFTER 3
WEEKS

The function of to inhibit growth of normal flora

malachite green in
Lowenstein-Jensen
MEDIA ?

Potassium Quenching agent

permanganate in
Auramine-
Rhodamine
fluorescent staining
(acid fast bacilli)
function as ....

TEST FOR Niacin accumulation/production

MYCOBACTERIUM
Tuberculosis
Tap water Mycobacterium gordonae has been recovered from
mycobacterium water stills, faucets, and bodies of water in nature,
which is why it has been called the "tap water
scotochromogen."

Tuberculin test is ....... Initiated by T-cells

What favors growth Vitamin K and Hemin

of Gram Negative (-)
Bacilli in Anaerobic
media?

Phenylethyl alcohol Gram positive Bacteria

Agar (PEA) and
Columbia -colistin-
naladixic agar (CNA)
used to culture .....

Man tested positive Rapid plasma reagin(RPR)

for syphilis 2 years
ago but may have
again, how would
you test him?

Media for Leptospira Fletcher Media

TCBS culture, yellow Vibrio Cholera

colonies

Cystic Fibrosis are Pseudomonas

associated with what Bulkholderia
infection? Staphylocuccus (not sure)

1. Identify image ? 1. Cold Agglutinin Disease

2. Disease 2. Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

associated?
3. Anti-i & Anti-I
3. related to which
antibody

Paroxysmal Cold P Antigen

Hemoglobinuria
associated with IgG biphasic Donath-Landsteiner antibody
which antigen ?

In acute hemolytic Haptoglobin is depleted

anemia, when
hemoglobinuria
occurs?

Result of decreased
haptoglobin in
hemolytic anemia

What is the normal to increased ferritin

laboratory value in low serum iron
Anemia of Chronic low TIBC
Diseases?
reference ranges
Serum Iron = 65-175 in males, 50-170 females
 Ferritin = 20-250 in males, 10-120 in females
TIBC = 250-425 ug/dl

What is an early test Ferritin decreases early in iron-deficiency

for detecting Iron disorders, making it a sensitive, early indicator of
Deficiency anemia ? disease.

reference range: 20-250 ng/ml

Effect of oral increase iron (storage)

contraceptive on increase TIBC (not sure)
iron

Bart Hgb found in .... Alpha Thalassemia

no Alpha Chain
YYYY= Bart (not compatible with life)
BBBB= Hemoglobin H. (3 alpha chain deleted)

CBC results: Lyse resistant Hgb C

Instrument A is
repeated with the
use of instrument B.
discrepancy in the
values. The
discrepancy is due
to?

1) Lyse resistant
target cells
2) Lyse sensitive
target cells
3) Fragility of Hgb C
3) Lyse resistant
Hgb C
Characteristic Target cells
feature of
hemoglobin C
disease?

Acute FAB M4
Myelomonocytic
leukemia (AMMoL)

Acute monocytic FAB M5

Leukemia
Nonspecific Esterase positive (+)
CD 14 , CD 64 positive (+)

Di Guglielmo's Acute Erythroleukemia, FAB M6

Syndrome
PAS positive (+) for malignant normoblast
Sudan Black B Positive (+) myeloblast

Markers
CD45 and CD71 for normoblast
CD13, CD 15 and CD 33 to myeloblast

Acute FAB M7
megakaryocytic
Leukemia CD 41, CD 42 and CD 61
Picture of target Erythrocytes containing Hemoglobin C do not lyse
cells with normally (lyse resistant)
hemoglobin C
crystals, The white
count was high on
instrument 1, so a
second instrument
was used with a
stronger lysing
agent, and the white
count was
corrected, reason?

What is the result of Decreased Microhematocrite

underfilled EDTA?
due to the shrinkage of RBC-crenated cells

Identify the image Hairy cell leukemia

what CD markers?
CD 19, CD 20

Identify image, Auer Auer rod in AML

Rod found in ?
Auer Rod stain with Romanowsky stain
...

What you see in Pancytopenia

aplastic anemia

Disease associated Acute Myelogenous Leukemia-FAB M2

with t(8:21)

Many reticulocytes Heinz stain

present. what MLS
do next?

Rouleaux formation Multiple Myeloma

image, what
disease?

