Q.paper JEE Main 2019 Mock Test 5

FIITJEE - JEE (Main)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100374.1)
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each question. ¼
(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room /
Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.
Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________
Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________
Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
IT2019JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-(100374.1)-PCM2
P
PAAR
RTT –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semiconductor by doping, on an average, one indium atom
per 5  107 silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon specimen is 5  1028 atom m-3,
then the number acceptor atoms in silicon per cubic centimetre will be
30 -3 35 -3
(A) 2.5  10 atom cm (B) 2.5  10 atom cm
13 -3 15 -3
(C) 1  10 atom cm (D) 1  10 atom cm
2. You are holding a bottle of bubbled water inside a car moving forward. When the driver applies the
bakes
(A) Bubbles in the middle of the liquid will start to move forward with respect to the bottle.
(B) Bubbles will start to move backwards with respect to the bottle.
(C) Bubbles will stay at the same horizontal location in water.
(D) Depending on the speed of the car, bubbles might move forward or backward.
3. A sound wave travelling in a uniform pipe with gas of adiabatic exponent . If u is the particle velocity
dp
at any point in the medium and c is the wave velocity, then relative change in pressure while
P
wave passes through this point is
u u
(A) (B) 
c c
u u2
(C)  (D)
c c 2
4. If 10 gm of ice at 0C is mixed with 10 gm of water at 40C. The final mass of water in mixture is
(Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm, specific heat of water = 1 cal/gmC.
(A) 10 gm (B) 15 gm
(C) 18 gm (D) 20 gm
Space for rough work
5. A number of identical cubical blocks of edges ‘a’ and mass ‘m’ are lying on a horizontal table. The
work done on the blocks, in arranging them in a column of height (n + 1)a on the table is
1 1
(A) ma g n2 (B) ma g(n2 + n)
2 2
1 2 1 2
(C) (n – 2) mag (D) (n + 1) mag
2 2
6. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2 kg is in contact with a rectangular block B

of mass 4 kg and vertical wall as shown in the figure. All surfaces are smooth.
B
Find normal reaction by vertical wall on sphere A
(A) 20 N (B) 25 N A
(C) 80 N (D) 45 N 37
7. The logic circuit shown has input wave forces

A
A and B as shown. Pick the correct waveform
Input A
Input B
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8. The amount of heat liberated in the circuit after

closing the switch S
C C
(A) zero V
cv 2
(B) Switch
2
2
(C) cv V
(D) none of these
9. What is the range of frequency of EM waves that are reflected back by ionosphere ?
(A) 100 to 200 MHz (B) 500 to 1000 MHz
(C) 2 to 10 MHz (D) all range of frequency
10. In the given circuit, the current amplitude is

L R
5V02 V0
(A) (B)
 2 2
4  L R 2
 
4  L  R2
2 2
 ~
5V0 5V0 V 
(C) (D) V  V0 sin t   0  cos t
2 2 2 2 2 2  2 
2  L R 2 R  L
11. The displacement of a particle varies according to the relation x = 3 sin 100 t + 8 cos2 50 t. Which of
the following is incorrect about the motion
(A) The motion of the particle is SHM.
(B) The amplitude of SHM of the particle is 5 units.
(C) The amplitude of the resultant SHM is 73 units
(D) The maximum displacement of the particle from origin is 9 units.
12. Two identical objects A and B (emissivity eA and eB; eA  eB) are placed in an enclosure. Temperature
of body A, B and enclosure are same and constant :
(A) Heat emitted by body A is equal to heat emitted by body B.
(B) Heat absorbed by body A is equal to heat absorbed by body B.
(C) If eA > eB body A absorbs more heat then body B.
(D) If eA < eB body A absorbs more heat then body B.
13. A beam of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of incidence 60 and reflected ligh t is completely
polarised then the refractive index of the plate is
(A) 1.5 (B) 3
4
(C) 2 (D)
3
a3b2
14. A physical quantity P is related to four measurable quantities as P  . If the errors in
c 3 d4.
measurement of a, b, c, d are 0.1%, 0.2%, 0.3%, 0.1% respectively, what is the maximum percentage
error in measurement of P.
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C) 3% (D) 4%
15. The plot of characteristics frequency ‘f’ in case of X – rays of K wavelength, with the atomic number
‘Z’ of an element may be best represented by :-
(A) (B)
f f
Z
Z→
(C) (D)
f f
Z Z
16. All the surfaces & pulleys are frictionless in the shown P
Y
arrangement. Pulleys P and Q are massless. The force
applied by clamp on pulley P is 2m X
mg
(A)
6

