Mock Clat 02

CP/16/C02
MOCK CLAT -2
SECTION 1: ENGLISH
Directions (1-5):Read the given statements and arrange them into coherent paragraphs:
1. A. The courts so established will be court of both fact and law exercising all powers of
civil courts in its original jurisdiction.
B. They will also have appellate jurisdictional powers against the orders passed by
concerned authorities under the Water Act, Air Act and Environment Protection Act
C. The government is endeavouring to establish ‗Environmental Courts‘ in each state
to reduce the burden of National Green Tribunal, the HC‘s and the SC.
D. With enabling provision that the central government may notify these courts as
appellate courts under other environment related Acts as well.
A. ABCD B. CBDA C. ABDC D.CABD
2. A. I deeply regret the rise of such miscreant‘s activities in Bengal.
B. The government should respond with strict measures.
C. But I am very sorry with the state of affairs which are perpetrated through
the investigating agencies.
D. Through investigating agencies, the government is trying to pressurize and prosecute
the minorities which are educationally, socially and financially very backward in state
of Bengal.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CDAB D. DABC
3. A. We have never encountered an act of terror because of our vigilant police force and other
investigating authorities whose paramount duty is the protection of people of Bengal.
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B. The government at the centre is playing a wild political card to stir up feelings of
communalism, thereby trying to dethrone the present government in the state.
C. Furthermore, we believe that this is a scathing attack and encroachment on the very principle
of federalism, by deploying central forces in matters of the state, which the state is very capable
of dealing with independently.
D. The people of West Bengal have so far been extremely peace loving and has always defused
into and respected each other‘s cultures and priorities.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. DABC D. CDAB
4. A. All reports relating to children are to be treated as confidential.
B. The proposed Bill also prohibits the media from disclosing the identity of children or
propagating any such information which would lead to identifying them.
C. The draft Bill therefore provides a comprehensive mechanism to deal with children in conflict
with law as well as children who are in need of care and protection.
D. Corporal punishment and ragging, cruelty to children, employment of children for begging,
adoption without proper procedure, and sale or procurement of children for any purpose are all
acts that are punishable under the draft Bill.
A. ABCD B.BCDA C. DABC D. BADC
5. A. Brutal assault and rape incidence of 16th December 2012 in Delhi
B. And behavioural patterns that till such an age the children in conflict with law could still be
redeemed and restored to mainstream society, instead of becoming hardened criminals in future.
C. In which one of the accused was alleged to be juvenile raised a fresh debate on reducing the
age of juvenile in India.
D. The age of eighteen has been fixed on account of the understanding of experts in child
psychology.
A. ABCD B. ACDB C. ADBC D. ACBD

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Directions (6-10): From the given sentence, Select the incorrect part and mark the
appropriate option as your answer.
6. It was a journey of memories [A] / for our journalists as glimpses of the momentous events
[B] / that kept changing the course of contemporary history. [C]. / No error. [D]
7. The murder of the helmswoman [A] / could not have been [B] / more coldblooded or grisly.
[C] / No error. [D]
8. Direct front attacks [A] / must have been conceived [B] / and planned but, perhaps, found
impracticable. [C] / No error. [D]
9. It was submitted that the age of responsibility, [A] / as accepted in India, is different from [B] /
what has been accepted by other countries of the world. [C] / No error [D]
10. It was, therefore, urged that even under the Indian Criminal Jurisprudence [A] / the age of
understanding has been fixed at twelve years, which according to him, [B] / were commensurate
with the thinking of other countries, such as the United States of America, Great Britain and
Canada. [C] / No error [D]
Directions(11-13): Identify the meanings of the given foreign words:
11. Audi alteram partem
A)to hear the other side B) Worst year
C) high society D) noble deed
12. Carte blanche
A) written will B) complete freedom
C) curtailed freedom D) Cheque
13. Autrefois acquit
A) particular affection B) formerly acquited
C) best friend D) up to date
Directions(14-18): Identify the antonyms of the given words:

