NEET 2017 (NORTH-EAST)

SIMA

Z
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(NORTH-EAST)

1. The bob A of a pendulum released from 3. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a

300 to the vertical hits another identical straight line with velocity 𝑣 = 𝑎𝑥 3⁄2 ,
bob of the same mass at rest elastically. where 𝑎 = 5 m-1/2 s-1. The work done by
How high does the bob A rise after the net force during its displacement
collision? from 𝑥 = 0 to 𝑥 = 2 m is:

(1) 45 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 55 J
(4) 50 J

4. When a nucleus in an atom undergoes

a radioactive decay, the electronic
(1) 2 m energy levels of the atom:
(2) 0 m (1) do not change for any type of
radioactivity
(3) 0.5 m (2) change for α and β radioactivity but
(4) Depends on the length of the not for γ-radioactivity.
pendulum and the height from (3) change for α-radioactivity but not
which it is released for others.
(4) change for β-radioactivity but not
for others.
2. A box containing 1 kg Helium gas at a
temperature of 300 K is moving at a 5. A boy standing on a lift, open from
speed of 200 m s-1. The internal energy above, throws a ball upwards with an
of the system is: initial velocity of 49 m s-1. If the lift is
moving upwards with a uniform speed
(1) 425 kcal of 5 m s-1, how long does the ball take
to return to the boy’s hands?
(2) 229.7 kcal
(1) 5s
(3) 225 kcal (2) 8s
(3) 10 s
(4) 220.3 kcal (4) 12 s
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(NORTH-EAST)

6. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a 9. 5 L of an ideal gas taken in a 12 L open

force 𝑭 = (−3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂) N. If its initial vessel expands from a temperature at
velocity at t = 0 is 𝒗 = (6𝑖̂ − 12𝑗̂) m s-1 which speed of sound is 300 m s-1 to a
the time at which it will just have a temperature at which speed of sound is
velocity along the y-axis is: 600 ms-1. The amount of gas expelled
out is to be compressed back to the
(1) Never original volume of 5 L. Change of
(2) 2s temperature required, if final
(3) 10 s temperature is to be 300 K is:
(4) 15 s
(1) 200 K
7. A set of n equal resistors of R each are (2) 180 K
connected in series to a battery of emf E (3) 220 K
and internal resistance R. A current I (4) 150 K
flows through the circuit. Now, the n
resistors are connected in parallel to the 10. An inductor of 10 turns and cross-
same battery. It is observed that the sectional area 10 cm2 has an inductive
current is increased 10 times. The value reactance of 200 Ω at an angular
of n is: frequency of 100 rad. It is connected to
a 200 V A.C source. A charge of 1 mC
(1) 12 passing through the axis of the solenoid
(2) 10 with a velocity of 10 m s-1 would
(3) 8 experience a maximum force of:
(4) 20
(1) 3N
8. A 220 V A.C. supply is connected (2) 2N
between points A and B in the given (3) 1N
circuit. What will be the potential (4) 5N
difference V across the capacitor?
11. Dielectric constant of a medium is 3
and the magnetic susceptibility is 0.33.
Critical angle for the medium is:

(1) 450
(1) 220 V (2) 600
(2) 110 V (3) 300
(3) 0V (4) 900
(4) 220√2 V
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12. A cubical block of 1 kg and volume
200 m3 is kept on a rough incline of
inclination 600. The height of the
incline is 400√3 m and coefficient of
kinetic friction between the block and
incline is 0.5. If the work done due to
friction is completely converted to heat
and is absorbed by the block, the
volume of the block on reaching the
bottom is:
(Specific heat of block = 0.4 J g-1 K-1,
Coefficient of linear expansion =
11.8 × 10-3 K-1)
(1) 235.4 m3
(2) 211.8 m3
(3) 223.6 m3
(4) 205.9 m3
13. Young’s double slit experiment is done
using monochromatic light. The
distance between the slits is 0.3 mm and
their distance from screen is 6 m. If
fifth dark fringe and second bright
fringe on the opposite side is separated
by 13 mm, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons obtained on irradiating a
metal of work function 4 eV by the
same source is:
(1) 8.2 eV
(2) 8.9 eV
(3) 8.4 eV
(4) 8.7 eV
14. The number of significant figures in
0.007 m2 and 6.320 J are respectively:
(1) 1 and 4
(2) 4 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 4 and 4
15. For a particle performing uniform
circular motion, choose the incorrect
statement from the following:
(1) Magnitude of particle velocity
(speed) remains constant.
(2) Particle velocity remains directed
perpendicular to radius vector.
(3) Direction of acceleration keeps
changing as particle moves.
(4) Angular momentum is constant in
magnitude but direction
keeps changing.
16. If the mass of sun were ten times
smaller and gravitational constant
G were ten times larger in magnitudes-
(1) walking on ground would become
easier.
(2) the acceleration due to gravity on
earth will not change.
(3) raindrops will fall much faster.
(4) airplanes will have to travel much
slower.
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17. The exact wavelength of light required
to excite photoelectrons of sufficient
energy from Cs metal of work function
2.12 eV so that the excited
photoelectrons complete a vertical
circle of radius 2 × 107 km with
minimum velocity of entry is:
19. A system goes from P to Q by two
different paths in the P-V diagram as
shown. Heat given to the system in path
1 is 1000 J. The work done by the
system along path 1 is more than path 2
by 100 J. What is the heat exchanged by
the system in path 2?