 3iˆ  3ˆj  Q m
 300
mg
(B)
6
 3iˆ  3ˆj 
mg
(C) 2
6
(D)none of the above.
17. A thin biconvex lens of focal length 30cm is Kept 90 cm away

from a plane mirror kept parallel to the plane of the lens. A point O F 90cm
object is placed on the optical axis of the lens 60cm away from 30cm 30cm
the lens as shown in the figure. Now, if the point object is slowly Y
moved towards the lens with a small velocity, the image of the
object in the mirror. X
(A) Moves in the + ve x direction (B) Moves in – ve x direction
(C) Does not move (D) Data insufficient
18. A rod of mass M and length  is falling vertically downwards. A particle A
of m is projected with V0 at t = 0 at an angle  with horizontal and it

strikes the rod perpendicularly at P  at t  t1  and comes to rest. The rod O 
P /4
strikes the ground at t  t 2 . The angular velocity of rod about its centre 
V0 B
of mass (O)

(A) keeps on increasing from t1 to t 2 O
(B) keeps on decreasing for t1 to t 2
(C) remains constant and is non – zero for t = t1 to t 2
(D) remains constant and is zero for t  t1 to t 2
19. A solid uniform sphere of mass M and radius R with centre C is isolated R
R
in space. If in the sphere a cavity of radius with centre C1 is made, R/2
2
C 
then the potential at a point P at a distance of 2R from centre C is C1 P
2GM 2GM
(A)   (B)  
5R 5R
2R
2GM
(C)   (D) None of these.
5R
20. A satellite of mass m is orbiting round the earth at a distance of 2R’ from the centre of the earth. The
amount of energy that must be given to the satellite in order to make its radius 6R must be :-
GMem GMem
(A) less than (B) equal to
3R 6R
GMem GMem
(C) greater than (D) less than
4R 4R
21. A person throws a ball (A) vertically upwards with 40 m/sec. After 4 sec, he throws another identical
ball (B) upwards with same speed. If the collision between balls is head-on perfectly elastic, the speed
of ball (A) just after collision is
(A) 0 (B) 10 m/sec
(C) 20 m/sec (D) 40 m/sec
22. Two blocks of mass m each are connected by a massless m m

r1 r2
string while block A is connected to point O by another O
massless string. Both rotate with constant speed  on the A B
horizontal surface with O as centre. If T1 is the tension in

OA and T2 is tension in string AB, then the relation between
T1 & T2 is:-
(A) T1  T2 (B) T1  T2
(C) T1  T2 (D) data insufficient
23. It is observed that only 0.39% of the original radioactive sample remains undecayed after eight hours.
Hence choose the incorrect statement.
(A) The half life of that substance is 1 hr.
(B) The mean life of that substance is 1/ln 2 hr
(C) The decay constant of the substance is ln 2 hr1
(D) The half life of the substance is 1/2 hr
24. A milli ammeter of range 5 mA and resistance 0.5  is joined 0.5 5 mA

in a circuit as shown. Find the value of current for which
meter gives full scale deflection when A & B are used as
0.1 0.2 0.3
Terminal:
(A) 50 mA (B) 5 mA
(C) 100 mA (D) 1 A
S B C D
25. In the circuit shown, the batteries E1 = E2 = 1 V, E3 = 2.5 V and the E1 R1

resistances R1 = 10  , R2 = 20  . The potential difference across
the capacitor is E2 C
(A) 0.2 V (B) 0.4 V
(C) 0.5 V (D) 1.2 V R2
E3
26. When a charge particle of charge 2  c and mass 1 gm is released at origin in gravity free space
 
having E  E0 ˆj and B  B0 ˆj (E0 = 103 N/c and B0 = 5T). Then its speed
(A) depends only of X co-ordinate (B) depends only on Y co-ordinate
(C) depends only on z co-ordinate (D) depends only on X, Y, Z co-ordinate
27. An equilateral triangular loop having a resistance R and length of each side ‘’ is x x x x
x x x x x x
dB x x x x x x
placed in a magnetic field which is varying at = 1 T/s. The induced current x x x x x x
dt
x x x x x x
in the loop will be x x x
3 2 4 2
(A) (B)
4 R 3 R
3 R 4 R
(C) (D)
4 2 3 
2
28. Magnetic force on a spiral carrying current I0 and placed in magnetic r2