Identify image with Rouleaux due to high amount of protein, mainly

Rouleaux formation fibrinogen.
and state the reason
reason

Calculation of Corrected WBC =

corrected WBC
count 100 X uncorrected/100+ NRBCs
t-15:17 found in Acute Promyelocytic
Leukemia. (APL), FAB-M3

t-9:22, philadilphia Chronic myelogenous leukemia

chromosome

CD3+ in what cell Lymphocyte

line?

Other name for CD4 Inducer

is ......

CD 13 and CD 33 myeloid cells lineage

CD 34 Stem cell marker (lymphoid & Myeloid)

CD8 Suppressor/cytotoxic T cells

Blood collected in Report the result

citrate tube ,
decreased ratio of Hematocrite is age and sex dependent
plasma to cells 68%
was the hematocrit,
what to do next

RBC: 3.6 Lipemic Specimen

HGB: 45
HCT: 33%, Lipemia cause false elevation of Hemoglobin
manual hct 33.5% in
manual

what is the reason

for the discrepancy?

0.1% retics normal Pure red cell aplasia

RBC and PLT

A 3 year old child Pure red cell aplasia

has sever anemia
with a very low RBC
of 1.7 10^6 count, but
his WBC and Platelet
counts are normal.
What is the most
likely diagnosis?

Stomatocyte Image, Liver disease

indicative of what
disease?

Elliptocytes image, megaloblastic anemia

indicative of what thalassemia major
disease? hereditary elliptocytosis

Helmet cells, microangiopathic hemolytic anemias

indicative of what
disease?

Dacryocytes, megaloblastic anemias

indicative of what thalassemia
disease(s)? myelofibrosis
myelophthisic anemia

Spherocytes, MCHC > 37%

indicative of what
disease(s)? Hereditary spherocytosis
 G6PD deficiency
immune hemolytic anemias

Echinocytes, burr Uremia

cells: seen in what
disease ?

Echinocytes, Faulty drying

crenated: seen in
what condition?

codocytes, target Hemoglobin C/SC (normocytic/normochromic

cells: seen in what anemia), Hemoglobin S (sickle cells seen)
condition Thalassemias (microcytic/hypochromic anemia)

False DECREASE delay 8 hrs in set up (old blood)

ESR

False increase ESR 1) tube tilted,

2) vibration of tube during testing,
3) testing > 1hour,
4) improper blood dilution, improper mixing of
blood and room temp >25C

Principle of Fetal cell resist Acid elusion

Kleihauer-Betke
method

Calculation of (Fetal Maternal Hemorrage % x 5)/3

Kleihauer-Betke
method round up or down, then add one

Citrate agar 6.2

electrophoresis

Low erythropoietin Polycythemia vera

is found in ....

JAK2 oncogene is Polycythemia vera

implicated in .....

Sezary syndrome T/NK cell neoplasm/lymphoma (look like brain

groves)

CD2, CD3 & CD4

What disease is Tuberculosis

presented with
Monocytosis?

Pheochromocytoma Metanephrines
Monitoring

CA+ elevated, PO4 Multiple Myeloma due to bone

elevated, reason ... destruction/involvement

Value of HCG to be 25 mIU/ml

positive?
Creatinine Kinase Acute Myocardial Infarction
:Normal,
Troponin I:
Increased

diagnosis?

What cardiac marker Troponin

regulates myocyte
contraction?

Which set of 1. myoglobin first

analytes is increased 2. Troponin second and stay longer
in Myocardial 2. Creatine Kinase third
Infarction?

Electrophoresis Active Cirrhosis

pattern: LOW
ALBUMIN, Beta-
Gamma Bridging

What increase anion uremia (important),

gap? lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis,
hypernatremia,
and ingestion of methanol, ethylene glycol, or
salicylate

Cofactor of many Magnesium

(300) enzymes?
Zinc also, but Magnesium in your first choice for the
test.

Magnesium must be Pre-eclampsia

monitored in
A) Pre-vomiting
B) Pre-eclampsia
c) Diarrhea

Syndrome of Hyponatremia due to dilution

inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L
(SIADH) , what
condition is seen
and why?

Low Sodium is seen Hyperglycemia (dilutional hypernatremia)

in ..... .
sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L

Low sodium normal Measure/Perform indirect Ion Selective Electrode

other electrolytes, (ISE)
what MLS do next ?
sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L

Patient is in a coma, Amonia (neurotoxic)

what test to
perform?

The presence of lead poisoning

aminolevulinic acid
is indicative of .....