(1) 340 nm
(2) 250 nm
(3) 100 nm
(4) 450 nm

18. A force F is applied to the following

system of masses joined by a spring of (1) 1100 J
spring constant 𝑘 as shown (2) 800 J
(3) 900 J
(4) 1000 J

20. Heat energy is used to separate a large

drop of a liquid (at 300 K) of radius
If the two masses are released, the 4 m into 8 smaller identical drops. In
period of oscillation of the spring is: this process, 50% of the energy
supplied is absorbed by the liquid and
𝑚 the rest is used to separate the drop.
(1) 2𝜋√
𝑘
Value of surface tension of the liquid is
0.02 N/m and the specific heat capacity
(2) 2𝜋√
𝑚 of the liquid is 0.05 J g-1 K-1. If total
2𝑘
weight of the liquid is 30 g, temperature
of the smaller drops is:
2𝑚
(3) 2𝜋√
𝑘 (1) 308 K

(4) zero (2) 303 K

(3) 306 K

(4) 301 K
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(NORTH-EAST)

21. A positively charged particle is released
from rest in a uniform electric field.
The electric potential energy of the
charge
(1) remains a constant because the
electric field is uniform.
(2) increases because the charge moves
along the electric field.
(3) decreases because the charge moves
along the electric field.
(4) decreases because the charge moves
opposite to the electric field.
23. The quality factor of an LCR circuit is
20. The value of capacitance is 10 μF
and inductive reactance is 100 Ω. The
current flowing through the circuit at
resonance, if source voltage is 200 V is:
(1) 20 A
(2) 40 A
(3) 60 A
(4) 80 A

22. Two amplifiers are connected one after

another in series. The first amplifier has 24. The core of a galvanometer is attached
a voltage gain of 10 and the second to a plane mirror which deflects
amplifier has a power gain of 200, with according to the torque produced on the
a current amplification factor of 10. If core. When a current of 5 mA passes
the input signal is given by through the galvanometer, the ray of
light reflects back at an angle of 150
𝜋
V = 0.01 sin (300t + ) with respect to the incident ray. The
4
angle made with respect to the incident
Then, the output signal is given by: ray when a current of 20 mA passes
through the galvanometer is:
3𝜋
(1) V = 2 sin (300t + )
4 (1) 600
5𝜋
(2) V = 2 cos (300t + ) (2) 900
4

𝜋 (3) 1200
(3) V = 2 sin (300t + )
4

5𝜋 (4) 1500
(4) V = 2 sin (300t + )
4
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25. A bullet of mass 10 g and moving with 28. Two H atoms in the ground state collide
speed 500 m s-1 get embedded at the inelastically. The maximum amount by
centre of a horizontal plank pivoted on which their combined kinetic energy is
its vertical axis at one end. Length of reduced is:
plank is 1 m and mass 12 kg. The
angular speed of the plank just after the (1) 10.20 eV
bullet embeds into it is: (2) 20.40 eV
(3) 13.6 eV
(1) 0.500 rad s-1 (4) 27.2 eV

(2) 0.625 rad s-1 29. There are two coils A and B separated
by some distance. If a current of 2 A
(3) 0.250 rad s-1 flows through A, a magnetic flux of
10-2 Wb passes through B (no current
(4) 0.355 rad s-1 through B). If no current passes through
A and a current of 1 A passes through
26. A stream of water flowing horizontally B, what is the flux through A?
at 15 m s-1 gushes out of a tube of
cross-sectional area 10-2 m2 and hits a (1) 10-2 Wb
vertical wall nearby. What is the force
exerted by the impact of water, (2) 10-3 Wb
assuming it does not rebound?
(3) 2 × 10-3 Wb
(1) 1250 N
(4) 5 × 10-3 Wb
(2) 2100 N
30. Water flows through a pipe of area
(3) 2500 N 200 cm2 at the rate of 2 m s-1 and the
end of the pipe is closed and tilted 300
(4) 2250 N upwards and contains 5 holes each of
area 2 cm2. The maximum height up to
27. Point contact diodes are used for the which the flowing water will rise is:
detection of:
(1) 12 m
(1) Ultraviolet rays
(2) Infrared rays (2) 20 m
(3) Gamma rays
(4) Microwaves (3) 25 m

(4) 10 m
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31. A spring is stretched by applying a load 34. Three identical bar magnets are rivetted
to its free end. The strain produced in together at centre in the same plane.
the spring is This system is placed at rest in a slowly
varying magnetic field. It is found that
(1) volumetric. the system of magnets does not show
(2) shear. any motion. The north-south poles of
(3) longitudinal and shear. one magnet. Determine the poles of the
(4) longitudinal remaining two.

32. A uniform disc of radius R, is resting

on a table on its rim. The coefficient of
friction between disc and table is μ.
Now the disc is pulled with a force F as
shown in the figure. What is the
maximum value of F for which the disc
rolls without slipping?

(1) A, D = N and B, C = S
(2) A, B = N and C, D = S
(3) A, C = N and B, D = S
(4) C, D = N and A, B = S
(1) 𝜇mg
(2) 3 𝜇mg 35. Consider a metal exposed to light of
(3) 2 𝜇mg wavelength 600 nm. The maximum
(4) 0.5𝜇mg energy of the electron doubles when
light of wavelength 400 nm is used.
33. Which of the following statements is Find the work function in eV.
not true for a stationary wave?
(1) 3.12 eV
(1) Every particle has a fixed amplitude
which is different from the amplitude of (2) 1.15 eV
its nearest particle.
(2) All the particles cross their mean (3) 1.02 eV
position at the same time.
(3) All the particles are oscillating with (4) 2.03 eV
same amplitude.
(4) There is no net transfer of energy
across any plane.
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(NORTH-EAST)

36. Truth table for the given circuit is:
37. A long straight wire carrying current of
25A rests on a table. Another wire PQ
of length 1m, mass 2.5 g carries the
same current but in the opposite
direction. The wire PQ is free to slide
up and down. To what height will PQ
rise?