I0
field B0 parallel to the plane of spiral as shown in diagram, will be
nearly (initial point, final point and centre lie on a line) B0
r1
(A) Zero (B) I0B0  r2  r1 
I0B0 r2
(C) I0B0  r2  r1  (D)
r1
29. A boat crosses a 2.4km wide river to reach the a point A on the B A
opposite bank, located at 37° with the flow, in 500s. The same
boat takes the same time (500s) to reach another point B on
the opposite bank located at 53° with the flow. Where should
a landing point be chosen on the other bank so that the boat 53° 37°
can cross in the minimum possible time? 0
(A) 1.2 km downstream from O (B) 2.4 km downstream from O
(C) 3.6 km downstream from O (D) 7.2 km downstream from O
30. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism as shown in the figure. Liquid
A liquid of refractive index  is placed on face AC of the prism. The A C
60º 30º
prism is made of glass of refractive index 3/2. The limits of  for which
total internal reflection takes place on face AC is
90º
3 3 3
(A)   (B)   B
2 4
3
(C)   3 (D)  
2
P
PAAR
RTT –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. What is the predominant intermolecular force of attraction between the adjacent chains of polymer
molecules in natural rubber ?
(A) H-bonds (B) dipole-dipole attraction
(C) van der Waal’s force (D) ionic attraction
–1
2. At what partial pressure, oxygen will have solubility of 0.04 g L in water at 293 K ? Henry’s constant
(KH) for O2 in water at 293 K is 25.0 kbar. Assume that density of the solution to be same as that of
the solvent.
(A) 0.56 bar (B) 0.61 bar
(C) 1.19 bar (D) 0.85 bar
3. In the dichromate dianion.

(A) 4 Cr–O bonds are equivalent (B) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(C) All Cr–O bonds are equivalent (D) All Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent
4. The product that should be formed in the reaction are

(i) H , Lindlar ' s catalyst
CH3 – C  C – CH3 
2
(ii) Br , CCl

2 4
H Br H Br H CH3 H H
H3C H3C Br Br
CH3 CH3 Br Br
C C C C
Br H H Br H3C H H3C H
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I and III in equal amount (B) II and IV in equal amount
(C) All four in unequal amount (D) II and III in equal amount
5. Which of the following compounds reacts rapidly with Br2/FeBr3 ?

(A) Benzene (B) Anisole
(C) Acetophenone (D) Nitrobenzene
6. Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms ?

I. [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3], II. K3[Fe(C2O4)3], III. [CoCl2(en)2]+, IV. [CoBrCl(Ox)2]3–
(A) I only (B) I and II
(C) III and IV (D) All of these
7. 

For elementary gaseous phase reaction 2NO  O2 
 2NO2 at 27C
Rate of the forward reaction is given by 2  103 [NO]2 [O2] and Rate of reverse reaction at 27°C is
given by rate = 20[NO2]2
Hence equilibrium constant for reaction is
1

NO2   NO  O2 at 27C
2
(A) 100 (B) 0.01
(C) 0.1 (D) 10
8. Ag2S  NaCN  Zn  Ag

This method of extraction of Ag by complex formation and then its displacement is called :
(A) Parke’s method (B) Mac Arthur-Forest method
(C) Serpek method (D) Hall’s method
9. ZnO shows yellow colour on heating due to

(A) d–d transition (B) C–T spectra
2+
(C) Higher polarization caused by Zn ion (D) F–centres
CH3
NBS/CCl /Heat
Mg/Ether (i) CO
10. 
4
   
2
 
(ii) H3 O
C(CH3)3
CH3 CH3
HO 2C
(A) (B)
C(CH3)3 C(CH3)3
CH3
CH2COOH
(C) (D)
H3C C CH3
C(CH3)3
CH2CO 2H
11. At 27°C if temperature of 1 mol of gas is increased by 77°C the % change in kinetic energy of system
is
(A) 16.67 (B) 18.57
(C) 85.18 (D) 7.66
12. What will be the end product in the following reaction ?