Zinc protoporphyrin Not Specific

is never tested in
children on lead (also used for iron deficiency anemia in children)
poisoning, why?

Caffeine-sodium used to measure unconjugated bilirubin

benzoate (or
methanol) for diazo it (they) binds to unconjugated bilirubin to solubilize
reaction measures it before proceeding with the diazo reaction
what?

Liver Enzyme a. ALT: Most specific for hepatocyte injury

markers b. AST: Less specific than ALT; significant presence in
other tissues
c. LD: Least specific; significant presence in other
tissues
5-HIAA (5- Carcinoid Tumors
hydroxyindole
acetic acid) found in 5-HIAA is a metabolites of serotonin
urine indicates?

Oligoclonal bands Multiple Sclerosis

(picture) are found in
.......

In Protein Gamma and Beta

electrophoresis,
what proteins are
closest to the
Cathode?

HbA1c measure previous 2- to 3-month period

glucose level in the
past ....... RBC life span

HgbA1C - what can A decreased life span on RBCs (in the case of sickle
be the trouble with cell)
the test?

Transferrin TIBC = UIBC + Serum Fe = 310

Saturation Saturation = (Serum Fe/TIBC ) x 100
computation Saturation = (125/310) x 100 = 40%

UIBC = 185
Serum Fe = 125

Postprandial Lipoproteins
turbidity of serum is
due to the presence
of .....
Hypercalcemia, Metastatic Carcinoma (Malignancy involving bones)
Normal PTH

FBS: 120 Impaired glucose

OGTT: 140

Patient suspected No Further testing. 2 diagnostic criteria are

for Diabetes Mellitus indicative of DM.

Fasting Blood
Glucose: 155 mg/dL
2nd Hour OGTT/PG:

Patient suspected
for Diabetes Mellitus
Fasting Blood
Glucose: 155 mg/dL
2nd Hour OGTT/PG:
225 mg/dL
What should the MT
do to confirm
diagnosis

prolonged apnea Decreased Pseudocholinesterase

after succinylcholine
administration
during surgery is
observed in what
enzyme deficiency?

Thyroid Hashimoto thyroiditis

antimicrosomal
antibodies found in
...

Creatinine clearance creatinine reference range is

formula Male: 0.9-1.2 mg/dl
female: 0.6-1.1 mg/dl
The meaning of it is used to access the Glomerular Filtration Rate
Creatinine (GFR) and one of the renal function test.
Clearance ... ...
normal Creatinine clearance is 120 ml/min for adult
and it decrease with age

In addition to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

prostate cancer, PSA
increase in what
disease ?

What is used to phosphatidylglycerol

evaluate fetal lung
maturity? and
lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio which should be
2:1

Cushing Syndrome hyperglycemia

gives ..

Adrenal Cushing's Cortisol increased

syndrome has the ACTH decreased
following lab values
...

Cushing's disease, Cortisol increased

how does ACTH and ACTH increased
Cortisol levels
change?

Carrier of VLDL
endogenous
triglycerides?

Carrier of LDL
cholesterol into cells
?
Measurement of 1) Acidification (Ethanolic extraction)
Serum Iron content 2) Reduction
method? 3) color reagent

Patient results are Acute pancreatitis

given, all are normal
including amylase Lipase stays elevated for 8-14 days while Amylase
except LIPASE. What return to normal within 3-4 days
is the possible
disease?

Enzyme elevated in Amylase

MUMPS

Enzyme that uses p- Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

Nitrophenylphospha
te (PNP) as substrate
@ pH of 9.6

What is measured in NAD

the urease method
determination of
BUN?

Cocain Metabolite is benzoylecgonine

......

Drug toxicity AST and ALT (liver toxicity)

screening of a 7 yr
old girl shows
presence of
ACETAMINOPHEN
level. What test
should be requested
next?

Phenytoin trough and peak levels

(diphenylhydantoin)
monitoring trough level prior to the next dose
Peak level 4-5 hours from the last dose
Primidone Measure Phenobarbital concentration
monitoring,
suspected to have
primidone overdose,
but the serum
concentration is
within normal range,
what should MLS do
next?

A patient with N-acetylprocainamide (NAPA)

procainamide
should be tested in
parallel with what
drug?

In Biliary Urine bilirubin is positive

obstruction, how urobilinogen is decreased or negative
does the urin
bilirubin and
urobilinogen
change?

Antibiotic Potassium
valinomycin is used
in ISE to measure
what analyte?