(1)

(1) 0.23 cm
(2) 0.65cm
(2) (3) 0.51 cm
(4) 0.45 cm

38. Two point masses m each are placed at

the opposite corners A and C of a
(3) square ABCD of side a. Two point
charges +q each are placed at the two
remaining corners B and D of the
square. The escape velocity of a particle
of mass M and charge Q from the
centre of the square is:
(4)
2√2 𝐾𝑄𝑞
(1) √𝐺𝑚 +
√𝑎 𝑀

2√√2 𝐾𝑄𝑞
(2) √𝐺𝑚 +
√𝑎 𝑀

2√2 𝐾𝑄𝑞
(3) √𝐺𝑚 +
𝑎 𝑀

2√2 𝐾𝑄𝑞
(4) √𝐺𝑀 +
√𝑎 𝑚
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39. A ray of light incident at an angle θ on
a refracting face of a prism emerges
from the other face normally. If the
angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is
made of a material of refractive index
1.5, the angle of incidence is
41. A circular current loop of magnetic
moment M is in an arbitrary
orientation in an external magnetic field
B. The work done to rotate
the loop by 30° about an axis
perpendicular to its plane is:

(1) 7.5° (1) MB

(2) 5°
(3) 15° √3
(2) MB
(4) 2.5° 2

1
40. An object falling through a fluid is (3) MB
2
observed to have acceleration given by
a = g – bv where g = gravitational (4) Zero
acceleration and b is constant. After a
long time of release, it is observed to 42. A body of mass m is situated in a
fall with constant speed. What must be potential field U(x) = U0 (1- cos αx)
the value of constant speed? when U0 and α are constants. The time
period of small oscillations is:
𝑔
(1)
𝑏 𝑚
(1) 2𝜋√
𝑈0 𝛼 2
2𝑔
(2) 2𝑚
𝑏 (2) 2𝜋√
𝑈0 𝛼 2
𝑔 𝑚
(3) (3) 2𝜋√
2𝑏 4𝑈0 𝛼 2

4𝑚
3𝑔 (4) 2𝜋√
(4) 𝑈0 𝛼 2
2𝑏
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43. A uniform square plate has a small 45. If the co-efficient of performance of a
piece Q of an irregular shape removed refrigerator operating at room
and glued to the centre of the plate temperature (27 °C) is 5, find the
leaving a hole behind. The moment of temperature inside the refrigerator.
inertia about the z-axis is then
(1) 280 K
(2) 260 K
(3) 250 K
(4) 230 K

(1) increased 46. Mass of ammonia produced in Haber’s

(2) decreased process when 2000 g dinitrogen reacts
(3) the same with 1000 g dihydrogen is:
(4) changed in unpredicted manner.
(1) 2000 g
(2) 2430 g
44. A cubical block of density ρ is floating
(3) 3420 g
on the surface of water. Out of its
(4) 1000 g
height L, fraction x is submerged in
water. The vessel is in an elevator
47. The oxide of halogen used in the
accelerating upward with acceleration
estimation of carbon monoxide is:
a. What is the fraction immersed?

𝑎𝜌 (1) I2O4
(1) (2) BrO2
𝑔𝜌𝑤
(3) I2O5
(4) ClO2
𝑔𝜌
(2)
𝑎𝜌𝑤 48. Choose the wrong statement

𝜌 (1) Indium is more electronegative than

(3)
𝜌𝑤 gallium
(2) Tin has the lowest melting point in
(𝑔−𝑎)𝜌 group 14
(4) (3) Tridymite is a crystalline form of
𝑎𝜌𝑤
silicon
(4) Ionic radius of Ga3+ is higher than
that of Al3+
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(NORTH-EAST)
49. Single radial node is found in which of
the following orbitals?
(1) 3s
(2) 2p
(3) 4p
(4) 4d
50. The catalyst used in the process known
as steam refining, where hydrogen is
obtained by reacting methane with
steam, during Haber’s process, is:
(1) FeO
(2) SnO
(3) NiO
(4) MoO
51. The rate of production of H2 during
decomposition of ammonia on platinum
surface, if rate constant is 2.5 × 10-4
mol-1 L s-1 is:
(1) 2.5 × 10-4 mol-1 L s-1
(2) 5 × 10-4 mol-1 L s-1
(3) 7.5 × 10-4 mol-1 L s-1
(4) 1.125 × 10-4 mol-1 L s-1
52. The major product of the following
reaction would be the product with:
𝑁𝑎/ 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑 𝑁𝐻3
RC≡CR’ + H2 → X
(1) Higher boiling point as compared to
the minor product
(2) Higher melting point as compared to
the minor product
(3) Lower number of covalent bonds as
compared to the minor product
(4) Higher number of covalent bonds as
compared to the minor product
53. Addition of halogens to alkenes is an
example of electrophilic addition
reaction involving
(1) Reasonance stabilised halonium
ion formation
(2) Cyclic halonium ion formation
(3) Heterolytic cleavage of halogen
molecule
(4) Hyperconjugation stabilised
halonium ion formation
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(NORTH-EAST)

54. Hydrolysis of benzylidene diacetate 57. Choose the incorrect statement:

with aqueous acid gives:
(1) Occurrence of Rb in the lithosphere
(1) Benzoic acid is higher than that of Na and K

(2) Benzyl alcohol (2) Calcium and magnesium chlorides

are more soluble than sodium
(3) Acetophenone chloride

(4) Benzaldehyde (3) Magnesium nitrate crystallises with

55. To which crystal system does the
product (X) of the following reaction
belong to?
Na2B4O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O → X + 2NaCl
six molecules of water, whereas
barium nitrate crystallises with only
one molecule of water
(4) Highest energy photons are released
by Caesium, whereas lowest energy
photons are released by Rubidium

(1) Cubic
58. Minimum amount of water required to
(2) Rhombohedral dissolve 1g of CaSO4 at 298 K?
(Ksp = 9.1 × 10-6)
(3) Triclinic
(1) 1.24 L
(4) Hexagonal (2) 2.43 L
(3) 3.12 L
56. Which of the following compounds (4) 4.67 L
finds use in ‘pickling of stainless steel’?
59. The oxidation number of all S atoms
(1) H2SO4 present in tetrathionate ion is:

(2) HNO3 (1) +5, 0, +5, +5

(3) Cl2 (2) +6, 0, 0, +5

(4) HCl (3) +5, 0, 0, +5

(4) +6, 0, 0, +6
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(NORTH-EAST)

60. Which one is most ionic: 63. The amount of Calcium chloride
(i = 2.47) dissolved in 2.5 L of water
(1) LiF such that its osmotic pressure becomes
0.75 atm at 27oC is:
(2) K2O
(1) 0.06 mol
(3) NCl3
(2) 0.01 mol
(4) ClF
(3) 0.05 mol

61. The entropy change in surroundings (4) 0.03 mol

when 1 mol of water is formed under
standard conditions, is:
(∆𝑓 𝐻 = − 286 kJ mol-1) 64. An amide undergoes reactions in two
pathways. In the first pathway, number
(1) 959.73 J K-1 of carbon atoms show no change,
whereas the second pathway shows
(2) − 959.73 J K-1 decrease in number of carbon atoms.
The product of both of the reactions are
(3) 286 J K-1 amines. If acetone is treated with the
reagents involved in the second
(4) −324 J K-1 pathway, what would happen?

(1) No reaction
62. Which of the following coordination
compounds are used in the treatment of (2) Ethanol is formed due to
lead poisoning? reduction in number of carbon
atoms
(1) D-penicillamine
(3) Propanol is formed without
(2) desferrioxime B reduction in number of carbon
atoms
(3) EDTA
(4) Bromoform is formed
(4) 𝛼-nitroso-𝛽-naphthol
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65. Meprobamate is a/an: 68. When (−)-2-methyl-butan-1-ol is

heated with concentrated HCl,
(1) Analgesic (+)-1-chloro-2-methyl butane is
obtained. The reaction is an example of:
(2) Tranquilizer
(1) inversion
(3) Antacid (2) retention
(3) racemisation
(4) Antibiotic (4) mutarotation

66. Hydrolysis of amides followed by

treatment with diborane gives: 69. The following reaction shows the
oxidation of manganous salt to MnO2
(1) Alkane by the action of KMnO4. The presence
of which of the following reagents
(2) Aldehyde might catalyse the oxidation?

2 𝑀𝑛𝑂4− + 3𝑀𝑛2+ + 2 𝐻2 𝑂 → 5𝑀𝑛𝑂2 + 4𝐻 +

(3) Alcohol

(4) Alkyne (1) FeSO4/Fe2O3

67. A compound on treatment with bromine (2) ZnSO4/ZnO

water gave a white precipitate and was
also found to react with NaOH. The (3) Na2S2O8/Na2SO4
compound might possibly be:
(4) Fe2(SO4)3/Fe3O4
(1) Acetone

(2) Carbolic acid 70. The electrolyte used in lead storage cell
is:
(3) Benzoic acid
(1) Paste of KOH and ZnO
(4) Benzaldehyde (2) 27% solution of sulphuric acid
(3) NH4Cl and ZnCl2 paste
(4) 38% solution of sulphuric acid
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(NORTH-EAST)

71. Select the correct option 74. The first and second ionisation
enthalpies and the electron gain
(1) K2Cr2O7 is more soluble in water enthaplies (in kJ mol-1) of a few
as compared to Na2Cr2O7 elements are given

(2) Actinides are resistant to attack by Element ∆𝑖 𝐻1 ∆𝑖 𝐻2 ∆𝑒𝑔 𝐻

HCl as well as HNO3 520 7300 -60
A
(3) Metallic radius of Mn is higher as 419 3051 -48
B
compared to its neighbouring 1681 3374 -328
elements C
738 1451 -40
2+
(4) Eu is a strong oxidising agent D
due to its peculiar electronic The most reactive metal is:
configuration
(1) A
72. The reaction of two species results in
the formation of hybrid orbitals with (2) C
angle between them equal to 109.5o.
The percentage of s character of the (3) D
hybrid orbitals so formed is:
(4) B
(1) 50%
75. There are three types of hybridisation in
(2) 33.3% the carbon atoms of:

(3) 66.6 % (1) 2-Butyne

(4) 25% (2) Phenyl acetylide

(3) Hexan-3-ynal
73. Copper is extracted from low grade
ores and scraps by hydrometallurgy. It (4) Allyl alcohol
is leached out using

(1) NH4Cl
(2) BF3
(3) NaOH
(4) H2SO4
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(NORTH-EAST)

76. The IUPAC name of the organic 79. Pressure in well inflated tyres of
compound given below is automobiles is almost constant, but the
tyre may burst on summer days. This
phenomenon is explained by

(1) Charles law

(2) Boyle’s law

(1) 3-Methyl cyclobut-1-en-2-ol
(3) Dalton’s law of partial pressures
(2) 4-Methyl cyclobut-2-en-1-ol
(4) Gay Lussac’s law
(3) 4-Methyl cyclobut-1-en-2-ol

(4) 2-Methyl cyclobut-3-en-1-ol

80. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous
77. Tartaric acid is a food additive HCl to give calcium chloride, water and
synthesised using carbon dioxide. What mass of calcium
carbonate is required to react
(1) Lactic acid completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl?