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14. comfort
a) unease b) benign c) discomfort d) defense
15. failure
a) success b) distress c) exit d) loss
16. happiness
a) misery b) coward c) shame d) eccentric
17. hope
a) tail b) despair c) deny d) bliss
18. interest
a) frugal b) deceit c) ebb d) indifference
Directions (19-23): Identify the meaning of the given words:
19. Invigorating A. tiring B. dodgy C. vitalising D. vaporising
20. Scintillating A. intelligent B. sharp C. naïve D. shining
21. Obnoxious A. ugly B. abhorrent C. miser D. discourteous
22. Disdain A. guide B. polite C. derision D. conserve
23. Bedlam A. medium B. mayhem C. morgue D. modest
Directions(24-33): In the given passage, some words are missing. Fill in the blanks with the
most appropriate choice:
Sepp Blatter won the FIFA presidency __24__ a fifth time Friday after his __25__ Prince Ali bin
al Hussein __26__ just before a scheduled second round. The veteran Swiss powerbroker fell
seven votes __27__ of the __28__ 140 majority in the first round of voting. Just __29__ the
second round was about to start the Jordanian prince, who had __30__ on a need for __31__,
withdrew thanking __32__ ‗brave enough‘ to vote __33__ him.
24. A. from B. for C. on D. to

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25. A. rival B. competitor C. challenger D. enemy
26. A. backed B. backed out C. withdrew D. passed
27. A. less B. more C. short D. over
28. A. desired B. required C. acquired D. vital
29. A. after B. before C. over D. between
30. A. promoted B. campaigned C. crusaded D. operated
31. A. betterment B. change C. revolution D. reform
32. A. who B. who were C. whom D. those
33. A. from B. with C. for D. by
Directions (34- 40): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
These days, it is common to see every other marriage breaking apart in Indian society, just a few
years after the grand wedding day. I am not pained by the fact that the marriages are breaking up.
It is better that a marriage be dissolved, if two incompatible people have to suffer each other
throughout their life time or if there is some kind of abuse involved.
But what sadden me are those cases, where married life is ruined by the interference from the
man's parents. This happens typically in a joint family system, where the son and his wife are
expected to stay with the parents. The urge to stay with the married son, stems from a strong
possessive feeling on the part of the mother. Slowly, the tentacles of possessiveness start
spreading around in every aspect of the adult son's life, throttling the daughter-in-law. The girl
starts gasping for breath and is forced to look at her choices. If nothing works out, she finally
opts for peace of mind — by walking out of the marriage.
Why is it that the mothers of adult sons find it difficult to let go of the attachment, which blinds
their eyes and makes them do despicable things? If she wants to ensure that no emotional
intimacy develops between the son and his wife, why get the son married in the first place? Why
does she fail to think of the bride as a young, sensitive person full of her own dreams and ideas
about her married life? Why is it that the in-laws cannot trust their son to remember his duties

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towards them, even if he got married? Is it the lack of faith in their own upbringing that makes
them insecure?
I am not even talking about the infirm elders, who have to stay with children. I am talking about
financially well-off people, who are healthy in mind and body and quite capable of staying by
themselves. What is the need to micromanage the son and his wife's lives, staying closely?
Shifting our attention to the daughter-in-law, the bride is no longer the really young bride of 14
years, who steps into a new house and absorbs the traditions of that house. Circumstances have
changed now and mostly the girl first steps out of her house to live in a hostel for a college
education. Then follow higher education and job. By the time the urban woman is ready for
marriage, she is well into her mid-twenties, established her career, knowledgeable about the
outside world and financially quite independent. So what does such a woman look for in a
marriage? She looks for love, companionship, respect and understanding from her spouse.
If every day is a struggle, wherein the husband's behaviour is dictated by the parents-in-law, if
her life is not panning out as she dreamed and if every aspect of her adult life is constantly
monitored and supervised by other people, what happiness does she get? What is wrong if she
wants to move out with her husband so that she gets the much needed personal space? Why is
she called a family breaker when she has every right to a happy life and the choice to live the life
she wants? How can a woman who is so smart and independent in her professional life manage
the contradictions in her personal life?
What about the son who is the common binding factor for both the parties involved? The typical
reactions are usually one of these — a) the son is emotionally torn between his wife and mother
and incapable of arriving at a decision; b) he is so completely brainwashed by his parents, that he
starts believing that his wife is really evil, for wanting to go away and spend her life with him
and not with his parents; c) the son breaks off with his parents on a really bad note and goes out
with his wife.
Would it not be easier for everyone, if the son's parents gracefully allowed the son and his wife
to move out, if that is what they desired? The breathing space certainly ensures a healthy and
happy relation among all the people involved, for a lifetime.
34 Which of the following saddens the author?