Carbon dioxide ion CO2 pressure and it actually measuring the pH

selective electrode
measure?

What do you use for 2 buffers with known pH and constant temperature
Calibration of blood
gas analyzer?

In Chloride shift: Bicarbonate (HCO3)

exchange chloride
with what
electrolyte ....
In hemolytic anemia, 1) increased UNCONJUGATED bili,
what are the 2. Normal Bilirubin
changes in bilirubin, 3. Increased urobilinogen
urobilinogen?

in Crigler-Najjar Urine Bilirubin is negative (normal)

disease: which is Urine Bilinogen is positive (normal)
manifised by
uncongugated
bilirubinemia, other
values are ...

Excessive 1) increased UNCONJUGATED bilirubin,

erythrocyte 2. Normal Bilirubin
destruction effect 3. Increased/Normal urobilinogen
on bilirubin .....

Urobilinogen color colorless

Instrument Linearity: T test/Paired T test

Comparison of 2
means

Interference in light Sensitivity

scanner would affect
in nephelometry?

Fluorometry Frequently UV light is used for excitation and is

Principle passed through a primary filter for proper
wavelength selection for the analyte being
measured. The excitation light is absorbed by the
atoms of the analyte in solution, which causes the
electrons to move to higher energy
orbitals.
Upon return to ground state, light is emitted from
the fluorescing analyte and that light passes through
a secondary filter. The
secondary filter and the detector are placed at a
right angle to the light source to prevent incident
light from being measured by the detector
Fluorometer ... Emits longer wavelength

At what stage the Release of ADP from dense granules

second phase and
irreversible platelet
aggregation occur?

PT normal (patient Factor XII assay

for gall bladder
surgery), PTT
prolonged, TT
normal. what MLS
should do next?

Protein C value after Decreased

Coumadin therapy?
Protein C is Vit. K dependent; Coumadin is a known
Vit. K antagonist

A Patient diagnosed D-dimer

with acute
myocardial
infarction is treated
with streptokinase.
What test is
abnormal
immediately after
treatment?

Control was ran, PT Replace thromboplastin reagent

is normal but APTT is
prolonged. What
should the
technologist do?

PT, PTT,TT prolonged DIC

Decreased
Fibrinogen
A blood sample was Heparin contamination from catheter
taken from an
indwelling catheter
of patient that hasn't
been on any
anticoagulant
therapies. APTT and
TT are prolonged.
The results are due
to?

On an automated CaCl2 might have been added to aPTT reagent

coagulation accidentally, change reagents and repeat
analyzer, PT controls
are in range but PTT
control are out of
range. New controls
produce same
results, what do you
do?

Presense of lupus Thrombosis

anticoagulant leads
to ....

Precipitation Soluble antigen and soluble antibody react to

reaction form an insoluble product (precipitate)

HIV marker of HIV RNA

disease activity

An antibody reacts Passive Agglutination

with particle coated
with a known
antigen. -

An antibody reacts Reverse passive agglutination:

with particle coated
with a known
antibody - CSF
Analysis of Multiple Sclerosis
Oligoclonal bands is
used to screen for
what disease?

In the CSF of a 1) increased IgG

Multiple Sclerosis, 2) Increased Oligoclonal band
what is increased

Increased Bacterial infection (meningitis)

Neutrophil in CSF
indicates ........ normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul
diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte

Increased viral infection (meningitis)

lymphocytes in CSF
indicates ........ normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul
diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte

What type of Type 4, delayed Hypersensitivity

hypersensitivity
reaction is PPD test employsT lymphocyte and macrophages

Test to monitor AIDS CD4 count

progression?
AIDS causes depletion of CD4 inverting the ratio of
CD4:CD8 to 1:2

normal ratio is 2:1

A patient is from Repeat western blot

West Africa. He is
positive in the test of
HIV 1 and HIV 2
combination. HIV 1
Western blot is
performed -
indeterminate, what
to do next?
An initial screening Perform Western Blot
for Anti-HIV 1/2
using ELISA tested positive if band P24, gp41, gp120 and gp160 present
reactive, what MLS
should do next?