(2) Hydrogen peroxide (1) 0.68 g

(3) Carbon Monoxide (2) 1.23 g

(4) Hydrogen cyanide (3) 0.45 g

(4) 0.94 g
78. For an isolated system, ΔU = 0, then

(1) ΔS > 0 81. Which of the following acts as a

protective colloid?
(2) ΔS < 0
(1) Congo red sol
(3) ΔS = 0
(2) Haemoglobin
(4) ΔS depends on temperature
(3) Humus

(4) Clay
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(NORTH-EAST)

82. The distance between barycentre and 85. A drop of solution of volume 0.05 mL
the eg level is highest in the case of: contains 3 × 10-6 mole of H+. If the rate
constant of disappearance of H+ is
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ 1 × 107 mol litre-1 sec-1, how long will
(2) [CoBr6]3- it take for H+ in drop to disappear?
(3) [Co(OH)6]3-
(4) [Co(CN)6]3- (1) 6 × 10-8 sec
(2) 6 × 10-7 sec
83. Butanoic acid is treated with chlorine in (3) 6 × 10-9 sec
presence of red phosphorous to give a (4) 6 × 10-10 sec
product A, which on treatment with
sodalime and further treatment with 86. Choose the correct answer
AgCN gave the product C. When C is
reduced using Ni/H2, we get a product (1) XeO3 is a colourless non-reactive
that: solid and has a pyramidal structure

(1) gives positive carbylamine test (2) Hydrolysis of XeF6 leads to the
formation of hydrofluoric acid and
(2) reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to oxygen
give a product soluble in alkali
(3) Krypton is the most abundant noble
(3) gives alcohol on treatment with gas in the atmosphere
sodium nitrite and HCl
(4) XeF6 has a perfect octahedral
(4) cannot be prepared by Gabriel structure in the gas phase
pthalimide synthesis
87. The sum of principal quantum number
84. The drug Benadryl is a well-known and azimuthal quantum number for the
antihistaminic drug that contains: last electron in the monovalent ion of
copper is:
(1) Primary amino group
(1) 6
(2) Tertiary amino group
(2) 5
(3) Secondary amino group
(3) 4
(4) Primary amide group
(4) 3
 18

(NORTH-EAST)

88. Functionality of a monomer is: 91. On observation and analysis of the

cross-section of the part of a plant, a
(1) Maximum number of monomers student noticed that the cells outer to
possible in a polymer the pericycle contained starch granules.
Choose the correct answer, based on
(2) Amount of cross linking possible this information:
by a monomer
(1) The specimen with the student is
(3) Number of active sites in a root of petunia
monomer
(2) The leaves of the plant have
(4) Number of substituents in a parallel venation
monomer
(3) The stem of the plant contains
89. Select the incorrect answer sclerenchymatous hypodermis

(1) Glucose forms a cyclic hemiacetal
structure
(2) Glucose is an aldohexose also
called dextrose
92. Which of the following experiment
(3) Proteins like insulin and myosin
are soluble in water
(4) Uracil contains only four carbon
atoms
(4) The lower surface of the leaf of the
plant contains more stomata as
compared to the upper surface
occurred during the same year as the
discovery of the double helix structure
of DNA by Watson and Crick?
(1) Hershey-Chase experiment

90. At a certain temperature and pressure (2) Miller’s experiment on origin of life
of 1 bar, iodine vapour contains 40% by
volume of I atoms (3) Griffith’s experiment with
I2 (g) ⇌ 2I (g) pneumonia bacteria
Kp of this reaction is:
(4) Taylor’s experiment with Vicia faba
(1) 1.62 × 104
(2) 6.23 × 104
(3) 1.52 × 104
(4) 2.67 × 104
 19

(NORTH-EAST)

93. Analysis of a plant showed that the 96. Black rot of crucifers is caused by
process of xylem differentiation was not organisms belonging to the kingdom X.
being properly executed. The soil might Which of the following hybrid varieties
be deficient in: of crops is also resistant to diseases
caused by organisms belonging to
(1) B kingdom X?
(2) Cu
(3) Mn
(4) Zn (1) Pusa Gaurav

94. How many of the following organisms (2) Pusa sadabahar

release oxygen to the atmosphere?
(3) Parbhani kranti
Trypanosoma, Entamoeba, Gonyaulax,
desmids, slime moulds, Euglena, (4) Pusa komal
Paramoecium, Alternaria, Dictyota,
Adiantum, Pinus, Nostoc
97. The population of a country initially
(1) 7 was 30 million. Its population after
(2) 6 2 years grew to 60 million. The intrinsic
(3) 5 rate of natural increase for this
(4) 8 population, considering exponential
growth is:
95. A particular filamentous alga has (ln 2 = 0.693)
biflagellate zoospores. Then:

(1) The alga is Laminaria and it (1) 0.693

contains starch
(2) 0.45175
(2) The alga is Dictyota and it contains
chlorophyll c (3) 0.17325

(3) The alga is Chara and it contains (4) 0.3465

chlorophyll b

(4) The alga is Ectocarpus and it

contains algin in its cell wall
 20

(NORTH-EAST)

98. A particular plant has alternate
phyllotaxy, superior ovary and
syncarpous flowers with parietal
placentation. It also contains variation
in the length of filaments of the stamen
within a flower. The floral formula of
the flower is:
100. A patient complains about muscular
pain, fever, anaemia and diagnosis
reveals the blockage of intestinal
passage and internal bleeding. The drug
which would help him the most would
be:
(1) Anti-helminthic drugs

(1) (2) Anti-bacterial drugs

(3) Anti-protozoal drugs

(2)
(4) Anti-fungal drugs
(3)
101. Choose the correct answer:

(4) (1) Inheritance of a character is

affected by promoter and terminator
99. Select the correct answer
sequences of a transcription unit
(1) Identification of organisms
(2) Structural genes and regulatory
require intensive laboratory and
genes code for proteins involved in
field studies
functioning of the cell
(2) Wheat belongs to the family
(3) The ribosome consists of structural
Triticum
RNAs and about 30 different
proteins in its inactive state
(3) Higher the category, easier is the
ability to determine the
(4) 18S rRNA is transcribed by RNA
relationship to other taxa at the
polymerase I in eukaryotes
same level

(4) Manuals provide the index to the

plant species found in a particular
area
 21

(NORTH-EAST)