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A. Breaking up of relationships
B. Breaking up of long lasting marriages
C. Breaking up of marriages due to family interference
D. Breaking up of his own marriage
35. What is the doubt in the mind of the author regarding the real reason being behind the parents
getting insecure?
A. Over interference B. Over sensitiveness
C. Lack of trust D. Lack of faith in their upbringing
36. What is the meaning of ‗infirm elders‘?
A. Poor B. Sick
C. Dependent D. All of the above
37. Which of the following is used in the passage constantly?
A. sarcasm B. irony
C. rhetoric D. cynicism
38. Which of the characteristic is prevalent throughout the passage?
A. Socialism B. Communism
C. Feminism D. Euphemism
39. Which of the following circumstances of modernisation have been referred in the passage?
A. Education of girls B. Independence of females
C. Financial stability of girls D. All of the above
40. What is the source of the given passage?
A. An advertisement B. A research work

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C. A social experiment D. An article
SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41. Asteroids are found between the planets

A. Mars and Jupiter B. Mercury and Venus
C. Earth and Venus D. Jupiter and Saturn
42. Reserve Bank of India on 13 August 2015 notified the Union Budget-2015-16 Interest
Subvention Scheme (ISS) and asked all banks to provide interest concession of 2 percent on
short term crop loans of up to ________ rupees.
A. 1 lakh B. 3 lakh
C. 6 lakh D. 11 lakh
43. The Bihu dance is originated from which state of India?

A. Andaman and Nicobar B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Assam D. Chhattisgarh
44. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and
westernmost State?
A. Assam and Rajasthan B. Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

C. Assam and Gujarat D. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
45. The American Declaration of Independence was signed by

A. Thomas Carlyle B. George Washington
C. Thomas Jefferson D. Abraham Lincoln

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46. Who won French Open Women's title 2015?

A. Serena Williams B. Lucie Safarova
C. Maria Sharapova D. Venus Williams
47. The southernmost point of India‘s territory is

A. The Indira Point B. Kanyakumari
C. Pondicherry D. Lakshadweep
48. The book ''Uniki'' written by ________.

A. Ram Naresh Yadav B. Ram Naik
C. Keshari Nath Tripathi D. C. Vidyasagar Rao
49. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation
that supports a rich biodiversity?
A. Bhitarkanika National Park B. Keibul Lamjao National Park

C. Keoladeo Ghana National Park D. Sultanpur National Park
50. Who among the following was the first woman to preside over the Indian National
Congress?
A. Mrs. Indira Gandhi B. Mrs. Annie Bessant
C. Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani D. Sarojini Nadu
51. The inhabitants of which of the following geographical regions live in trees due to the fear
of insects?
A. Equatorial region B. Mediterranean region
C. Arctic region D. None of these

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52. On whom Bangladesh confers Award of Liberation War Honour?