Nucleolar ANA Scleroderma

Pattern

Crithidia luciliae is a Anti-dsDNA

confirmation for SLE

ANA anti- CREST

centromere pattern

DiGeorge Syndrome Newborn without thymus gland,

normal B cells but no production of t cells

Rheumatoid Factor is An IgM against the Fc portion of abnormal IgG

? leading to Rheumatoid Arthritis.

type three Hypersensitivity

Teacher exposed to Immune
rubella, tested
positive for IgG. IgG is produced in secondary/anamnestic antibody
Status? response

new infection will probably have IgM

Monoclonal 1. Multiple Myeloma (Lymphoproliferative disease

gammopathy produce Bence jones protein in urine and dry tap
(Monoclonal from bone marrow)
Hypergammaglobuli
nemia) is observed 2. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (uncontrolled
in ? proliferation of a clone of B cells)

3. Primary amyloidosis

What Hepatitis B Anti-HBc

marker shows
Previous infection,
and considered a
life time marker

Positive Anti-HAV Recent acute Hep A

(IgM) indicates what
type of Hepatitis
infection?

Positive HBsAg and Acute Hep B

positive HBeAg with
or without anti-HBe
or anti-HBc IgM
indicates what type
of infection?

Positive HBsAg and Chronic hepatitis B

positive HBeAg with
a positive anti-HBc
IgG indicates what
type of infection?

Positive anti-HBe, Immunity to Hep B due to previous infection

anti-HBc IgG, and
Anti-HBs indicates
what stage of
hepatitis?

Positive anti-HBs Immunity due to vaccination

only indicates what
stage of hepatitis?

Positive anti-HBc repeat HBs Ag (not sure)

only, what might be
the problem ?

Positive anti-HCV Chronic Hep C

indicates what?

Anti-myelin are Multiple sclerosis

antibodies
associated with what
condition?

regarding blood MNS reagent

banking, reagent
deteriorate fast
while in USE?

regarding blood P reagent

banking, reagent
deteriorate fast
while in STORAGE?

FMH volume was 300 ug for each 15 ml (packed RBC)

given from a packet
cell (not whole remember, 300 ug for each 30 ml (whole blood)
blood). how many
vials of RhIG will be
given.
When the first dose 28 weeks
of RhIG is given to
the mother?

Who is not a Mother with an Anti-D titer of 1:4096

candidate for RhiG ?

What blood type Type O, Rh negative, without C, I and Lea antigens

should be transfused
to a baby?
Mother: Type O, Rh
negative (-), Anti-D,
Anti-I and Anti-Lea
Child: Type A, Rh
positive (+), DAT
positive

Mother: Type O, Rh RhIG administration

negative (-), no
antibody to D first dose at 28 weeks
antigen the use the formula to decide how many dose
Child: Type O, Rh
Positve (+) (FMB% x 5)/3
round and add one more vial
what to do?

Anti C3D (+)ve, Anti prewarm the sample

IgG (-)ve
A prewarmed technique, in which the donor's cells
what do do? and patient's serum are warmed separately to 37°C
before combining, is commonly used to eliminate
interference from cold agglutinins.

What to do after Confirm with western blot

testing a patient that
is positive in HTLV-1

What is the N-acetylgalactosamine

immunodominant
sugar in group A?
Rouleaux is NOT AHG phase
noticeable in what
phase? Rouleaux will not be present in the antiglobulin
phase because all of the serum proteins are washed
away before the AHG is added.

Rh control should Must be always NEGATIVE

be
A. Positve Positive Rh Control render invalid result
B. Negative

Deferred for Blood Hepatitis B immune globulin 6 months ago

donation? blood transfusion
exposure to blood
Imprisonment
Tattoo/piercing
sexual contact with high risk for HIV
Rape victim

ALL should be o.k. after 12 months

Collected blood Use for Packed RBC (do not prepare other
only 390 ml what to component due to abnormal anticoagulant-to-
do? plasma Ratio.

Significant antibody Kidd antibody

can transfer from
mother to baby? Jka > Jkb
IgG class

AUTO Anti-P AKA Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH)

Donath-Landsteiner
antibody is For patient with Auto Anti-P may require warmer
associated with ... blood for transfusion.
Detection of ab Machine probably didn't dispense correctly the
where 11 tubes saline in the wash
resulted negative in
AHG, but when Check cells must be agglutinated in order to
added CC 4 of them consider the results.
didn't agglutinate?