102. More than 15,500 species currently face 105. Closely observing the life cycle of
the threat of extinction, of which: rotifers would reveal that most of them
could reproduce via
(1) > 650 are from India
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) > 725 are from India
(2) Apomixis
(3) > 500 are from India
(3) Internal fertilisation
(4) > 825 are from India
(4) Parthenogenesis

103. Deficiency of zinc might make the 106. Which of the following shapes of
body unable to do: corolla does not exist?

(1) Proteolysis (1) Bell-shaped

(2) Lipolysis (2) Wheel-shaped

(3) Gluconeogenesis (3) Girdle-shaped

(4) Glycogenolysis (4) Funnel-shaped

104. Rahul bought a packaged lemon juice
from a store and inspected its
ingredients. He found that a special type
of acid found in lemons was added
artificially to the fruit juice. This acid
would have been extracted from:
(1) A basidiomycete
(2) Spirilla bacteria
(3) An ascomycete
(4) Vibrio bacteria
107. A person was observing a cell under
division and witnessed the linear
chromosomes getting split in half and
moving to opposite poles. The
observed cell could be a:
(1) Spermatid
(2) Bacteria
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Primary oocyte
 22

(NORTH-EAST)

108. Which of the following plants show 109. Select the correct statement:
heterospory and possess strobili?
(1) Water channels are made up of six
different types of aquaporins

(1) (2) C4 photosynthetic system is

probably one of the strategies for
maximising the availability of water
and minimising O2 loss, so that it
can be used for respiration

(3) Analysis of xylem exudates show

that though some of the nitrogen
travels as organic forms, much of it
is carried in the inorganic form as
(2) ammonia

(4) The girdling experiment shows that

phloem transport takes place in one
direction, i.e., towards the roots.

110. A particular plant is facing deficiency

of the central constituent element of the
ring structure of chlorophyll. How
many of the following enzymes would
(3) be inactive?

Alcohol dehydrogenase, RuBisCO,

Catalase, Nitrate reductase, Pyruvate
dehydrogenase, PEPcase.

(1) 2

(2) 3
(4)
(3) 4

(4) 1
 23

(NORTH-EAST)

111. Bharat stage IV norms have not been 114. Cells of the human pancreas would be
implemented (since April, 2010) in: rich in the cell organelle A while
macrophages of the body would be rich
(1) Surat in cell organelle B. Here, A and B are
respectively,
(2) Bhopal
(1) SER and lysosomes
(3) Sholapur
(2) RER and Mitochondria
(4) Agra
(3) Golgi bodies and centrioles
112. A scientist wants to remove
nucleotides from the ends of a DNA (4) RER and lysosomes
strand. Which of the following enzymes
should he use? 115. The amendment of the Indian Patents
Bill that takes into account, issues
(1) DNA ligase regarding biopiracy and exploitation of
traditional knowledge is the:
(2) Taq polymerase
(1) Second amendment
(3) Exonuclease
(2) First amendment
(4) Endonuclease
(3) Third amendment
113. The most extensive metabolic diversity
is shown by organisms belonging to (4) Fourth amendment
group X. These organisms occupy
which position in an ecosystem? 116. The simplest compound from which
cholesterol is synthesised in the human
(1) Producers body is:

(2) Primary consumers (1) Glycerol

(3) Secondary consumers
(2) Glycine
(4) Decomposers
(3) Ethanol

(4) Acetic acid

 24

(NORTH-EAST)

117. Number of ATP molecules required to 120. Mental retardation is a common

release 7 molecules of hydrogen gas symptom in the mendelian disorder:
during nitrogen fixation in the roots of
sweet pea is: (1) Down’s syndrome

(1) 0 (2) Turner’s syndrome

(2) 112 (3) Phenylketonuria

(3) 56 (4) Thalassemia

(4) 156 121. The oldest seed is that of a plant X,

excavated from Arctic tundra. The type
of placentation seen in the ovary of this
118. Who proposed that plants change light plant is:
energy to chemical energy by
transferring an electron in an organised (1) Axile
array of pigment molecules and other
substances? (2) Parietal

(1) J A Bassham (3) Marginal

(2) Jan Ingenhousz (4) Free central

(3) Julius Von Sachs 122. Stipulate leaves are found in:

(4) Melvin Calvin (1) Asparagus

119. Protein synthesis does not occur in: (2) Chilli

(1) Cytoplasm (3) Sunhemp

(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria (4) Makoi
(4) Chloroplast
 25

(NORTH-EAST)

123. Two plants A and B are grown in 125. Number of ATP formed in complex V
separate media. Plant A is grown in a of mitochondrial ETS when 124 H+
medium containing water in the form of passes through it will be nearly:
H218O (containing oxygen-18) and plant
B is grown in a medium containing (1) 248
carbon-dioxide in the form C18O2 (2) 124
(containing oxygen-18). What could be (3) 62
found out after a while? (4) 31

(1) Atmosphere around A is filled with 126. The person who initiated the
oxygen-18 molecules ‘Lab-to-Land’ programme was:

(2) Atmosphere around B is filled with (1) Mankombu Sadashivan Swaminathan

oxygen-18 molecules
(2) Norman Borlaug
(3) Atmosphere around both A and B is
filled with oxygen-18 molecules (3) Panchanan Maheshwari

(4) Atmosphere around both A and B (4) Ramdeo Misra

remains unaffected
127. A farmer was having problems with his
124. Select the correct statement: inbred population of livestock as it was
below average in productivity in milk
(1) Heartwood and sapwood make up production. Which method of breeding
the annual rings found in trees would you suggest to this farmer?