SOCl2 KCN SnCl2  HCl
OH     
OH O
(A) (B)
O
O OH
(C) (D)
H O
13. 0.002 molar solution of NaCl having degree of dissociation of 90% at 27°C has osmotic pressure
equal to
(A) 0.94 bar (B) 9.4 bar
(C) 0.094 bar (D) 9.4  10–4 bar
14. Mg crystallizes in hcp. Calculate total number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in 12 milligrams of
Mg (NA = 6  1023)
20 20
(A) 4  10 (B) 7  10
20
(C) 8  10 (D) 9  1020
15. A substance has a normal boiling point of 400K. Which of the following options contains correct set of
thermodynamic parameters for the reaction :
A(  ) (1 atm, 400K)  A(g) (1 atm, 400K)
(A) q  0, G  0, W  0 (B) H  0, G  0, S  0
(C) G  0, H  0, S  0 (D) G  0, H  0, S  0
16. Which of the following is not a disaccharide ?

(A) Sucrose (B) Mannose
(C) Lactose (D) Maltose
17. The hybridization of the central atom will change when

(A) NH3 combines with H+ (B) H3BO3 combines with OH–
–
(C) NH3 forms NH2 (D) H2O combines with H+
18. Certain amount of an ideal gas confined in a 4 L piston at 20K is allowed to expand adiabatically and
reversibly to 25 L. If the ratio of heat capacities (molar heat capacity at constant pressure to molar
heat capacity at constant vol.) is 1.5, the final temperature in kelvin unit of the gas would be
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
19. Benzoic acid and carbolic acid can be distinguished by

(A) Aqueous NaHCO3 (B) 2, 4-DNP test
(C) Aqueous NaOH (D) Aqueous NH3
20. The species having diamagnetic nature and bond order 1.0 is
(A) O22 (B) O 2
(C) O22 (D) O 2
21. A 10 ml 0.5 M HCl solution is neutralized by adding 0.25 M NH3(aq) solution. Determine the pH of
–5
solution at the end point at 25°C. At 25°C, Kb of NH3 is 2  10 .
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
64
22. A gaseous mixture (He and CH4) has density gm/litre at 1 atm & 300 K is kept in a container.
246.3
Now a pinhole is made on the wall of the container through which He(g) and CH4(g) effuses. What will
be the composition of the gas mixture [nHe : nCH4 ] effusing out initially ?
[Take R = 0.0821 atm litre K–1 mol–1]
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 8 : 1
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 16 : 1
2 –1
23. Molar conductivity of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of MgCl2 is 195 S cm mol at 27°C. A cell with
electrodes that are 1.5 cm2 in surface area and 0.5 cm apart is filled with 0.05 M MgCl2 solution. How
much current will flow when a potential difference across the electrodes is 5.00 V.
(A) 0.15 A (B) 0.3 A
(C) 0.45 A (D) 0.60 A
24. Mg2C3 reacts with water forming propyne. C34  has

(A) two sigma and two pi bonds (B) three sigma and open pi bonds
(C) two sigma and one pi bonds (D) two sigma and three pi bonds
25. The decreasing order of basic characters of the following

NH2
NH2
N N NH
H
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) III > IV > I > II (B) II > I > IV > III
(C) IV > III > II > I (D) III > I > IV > II
26. Calculate Sosys for the following reaction at 400 K :

CO(g)  H2O(g)  CO2 (g)  H2 (g) Ho  4.0  10 4 J, Suniv
o
 56 J / K
(A) – 44 J/K (B) – 166 J/K
(C) + 44 J/K (D) + 166 J/K
27. Which of the following is arranged in the correct order of increasing thermal stability ?
(A) MgCO3 < BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 (B) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(C) CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BaCO3 < SrCO3 (D) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3
28. An electron beam can undergo diffraction by crystals which proves the wave nature of electrons. The
potential required for a beam of electrons to be accelerated so that its wavelength becomes equal to
0.154 nm is
(A) 63.5 V (B) 31.75 v
(C) 635 V (D) 127 V
29. Which compound have maximum dipole moment ?