CAUSE OF FALSE Blood Typing done at 37C

NEGATIVE ABO as ABO are IgM (cold antibodies) and they react
TYPING best in room temperature

keep in mind that POSITIVE DAT causes false

positive

PATIENT DAT (4+), Antibody Identification with enzyme

IAT (+), DID ELUATE
AND THE RESULTS (Another answer, MAKE ANOTHER
ARE DAT (2+) THEY AUTOADSORPTION, doesn't seem right)
AUTO ABSORB
SERUM AND KEEPS
REACTING TO SCI1
& SC2 IN AHG,
WHAT SHOULD
YOU DO?

IS 37 AHG CC ADD 4 DROPS OF SERUM

SC1 0 0 0 2+ (not sure)
SC2 +/- +/- 0 2+

what to do next?

37/LISS AHG use polyspecific AHG

SC1 0 +/-
SC2 0 +/- Polyspecific AHG contains both IgG and Anti-C3
which will cause red cell to agglutinate even if the
what to do next? cell coated with IgM (cold) as it will fix complement
C3

Anti-A: 4+ A1 cells: 2+ Wash Red cells with Saline

Anti-B: 4+ B cells: 2+
 (causes are rouleaux or autoantibody)
What should you do washing will solve the Rouleaux issue.
next?

Three (3) test tubes Serum was omitted from the reaction
are negative to
Antihuman Glubulin Check Cells (CC) are used as quality control
(AHG), when check measure for negative indirect and direct AHG test
cell is added, the performed in test tubes and should always be
result is still positive when added?
negative.

What is the error?

If an individual is a Le a
nonsecretor sese
with Lewis
phenotype Le a+b-,
what antigen will be
detected in his/her
fluids?

How RBC become They are glycoprotein found in plasma (secretions)

positive for lewis and adsorbed on the surface of RBCs.
antigen(s)?

What gene is Kx
deleted in Mcleod
syndrome?

When separating 8 hours

whole blood into its
components, what is
the timeframe to
separate?
Cryoprecipitate after Expires in 4 hours (open system), 6 hours (closed
pooling system) when kept in room temperature after
thawthing

Fresh Frozen Plasma Expires in 24 hours when stored at 1-6 C

after thawing

Mucor No rhizoids (filamentous outgrowth)

Microsporum Septate hyphae (comb like)

audouinii

Description of Aseptae Hyphae with Sporangiospores (spores that

Zygomycetes are produced in a sporangium/Fungi)

INCUBATION TIME 2-5 weeks

FOR FUNGAL
CULTURE?

Alternaria picture Alternaria

Lesion on the arm Sporothrix Schenckii

Mold form:
flowerette/daisy like
conidia
Yeast form: cigar
shaped /asteroid
body
BLASTOMYCES BROAD BASE BUDDING WITH MOTHER AND
DERMATITIDIS IS DAUGHTER CELLS
SEEN
MICROSCOPICALLY
AS?

Describe Mother budding and daughter cell with constriction.

Blastoconidia

Favic chandelier is Trichophyton schoenleinii

seen in ...

Hair Baiting Test Trychophyton mentagrophytes

Positive in .....

Hair perforation test Trichophyton mentagrophytes and

is for identification Trichophyton rubrum
of which two fungi?

Plasmodium species Plasmodium falciparum

that does not
present trophozoite banana shaped
and schizont in
PBS(peripheral
blood smear)
A wright stain of Plasmodium Vivax
peripheral smear
reveals Erythrocytes
enlarged to 1.5-2X
normal
Schuffners dots
Parasite with
irregular spread out
trophozoites
Golden brown
pegment
12-24 merozoites
what Plasmodium
species is this
consistent with?

Trichuris trichiura Trichuris trichiura

(whipworm) image

Parasite associated Acanthamoeba

with Homemade
Contact lens
Solution?

Blastocystis hominis Blastocystis hominis

Image
a large central body that fills about 90% of the cell
volume. There is an outer ring of cytoplasm with
several nuclei around the central body
PARASITE FOUND Entamoeba histolytica
IN MUCOID STOOL

Which parasite is Strongyloides stercoralis

known for its
autoinfection
capability?

Cryptosporidium Modified Acid Fast Stain

Staining

Specimen of choice Stool

for Rotavirus?

You recieved a Clarify request

sputum specimen for
Rotavirus, what to
do?

Positive ELISA test Report as (+)ve for Rotavirus

for Rotavirus, what
MLS do next?

Sperm count is done after liquefaction (30-60 minutes)

......