(2) Trichomes are secretory (1) Cross-breeding

multicellular epidermal hairs
(2) Interspecific hybridisation
(3) Cortical layers below hypodermis
in dicot stem consist of thick (3) Out-crossing
walled parenchymatous cells with
inconspicuous intercellular spaces (4) Further inbreeding

(4) The cork is impervious to water

due to lignin deposition
 26

(NORTH-EAST)

128. Identify the part A as labelled in the 130. Mohan has the seeds of plant A with
following figure him, while Tara has the seeds of plant B
with her. Both of them took the seeds
and planted them the day after. It was
C
observed that the seeds planted by
D Mohan gave rise to a plant, while the
B seed planted by Tara did not. The plants
A A and B could possibly be:

(1) A = Rice, B = Wheat

(2) A = Pea, B =Tomato

(1) Cotyledon
(3) A = Potato, B = Rice
(2) Shoot apical meristem
(4) A = Wheat, B = Rose
(3) Hypocotyl root axis

(4) Micropyle
131. A phytohormone promotes nutrient
mobilisation and helps to delay leaf
senescence. The person who first
129. The percentage of sap-feeding insects identified this class of phytohormones
out of all insects known is: and the compound from which it is
derived, are respectively:
(1) 35 %
(1) F. W. Went, indole compound
(2) 25 %
(2) F. Skoog, terpene derivative
(3) 15 %
(3) Cousins, Gas
(4) 20 %
(4) Skoog and Miller, adenine derivative
 27

(NORTH-EAST)

132. Choose the correct answer 134. Choose the incorrect match:

(1) A constant input of nutrients is the (1) Ahmed Khan - Polyblend

basic requirement for any
ecosystem to function
(2) A succession proceeds, the
number and types of decomposers
also change
(2) Ramesh Chandra Dagar – Haryana
Kisan Welfare Club
(3) Arcata marsh – ten connected
marshes

(3) The biotic community is static (4) Three Mile Island – Radioactive
and remains in equilibrium as time leakage
passes
135. Statins act as:
(4) Sclerenchyma and other similar
tissues are easily decomposed (1) Competitive inhibitor

133. The recombination frequency for pairs (2) Allosteric inhibitor

of genes A and a, B and b, C and c and
D and d are given. The distance (3) Substrate destroyer
between them in a chromosome are in
the order: (4) Enzyme denaturator
A and a = 4.5 %
B and b = 10.6 % 136. The immediate ancestors of seed ferns
C and c = 5.8 % were:
D and d = 2.4 %
(1) Cycads
(1) A, a < B, b < C, c < D, d
(2) Ferns
(2) B, b < C, c < A, a < D, d
(3) Progymnosperms
(3) D, d < A, a < C, c < B, b
(4) Zosterophyllum
(4) D, d < C, c < A, a < B, b
 28

(NORTH-EAST)

137. Which of the following genes from 140. Decrease in cortisol levels in the body
DNA could code for a complete for long time might lead to:
polypeptide via mRNA?
(1) Suppressed immune response
(1) AUG-GGG-CUC-UAG
(2) Inhibition of cellular uptake of
(2) ATG-GTG-CCC-TAG amino acids

(3) TAC-GTC-GTT-ATT (3) Decreased levels of RBC count

(4) TAC-GTG-GTA-ATA (4) Higher levels of lipolysis in body

138. Removal of spleen of human might 141. Mahesh has caught a cockroach. Which
result in: of the following external features could
help him to identify a female
(1) Increase in blood borne microbes cockroach?

(2) Increase in histamine and serotonin (1) Anal cerci

levels (2) Phallic gland
(3) Tegmina
(3) Inability of T-lymphocytes to (4) Titillator
mature
142. How many of the following animals
(4) Auto-immune diseases have the same type of fertilisation as
Ornithorhynchus?

139. Gill slits are absent in: Balanoglossus, Pristis, Betta,

Bangarus, Aptenodytes, Pleurobrachia,
(1) Saccoglossus Euspongia, Ancylostoma, Hyla, Apis,
Antedon
(2) Branchiostoma
(1) 5
(3) Aurelia
(2) 7
(4) Trygon
(3) 6

(4) 8
 29

(NORTH-EAST)

143. The average speed of blood flow in a
human blood vessel is 5 km/h. What is
the average length of blood vessels in
the human body traversed by the blood
within the time required for each
cardiac cycle?
146. A cell is not able to transfer a K+ ion to
another adjacent cell. Which of the
following cell junctions does not exist
between them?
(1) Tight junctions

(1) 1.61 m (2) Gap junctions

(2) 0.87 m (3) Adhering junctions

(3) 1.12 m (4) None of these

(4) 2.54 m 147. A particular chemical destroys only

elastic cartilage on coming in contact
144. A person was affected with bacterial with it and does not pass into blood.
infection from the food he ate. The When this chemical is inhaled, the body
malfunctioning of which of the part that would be affected is:
following glands could have been
responsible for this condition? (1) Pinna of ear
(2) Trachea
(1) Salivary glands (3) Rib cage
(2) Brunner’s glands (4) Epiglottis
(3) Liver
(4) Pancreas 148. Which of the following contains hair
cells?
145. Removal of which of the following
parts of the body would affect (1) Tectorial membrane
olfaction?
(2) Eustachian tube
(1) Corpus callosum
(3) Reissner’s membrane
(2) Limbic system
(4) Crista ampullaris
(3) Pons

(4) Cerebellum
 30

(NORTH-EAST)

149. Which of the following organs secrete 153. Select the correct answer:
peptide hormones?
(1) Vertebrate hearts are analogous
(1) Adrenal cortex organs
(2) Testis
(3) Adrenal medulla (2) Even before Darwin, an English
(4) Heart naturalist, Lamarck had said that
evolution of lifeforms had occurred
150. Which of the following is not a side but driven by use and disuse of
effect of misuse of anabolic steroids in organs
females?
(3) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 40 feet
(1) Enlargement of clitoris in height and had huge fearsome
(2) Breast enlargement dagger like teeth
(3) Depression
(4) Increased aggressiveness (4) Evolution by natural selection, in a
true sense would have started when
151. Which of the following dinosaurs had cellular lifeforms with differences in
horns on its head? metabolic capability originated on
earth
(1) Triceratops
(2) Stegosaurus 154. Coitus during which of the following
(3) Brachiosaurus events would result in pregnancy?
(4) Tyrannosaurus
(1) Regression of corpus luteum in the
152. Analysis of the blood of an alcoholic body
person did not reveal any presence of
alcohol in his blood. Which of the (2) Development of primary follicle
following organs in his body is most
likely to be malfunctioning? (3) Very high level of LH in the body