O O
(A) (B)
O O
(C) (D)
NH3Cl NO 2
30. Cl
and can be differentiated by :
(A) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (B) Fehling solution

(C) FeCl3 (D) Br2/H2O
P
PAAR
RTT –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only ONE option is correct
 4 
1. The domain of the function f(x) = sin1   is
 3  2cos x 
  
(A) 2n   x  2n  , n  I (B) 0  x  2n  , n  I
3 3 3
  
(C) 2n   x  2n  , n  I (D) 2n   x  0 , n  I
3 3 3
log  3  x   log  3  x 
2. If lim  k , the value of k is
x 0 x
1
(A) 0 (B) 
3
2 2
(C) (D) 
3 3
3. If lim
x 
 
x 2  x  1  ax  b  0 , then the values of a and b are given by
1 1
(A) a = –1, b = (B) a = 1, b =
2 2
1
(C) a = 1, b =  (D) none of these
2
4. The equation of the normal to the curve y = 1 – 2x/2 at the point of intersection with the y-axis is
(A) 2y – x log 2 = 0 (B) 2y + x = 0
(C) 2y + x log 2 = 0 (D) 2x – y log 2 = 0
 1  1
tan  log 
x x
f  x
5. If f(x) = lim e
x 
and  3 sin11 x cos x dx = g(x) + c (c being constant of integration) then
  3
(A) g    (B) g(x) is continuous for all x  R
4 2
  15   1
(C) g     (D) g   
4
  8 4 2
2
2
6.  [x ] dx , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function), is equal to
0
(A) 2  2 (B) 2  2
(C) 2  1 (D) 2  2
7. The area bounded by the curves y = ln x, y = ln |x|, y = |ln x| and y = |ln |x|| is
(A) 5 sq. units (B) 4 sq. units
(C) 2 sq. units (D) 7/2 sq. units
8. The general solution of the differential equation x2 dy + y(x + y) dx = 0 is

(A) x2 = cy(y + 2x) (B) xy = c(y + 2x)
2
(C) x y = c(y + 2x) (D) none of these
n 2 3
9. The coefficient of x in the expansion of (1  2x + 3x  4x +  to )n is
(2n)! (2n)!
(A) (B)
n! (n  1)! [(n  1)!]2
(2n)!
(C) (D) none of these
(n!)2
10. Number of non-negative integral solutions to the system of equations x + y + z + u + t = 20 and
x + y + z = 5 is
(A) 340 (B) 335
(C) 336 (D) 337
11. The locus of z which satisfies the inequality log0.3 z  1  log0.3 z  i is given by
(A) x  y  0 (B) x  y  0
(C) x  y  0 (D) x  y  0
12. If the product of the roots of the equation x 2  5kx  2e 4ln k  1  0 is 31, then the sum of the roots is
(A) –10 (B) 8
(C) –8 (D) 10
13. The minimum number of terms of the series 1 + 3 + 9 + 27 + … so that the sum may exceed 1000 is
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) none of these
a2 b2 c2
2
14. If a, b, c are sides of a triangle and  a  1 b  12  c  12 = 0, then
2
 a  1 b  12  c  12
(A) ABC is an equilateral triangle (B) ABC is a right angled isosceles triangle
(C) ABC is an isosceles triangle (D) none of these
15. The minimum number of zero elements in an upper triangular matrix of order n  n is
n  n  1 n  n  1
(A) (B)
2 2
2 2
n 1 n 1
(C) (D)
2 2
16. Five coins whose faces are marked 2, 3 are thrown. The probability of obtaining a total of 12 is
5 11
(A) (B)
32 16
5 5
(C) (D)
16 8
17. If the circumcentre of a triangle lies at the origin and the centroid is the middle point of the line joining
the points (a2 + 1, a2 + 1) and (2a, 2a); then the orthocentre lies on the line
(A) y = (a2 + 1)x (B) y = 2ax
2 2
(C) x + y = 0 (D) (a  1)2x  (a + 1)2y = 0
18. Angle between the tangents drawn to x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 1 = 0 at the points where it is cut by the line

y = 2x + c is . Then
2
(A) |c| = 5 (B) |c| = 2 5
(C) |c| = 10 (D) |c| = 2 10
19. The equation of the common tangents touching the circle (x  3)2 + y2 = 9 and the parabola y2 = 4x
above the x-axis is
(A) 3y  3x  1 (B) 3y   (x  3)
(C) 3y  x  3 (D) 3y   (3x  1)
x2 y2
20. A variable tangent of the ellipse   1 meets the coordinate axis at the points A and B.
a2 b2
Minimum area of the circumcircle of the triangle OAB, ’O’ being the centre of the ellipse, is