A. Manmohan Singh B. Narendra Modi
C. Arun Jaitley D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
53. Which one of the following issues the ‗Global Economic Prospects‘ report periodically?
A. The Asian Development Bank

B. The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
C. The US Federal Reserve Bank
D. The World Bank
54. The founder of the Yoga school of philosophy was

A. Adiguru Shankracharya B. Gemini
C. Charvaka D. Patanjli
55. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
A. Saltwater crocodile B. Olive ridley turtle

C. Gangetic dolphin D. Gharial
56. The International Date Line is an imaginary line, which lies along
A. 0 degree meridian B. 45 degree meridian
C. 90 degree meridian D. 180 degree meridian
57. Who selected as President of ICC?

A. Haroon Lorgat B. N. Srinivasan

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C. Sharad Pawar D. Zaheer Abbas
58. Which of the following brings out the ‗Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial
Workers?
A. The Reserve Bank of India B. The Department of Economic Affairs

C. The Labour Bureau D. The Department of Personnel and Training
59. India is separated from Sri Lanka by

A. Mc Mahon line B. LoC
C. Maginot line D. Palk Strait
60. The atmospheric layer responsible for most of the weather phenomena is referred to as the
A. Mesophere B. Stratosphere
C. Ionosphere D. Troposphere
61. Union Government hiked national floor-level minimum wage to _________ rupees per day.
A. 137 B. 145
C. 153 D. 160
62. Mahatma Gandhi launched the legendary ―Quit India‖ struggle on

A. 8th August, 1942 B. 9th August, 1942
C. 8th August, 1945 D. 9th August 1945
63. The terms ‗Agreement on Agriculture‘, ‗Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures‘ and ‗Peace Clause‘ appear in the news frequently in the context of
the affairs of the

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A. Food and Agriculture Organization

B. United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
C. World Trade Organization
D. United Nations Environment Programme
64. ''Green Signals: Ecology, Growth, and Democracy in India'' written by ________.
A. Medha Patkar B. P. Chidambaram
C. Maneka Gandhi D. Jairam Ramesh
65. Convertibility of rupee implies
A. being able to convert rupee notes into gold

B. allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
C. freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
D. developing an international market for currencies in India
66. NASA announces discovery of new planet seen as 'close cousin' to Earth .
A. Kepler 450c B. Kepler 440b
C. Kepler 270c D. Kepler 452b
67. The doldrums are

A. Equatorial low pressure belts B. Polar low-pressure belts
C. Polar high pressure belts D. Equatorial high pressure belts
68. Which among the following paid careful attention to the promotion and improvement of
agriculture?
A. Mohd. Tughlaq B. Feroz Tughlaq
C. Allaudin Khilji D. None of these

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69. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
A. Human Rights Commission B. Finance Commission

C. Law Commission D. Planning Commission
70. The earliest occurrence of the mantra famous as Gayatri Mantra is found in the following
text:
A. Bhagwad Gita B. Atharva Veda
C. Rig Veda D. Manusmriti
71. The ―sea of tranquility‖ is on the

A. Jupiter B. Moon
C. Sun D. Pacific ocean
72. Who sworn in as Prime Minister of Sri Lanka?

A. Maithripala Sirisena B. Ranil Wickremesinghe
C. Sarath Amunugama D. Thalatha Atukorale
73. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
A. It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

B. It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
C. It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
D. It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity
74. Who was a prominent exponent of the ―Bhakti‖ movement in Maharashtra?

A. Ramanand B. Gyaneshwar

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C. Namdeva D. Ekarat
75. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in the Sea _______ and its Capital is ______
A. Arabian Sea; Portblair B. Bay of Bengal; Kavaratti
C. Bay of Bengal; Portblair D. Bay of Bengal and Panaji
76. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in
order to
A. protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

B. determine the boundaries between States
C. determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
D. protect the interests of all the border States
77. As part of Make in India, Finance Minister Arun Jaitely inaugurates Indigenous New Bank
Note printing lines at Security Paper Mill in _________ .
A. Hoshangabad B. Hyderabad
C. Vijayawada D. Ahmedabad
78. Which of the following are known as the blue mountains?