Abnormal sperm

Different Fecal Fat Weighing and Extraction

tests are affected
similarly by .....
Effusions (fluid in a Transudate
body cavity) that is
non-inflammatory
with fewer than 1000
cells/ul and protein
less than 3gm/dl is
called ....

Effusions (fluid in a Exudates

body cavity) that is
inflammatory
(yellow-white) with
higher than 1000
cells/ul and protein
more than 3gm/dl is
called ....

Leukocyte esterase Lysed WBC

is 1+ but in
microscopic exam Leukocytes reagent strip react with Leukocyte
no WBC seen. What esterase from lysed WBCs
is the cause?

Protein reagent strip Proteins other than albumin, like Bence Jones
negative, while Protein
Sulfosalicylic acid
(SSA) is positive,
what might be the
issue?

Clreatinine C = U x V/P
Clearance formula ..

What is the urine glomerulus, bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted

formation pathway? tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule,
collective tubule and renal pelvis.

Picture of Triple Alkaline Urine

Phosphate, seen in
What urine?

Urine Crystals seen 1) Tyrosine

indication liver 2) Leucine &
disease .... 3) Bilirubin

A gram stain is done Keep at around 35 c or room temperature

on a CSF specimen
in the evening shift
and shows gram
negative rods. how
should the MLS
store it for a culture
on the next day?

On a urinalysis test, 1. Hypotonic and alkaline urine

blood is positive on 2. Hemoglobinuria
strip test, but no red
cells are seen under In dilute or alkaline urine, RBCs swell and lyse with
the microscope. release of hemoglobin, leaving an empty cell, which
what can be an appears as a ghost cell.
explanation?

Glucose reagent Glucose is present

strip positive (+),
Clinitest negative (-) Strip test is more sensitive than Clinitest

Production of Oliguria
abnormal small
amount of urine
(>400 ml) is called ...

complete cessation Anuria

of urine flow
Ph 4.5 in urine is high protein diet
found with/in ....

Principle of reagent Double indicator system

strip of pH? 1) Methyl red
2) Bromthymol Blue

Specific gravity 1.010 correct the specific gravity due to high glucose
using refractometer
at 4C result glucose
1000mg/dL - what
MLS should do?

A urine specific Protein and Glucose result Trace - Radiographic

gravity of 1.053 in the Dyes would increase Specific Gravity (Abnormal
refractometer Solute)

Consistent SG in Diabetes Insipidus (consistently low Specific Gravity)

urine of 1.010 may be
found in ....

Urinalysis Result: Nephrotic Syndrome

with
1) WBC Cast,
2) RTE Cells,
3) Fatty Cast,
4) Oval Fat Bodies -

Effect on increased Increase Sodium (Na) , Decreased Potassium (K)

aldosterone to Na
and K

urine analysis Tubular necrosis

RBC (20-25/hpf)
Hyaline casts (6-
8/hpf)
WBC (5-10/hpf)
RTE (25-35/hpf)

Birefringent crystal Pseudogout (Calcium pyrophosphate)

(refractive) in
synovial fluid causes remember gout is caused by Monosodium urate
.... crystal

What is added to Glacial Acetic Acid (2.5%)

check for mucin clot
in synovial fluid ? poor mucin clot formation are indications of
decreased hyaluronate concentration (decreased
viscosity)

lactic acidosis
findings

What is used to Paired T-test

compare two sets of
mean?

What does a delta Significant change in patient's lab result compared

check mean when to previous result
doing automated
clinical
measurements?

Concentration of a Beers Law

substance is directly
proportional to the
amount of light
absorbed or
inversely
proportional to the
logarithm of
transmitted light
Specimen for blood Heparinized syringe with needle pierced on rubber
gas analysis? stopper

Effect of blood increase pH

sample exposure to decreased CO2
air (bubble) .. increased O2

Viral Specimen in Lyophilized in a serum

the laboratory is to
be shipped for
96hours. What
temperature should
the specimen be
kept

C1 esterase Factor 12
deficiency treatment

What is Weil-Felix It is the use of Proteus OX-19, OX-2 and OX-K as

test antigens to detect hard to culture Rickettsial
Antibody (heterophil antibody)

How Weil-Felix test 4-folds rise in titer or

should be 1:160 titer
considered positive?

what are the R. Akari that causes Ricketssial Pox) and

Rickettsial organisms Coxiella Burnetti that causes Q-Fever
negative for Proteus
antigens?