(A) (a  b)2 (B) (a2 + b2)
4
 2 2  2
(C) (a + b ) (D) (a + b)
4 4
2
21. Equation of common tangent to the curves y = 8x and xy = 1 is
(A) y = x + 3 (B) y = x + 2
(C) y + x = 3 (D) none of these
1  2   2
22. If cos1 = 2 cos2, then tan .tan 1 is equal to
2 2
1 1
(A) (B) –
3 3
(C) 1 (D) –1
23. The number of solutions for  of the equation sin 3 = 4 sin  sin( + ) sin( – ), (0 < ,  < ) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
n
2m
24.  tan1 m4  m2  2 is equal to
m 1
–1 2 –1 2
(A) tan (n + n +1) (B) tan (n – n + 1)
n2  n
(C) tan1 2 (D) none of these
n n2
2
25. In a triangle with one angle , the lengths of the sides form an A.P. If the length of the greatest side
3
is 7 cm, the radius of the circumcircle of the triangle is
7 3 5 3
(A) cm (B) cm
3 3
2 3
(C) cm (D) 3 cm
3
      
26. If (a  b)  c  a  (b  c) and b  0, then
    
(A) (a  b)  c  0 (B) a and b are collinear
 
(C) a and c are collinear (D) none of these
27. The equation of acute angled bisector planes between x + 2y + 2z = 9 and 4x  3y + 12z + 13 = 0 is
(A) 25x + 17y + 62z  78 = 0 (B) x + 35y  10z  156 = 0
(C) 25x  17y + 62z  78 = 0 (D) x  35y + 10z + 156 = 0
28. AB is a vertical pole. The end A is on the level ground and C is the middle point of AB. P is a point on
the level ground and the portion BC subtends on angle  at P. If AP = nAB, then tan is equal to
n n
(A) 2
(B) 2
2n  1 n 1
n
n 1
29. The mean deviation from the mean of A.P. p, p + d, p + 2d, …, p + 2nd is
n  n  1
(A) n(n + 1)d (B) d
2n  1
n  n  1 d n  n  1 d
(C) (D)
2n 2n  1
30. The statement (p  q)  ~p is a

(A) tautology (B) contradiction
(C) neither tautology nor contradiction (D) none of these

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FIITJEE - JEE (Main)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

Space for rough work

6. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2 kg is in contact with a rectangular block B

7. The logic circuit shown has input wave forces

8. The amount of heat liberated in the circuit after

Space for rough work

10. In the given circuit, the current amplitude is

Space for rough work

17. A thin biconvex lens of focal length 30cm is Kept 90 cm away

18. A rod of mass M and length  is falling vertically downwards. A particle A

of m is projected with V0 at t = 0 at an angle  with horizontal and it

Space for rough work

22. Two blocks of mass m each are connected by a massless m m

horizontal surface with O as centre. If T1 is the tension in

Space for rough work

24. A milli ammeter of range 5 mA and resistance 0.5  is joined 0.5 5 mA

25. In the circuit shown, the batteries E1 = E2 = 1 V, E3 = 2.5 V and the E1 R1

Space for rough work

28. Magnetic force on a spiral carrying current I0 and placed in magnetic r2

Space for rough work

3. In the dichromate dianion.

4. The product that should be formed in the reaction are

5. Which of the following compounds reacts rapidly with Br2/FeBr3 ?

6. Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms ?

Space for rough work

8. Ag2S  NaCN  Zn  Ag

9. ZnO shows yellow colour on heating due to

Space for rough work

12. What will be the end product in the following reaction ?

16. Which of the following is not a disaccharide ?

17. The hybridization of the central atom will change when

Space for rough work

19. Benzoic acid and carbolic acid can be distinguished by

24. Mg2C3 reacts with water forming propyne. C34  has

25. The decreasing order of basic characters of the following

Space for rough work

26. Calculate Sosys for the following reaction at 400 K :

29. Which compound have maximum dipole moment ?

(A) Ammoniacal AgNO3 (B) Fehling solution

Space for rough work

Straight Objective Type

Space for rough work

8. The general solution of the differential equation x2 dy + y(x + y) dx = 0 is

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

30. The statement (p  q)  ~p is a

Space for rough work

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Batch : Date of Examination :