A. The Himalayas B. The Satpuras
C. The Nilgiris D. The Aravallis
79. The Allahabad Pillar inscription was got engraved by

A. Samudragupta B. Chandragupta
C. Mahapadma Nanda D. None of these
80. The General Assembly of U.N.O passed the Declaration of Human Rights on:

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A. 10th December 1949 B. 10th December 1948

C. 10th December 1947 D. 10th December 1946
81. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
A. The President of India B. The Prime Minister of India

C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat D. The Supreme Court of India
82. The All-India Harijan Sewak Sangh was established during the pre-independence era by
A. Dr. Ambedkar B. Jyotiba Phule
C. Mahatma Gandhi D. N.M. Lokhanday
83. The Mountbatten Plan became the basis for

A. Continuity of British rule B. Transfer of Power
C. Partition of the country D. Solution of the communal problem
84. ‗Basel III Accord‘ or simply ‗Basel III‘, often seen in the news, seeks to
A. develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
B. improve banking sector‘s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve
risk management
C. reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
D. transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace
the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals
85. Who is known as the greatest dramatist in Sanskrit after Kalidasa?

A. Bhavbhuti B. Shudraka
C. Kalhana D. Panini

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86. Thorium is found in abundance along the coast of

A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala
C. Gujarat D. Andhra Pradesh
87. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
A. Odia B. Konkani
C. Bhojpuri D. Assamese
88. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Articles 39 A - equal justice and free legal aid
B. Articles 40 - organization of village Panchayati
C. Articles 44 - uniform Civil Code
D. Articles 48 - separation of judiciary from executive
89. Which ancient Indian King has been depicted playing the veena on his coins?
A. Chandragupta B. Skandgupta
C. Samudragupta D. Chandragupta II
90. The ideal of ‗Welfare State‘ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
A. Preamble B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Rights D. Seventh Schedule
SECTION III-NUMERIC ABILITY

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91. The 160 students in a group are to be seated in rows so that there is equal number of
students in each row. Each of the following could be the number of rows EXCEPT
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 32
92. A parking rents parking spaces for Rs 100 per week or Rs 300 per month. How much does
a person save in a non leap year February by renting by the month rather than by the week?
a) 25% b) 33.33% c) 30% d) None of these
93. Of the following, which is the best approximation to 4/7?

a) 9/15 b) 11/19 c) 10/17 d) 7/12
94. A certain culture of bacteria quadruples every hour. If a container with these bacteria was
half full at 10:00 a.m., at what time was it one-eighth full?
a) 9:00 a.m. b) 7:00 a.m. c) 6:00 a.m. d) 4:00 a.m.
95. If n is an integer and then which of the following could be the value
of k?
a) 48 b) 84 c) 66 d) 21
96. What is the greatest integer lesser than –12+ 0.8?

a) –12 b) –11 c) –13 d) None of these
97. The product of the first thirteen positive integers is divisible by all of the following
EXCEPT
a) 210 b) 75 c) 60 d) 34
98. If x2 < x. then x must be

a) less than 0
b) equal to 0
c) between 0 and 1
d) equal to 1
99. A sum of money becomes 8 times of itself in 1.5 years if the interest is compounded half
yearly. Find the effective rate of interest per annum.
a) 200% b) 300% c) 100% d) 250%
100. If A = x2/y, and x increases by 50%, while y decreases by 50%, then the percentage
change in A is ?