How Rickettsia Proteus OX-19 Positive

Prowazekii which Proteus OX-2 varialble
causes typhus Fever, Proteus OX-K negative
will react in Weil-
Felix test?
How Rickettsia Proteus OX-19 Positive
Rickettsiae which Proteus OX-2 posive
causes Rocky Proteus OX-K negative
Mountain Spotted
fever, will react in
Weil-Felix test?

How Rickettsia Typhi Proteus OX-19 Positive

which causes Murine Proteus OX-2 posive
Typhus, will react in Proteus OX-K negative
Weil-Felix test?

REJECTION HIGH EPITHELIAL CELLS

CRITERIA FOR
SPUTUM squamous epithelial cells are an indication of
SPECEMIN? contamination with oral flora, whereas
polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs) indicate a quality
specimen. A general rule for an acceptable
specimen might be <10 squamous epithelial
cells and >25 PMNs/low power field.

reason for a false Positve DAT

Positive ABO

In multichannel Instrument temperature may be low

analyzer, controls of
enzymatic assays are
lower than expected
values while non-
enzymatic assay
controls are within
normal limits. What is
the probable cause?

Speckled ANA anti SBB & anti-SSA (Sjorgen),

pattern anti RNP (Mixed Connective Tissue Disease),
anti Sm (SLE)
COAGULATION Factor XII
RESULT OF A Factor X1
PATIENT THAT HAS FactorIX
UNDERGONE A
GALLBLADDER Any factor in the intrinsic pathway only (not the
SURGERY PT IS common pathway)
NORMAL, APTT IS
PROLONGED, THE
FACTOR DEFICIENT
IS ....

ORGANISM TECH REPORT AS NORMAL FLORA

ISOLATED IN
HEKTOEN AGAR
TSI K/A, H2S
positive (+),
PAD negative (-),
LYSINE
DECARBOXYLASE
negative (-),
UREA positive (+),
CITRATE positive (+)

SENSITIVITY TP/TP+FN X 100

FORMULA

Ouchterlony inverted V or U shape = identity

X shape = non-identity
inverted Y = Partial identity

A PATIENT HAD A RECURRENCE OF THE DISEASE

SURGERY TO
REMOVE A
PROSTATE CANCER
12 MONTH AGO,
THE REGULAR PSA
TEST SHOWED A
LEVEL OF 14 NG/ML
(N:<4 NG/ML) WHAT
WILL BE THE
DIAGNOSIS?

AUTOCLAVE 121C, 15 PSI, 15 MINS

STERILIZATION

A2B with A1 looks see image

like in ABO
discrepancy

ABO discrepancy

Coefficient of Standard Deviation/mean X 100

Variation (CV)
reflects random variation of analytical
methods in units that are independent of
methodology.

Ideal CVs are less than 3%

Indicates acceptable precision

Decreased alpha-1 Emphysema-associated pulmonary disease

antitrypsin found in
... It neutralizes trypsin type enzyme that can damages
structural proteins.

Branched Chain Signal Amplification

DNA (bDNA) is what
time of
amplification?

Purpose of D forms rosette with fetal D positive red cell

Positive (+) red cell
indicator in the
rosette test is ...

Test for glucose was Wrong anticoagulant used

collected in heparin
and specimen
cannot be tested
within 3 hours. What
to do next?

the following results Good control for the past months,

correlate with .... poor recent control

5.5 % hba1c, 160

mg/dl FBS:

Uric acid Crystals Normal Acid urine Crystals

Purine metabolite

Why it is hard to I don't know

identify a blood
group for a patient
who is receiving
dextran?

Sequence of Hep A. Options were Antigen in fecal specimen, IgM in

marker (which one blood, IgG in blood (that was the order I chose, it
appear first, second could be wrong)
and third)

3 Platelet analyse the 3 curves and identify which one is

aggregation curves normal and which one is abnormal.

Recurrent identify the minimum value of their platelet prior

Plateletphareses allowing him/her to donate again.
donners

Patient suspected Hemoglobin D trade (travel with HgS at alkaline pH)

for Sickle cell
disease,
no sickle cells in PBS
hemoglobin shows
only A and S bands
at 8.6 pH. which
might be the
diagnoses

patient admitted to lipemic

the hospital with
severe abdominal
pain. lab work show
high amylase, lipase
(result shown). the
patient blood
expected be
a. ictric
b. viscous
c. lipemic
d. hemolysed