(1) Stomach (4) Very high level of progesterone in

(2) Jejunum the body
(3) Pancreas
(4) Oesophagus
 31

(NORTH-EAST)

155. A scientist is studying cortical 158. In order to remove the ruptured

nephrons from a section of the human scapula of a person, the surgeon should
kidney. Which of the following operate exactly between the:
structures can he see near the cortical
portion inside the medullary pyramid? (1) First and fifth ribs

(1) Vasa recta (2) Third and ninth ribs

(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (3) Second and seventh ribs

(3) Distal convoluted tubule (4) Fourth and tenth ribs

(4) Loop of Henle 159. Minimum number of months of

unprotected sexual cohabitation
156. A person with very little protein in his required for a couple who are not able
diet would show low level of: to produce children, so that they are
deemed infertile is:
(1) Glucose in blood
(1) 12
(2) Urea in urine
(2) 2
(3) Lipids in blood
(3) 24
(4) Water in urine
(4) 30
157. Nematocytes are seen in:
160. The abnormal functioning of the pineal
(1) Spongilla gland might not affect:

(2) Aplysia (1) Menstrual cycle

(3) Gorgonia (2) Defence capability

(4) Pleurobrachia (3) Osmotic balance

(4) Metabolism
 32

(NORTH-EAST)

161. Myometrium of a woman’s uterus had 164. The initial filtrate formed inside the
undergone degeneration. Which of the nephron of a human kidney has a
following processes during concentration of 0.7 mM. During dry
reproduction would be most affected? conditions, the maximum concentration
of urine formed could be nearly:
(1) Fertilisation
(1) 1.4 mM
(2) Gestation
(2) 3.5 mM
(3) Implantation
(3) 2.8 mM
(4) Parturition
(4) 2.1 mM
162. Purkinje fibres, if damaged, would not
affect: 165. A person having normal diet has lesser
amount of water and nutrients in his
(1) Cornea blood than usual. The person could be
suffering from:
(2) Brain
(1) Constipation
(3) Kidney
(2) Diarrhoea
(4) Liver
(3) Uremia
163. Which of the following animals have
external ear openings but lack pinna? (4) Diabetes mellitus

(1) Pteropus 166. An animal with ventral and solid

nervous system has:
(2) Chameleon
(1) Dorsal heart, like Balaenoptera
(3) Icthyophis
(2) Ventral heart, like Bufo
(4) Pavo
(3) No post-anal tail, like scorpion

(4) Post-anal tail, like prawn

 33

(NORTH-EAST)

167. Select the odd one out with respect to 170. Which of the following diseases would
cockroach: trigger the release of interferons?

(1) Malpighian corpuscle (1) Cancer

(2) Urecose glands (2) Malaria

(3) Nephrocytes (3) Common cold

(4) Malpighian tubules (4) Diphtheria

168. Pseudocoelomate animals: 171. The ancestors of humans with a brain

size of around 900 cc:
(1) have external fertilisation
(1) was the first human-like being
(2) are monoecious
(2) were discovered in 1891 from
(3) have metameres fossils found in Java

(4) may be parasitic in animals
169. Permanent damage of which of the
following would affect both proteolysis
and lipolysis?
(3) used hides to protect their body
and buried their dead
(4) hunted with stone weapons but
essentially ate fruit

(1) Intestinal villi 172. A scientist is observing a primary

oocyte from a primary follicle of the
(2) Sphincter of Oddi human ovary. He could observe:

(3) Caecum (1) the nucleus just starting to

disintegrate
(4) Brunner’s glands (2) separation of sister chromatids
(3) separation of homologous
chromosomes
(4) chromosomal alignment on
metaphase plate
 34

(NORTH-EAST)

173. ADA deficiency is caused due to:
(1) Deletion in gene for ADA
(2) Point mutation in gene for ADA
176. Analysis of the blood of a person
revealed the presence of excess amount
of Anti-Diuretic Hormone. Which of
the following might be the most
appropriate reason for this abnormality?

(3) Frameshift mutation in gene for (1) Damage to liver

ADA (2) Weakening of heart muscles
(3) Renal calculi
(4) Insertional inactivation of gene (4) Artherosclerosis
for ADA
177. Arrange the following places in the
174. Species richness for reptiles in an area decreasing order of the number of
A is 1200, while the species richness in species of birds found there
an area of magnitude 32 times that of A (i) Amazon
is 2400. The regression coefficient for (ii) Columbia
the given species of reptiles is: (iii) India
(iv) Greenland
(1) 0.1
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) 0.2 (2) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(3) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) 0.4 (4) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(4) 0.5 178. The conditions at the site of tissues

favour the oxygen dissociation curve
175. Which of the following features for haemoglobin:
describe an animal with external
fertilisation showing ovipary and direct (1) to shift towards right
development?
(2) to shift towards left
(1) Scaleless skin and three chambered
heart (3) to not shift in any direction
(2) Ventral mouth and two chambered
heart (4) to shift towards either right or left
(3) Four pairs of gills and presence of air according to the type of tissue
bladder
(4) Ctenoid scales and mouth without
jaws
 35

(NORTH-EAST)

179. The inability of proteins to convert into 180. The type of epithelium with nuclei at
peptones and proteoses could be due to the base forms:
excess secretion of:
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Enterokinase
(2) Fallopian tube
(2) Pepsinogen
(3) Rugae
(3) Secretin
(4) Tendons and ligaments
(4) GIP