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a) 450% b) 350% c) 300% d) C.B.D
101. The total cost of a product X is based on cost of two components A & B. A generally
accounts for 60% of the cost. However, due to inflation the cost of component A increased
by two successive changes of 10% each while that of component B increased by two
successive changes of 5% each. What was the overall increase in total cost of product X?
a) 18.5% b) 14.6% c) 13.2% d) 16.7%
102. Anshul invested an amount for 2 years at 15% per annum at S.I. Had the interest been
compounded annually, he would have earned Rs 450 more as interest. What was the
amount invested?
a) Rs 20000 b) Rs 25000 c) Rs 24000 d) None of these
103. Satish can complete a job in 15 hours. Anand can do the same job in 10 hours. If Satish
works for 9 hours alone and leaves, how long will it take for Anand to finish the remaining
job alone?
a) 4 hours b) 3 hours c) 5 hours d) 2 hours
104. The speed of the boat in still water is 12 km/hr. It takes twice as long to go upstream to a
point as to return downstream to the starting point. What is the speed of the current?
a) 3 km/hr b) 4 km/hr c) 2.5 km/hr d) None of these
105. Zinc and copper are in the ratio of 5:3 in 200 kgs of an alloy. How many kgs of copper
should be added to make the ratio as 3 : 5?
a) 200 kgs b) 150 kgs c) 133.33 kgs d) 125 kgs
106. If x : (y+z) = 1 : 3 and z : (x + y) = 5 : 7, then y : (x + z) =

a) 1: 2 b) 2 : 3 c) 1 : 3 d) 2 : 1
107. A mixture of 30 litres of milk and water contains 30% water. The new mixture is formed
by adding 10 litres of water. What is percentage of water in the new mixture?
a) 40% b) 19% c) 47.5% d) 45%
108. A person invests a certain sum at a certain rate of S.I. for 4 years. Had he invested it at
2% higher, he would have earned Rs 240 more. Find the principal.
a) Rs 2500 b) Rs 3000 c) Rs 2000 d) None of these
109. The ratio of radii of two spheres are in ratio 1:3. Find the ratio of their surface areas.

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a) 1 : 3 b) 1 : 9 c) 1 : 27 d) 1 : 4
110. A train covers a distance of 180 kms in 4 hours. Another train covers the same distance in
1 hr less. What is the difference in the distances covered by these two trains in one hour?
a) 45 km b) 15 kms c) 40 km d) 25 km
SECTION-IV: LEGAL APTITUDE

Principle for question 111, 112 and 113: When a person consents to infliction of harm upon
himself then he has no remedy in tort. A person cannot exercise a right which he has voluntarily
waved. But it has also to be shown that the consent obtained was given with free consent and not
as a result of fraud. There has to be knowledge and of the risk and the person, knowing the harm,
should agree to suffer it. Like in a master servant relationship it is likely that consent is forced.
Merely because a person knows about harm doesn't mean that he assents to suffer it. The
doctrine is applicable on the presumption that there is no negligence on part of other party.
111. Facts: A signs up for a CLAT coaching class. He is made to sign a form that coaching is
not responsible if he is not selected in CLAT. After paying the fee the coaching doesn‘t
conduct any class for rest of the year.
Which of the derivations is correct?
a) A can‘t sue the coaching as he has waived the right to sue.
b) A can sue coaching as he has fundamental rights.
c) A can‘t sue coaching because he didn‘t study.
d) A can sue coaching as he has not waived his right to sue.
112. Facts: A is B‘s servant. B forces A to park his car even when he doesn‘t know whether
A can drive. A crashes the car while parking it and injures himself.

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a) A is liable for B‘s injuries.
b) A is liable for the damage to car.
c) B is liable for the damage to car.
d) None of these
113. Facts: A buys earphones. Earphones packet comes with term and conditions that
one should use reasonably and at their own risk. A uses earphone while swimming and
gets electrocuted.
a) Earphone company is liable for A‘s injuries
b) This is a case of volenti non fit injuria as there was warning in the packet
c) This is a case of volenti non fit injuria as used earphones unreasonably
d) None of these
Principle for questions 114 and 115: When someone interferes with a person's enjoyment of
land or some right over it in connection with it, it is nuisance. A balance has to be maintained
between the right of the occupier to do what he likes with his own and the right of the neighbor
not to be interfered with. No individual can file a suit for public nuisance unless some special
injury has been caused to him.
114. Facts: A is getting his house painted as a result there is a lot of foul smell. B his neighbor
wants to file a suit for nuisance.
a) B‘s suit will succeed as A is causing nuisance

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b) B‘s suit will not succeed as A has right to get his house repaired
c) B should be compensated
d) None of these
115. Facts: A leaves his dogs roaming in the street. They chase people on the road everyday and
cause hurt.
a) This is public nuisance
b) This is negligence.
c) A and B both
d) None of these
116. Principle: The damage resulting from an act which a legislative authority directs to be
done is not actionable even though it would otherwise be actionable as a tort.
Facts: Government of China passes legislation that waste should be discharged in all the
canals in order to maintain growth on industries of China.
a) This a public tort
b) This is not a tort
c) Government should compensate its citizens
d) Government is sovereign
117. Principle: The communication of a revocation is complete, as against the person who
makes it, when it is put into a course of transmission to the person to whom it is made, so as to

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be out of the power of the person who makes it; as against the person to whom it is made, when
it comes to his knowledge.
Facts: A sends a letter to revoke an offer made by him to B. B accepts the offer before the
letter of revocation reaches him.
a) The contract is complete
b) There is no contract
c) Contract will be complete if A accept B‘s acceptance
d) The offer has been revoked
118. Principle: A proposal may be revoked by the death or insanity of the proposer, if the fact
of his death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance.
Facts: A enters into a contract B knowing that B is insane.
Which of the following derivations are correct?
a) There is no contract
b) There is an agreement between A and B
c) There is no relation between A and B
d) None of these
Principle for Question 119, 120 and 121: All agreements are contracts if they are made by the
free consent of parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object,
and are not hereby expressly declared to be void.
119.Facts: A and B enter into an agreement that B will sell him some children if A pays him
1000 rupees.
Select the most appropriate derivative?
a) The contract is void because consideration is illegal

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b) The contract is void because its expressly prohibited by law
c) The contract is void because its object is illegal
d) None of these
120.Facts: A pays B 10 packets of weed to buy his car.
a) The agreement in void as the consideration is insufficient
b) The contract is not covered by Indian Contract Act
c) The agreement is void
d) None of these
121. Facts: A is a FMG company and it enters into a contract with B to appoint B as its
distributor. B has been barred by court from performing business of distributorship.
a) The contract is void because consideration is illegal
b) The contract is void because it‘s expressly prohibited by law
c) The contract is void because its object is illegal
d) The contract is void because of lack of capacity
122. Principle: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. An erroneous opinion as to the value of the
thing which forms the subject-matter of the agreement is not to be deemed a mistake as to a
matter of fact.
Facts: A finds a shiny stone. He sells it to be B at 10 dollars. Later A and B are told that the
stone is a diamond.

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a) The agreement is void
b) The agreement is voidable
c) The agreement is valid as only the value of stone was wrongly predicted
d) None of these
123. Principle: Where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Facts: A and B enter into a contract that A will supply 10 cartons of Cuban cigar to B. Both
are unaware that Cuban cigars are banned in India.
a) The agreement is voidable
b) The agreement is void due to mistake of fact
c) The agreement is valid
d) None of these
124. Principle: Contingent contract to do or not to anything, if an impossible event happens are
void. A contract whose consideration is unlawful is void.
Facts: A enters into a contract with B for production and supply of 10 KG‘s of marijuana to
California (where marijuana trade is legal) from India if marijuana trade is made legal in
India.
a) The contract is void because of illegality of object
b) The contract is void because of impossibility of contingency
c) The contract is valid

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d) None of these
125. Principle: The agreements whose meaning is uncertain or incapable of being made certain
are void.
Facts: A, mayor of Delhi, and B enter into a contract. Under the contract B is to drive away
all the dogs from city of Delhi for payment of 1000 rupees.
a) The contract is void because it is impossible
b) The contract is void because of uncertainty terms
c) The contract is valid
d) None of these
126. Principle: Agreements in restraint of trade are void.
Facts: Monsanto, an agricultural company, makes farmer in a village sign a contract that
they will stop farming for payment of 1000 rupees per month.
a) The contract is void as it restricts trade
b) The contract is valid as it is method of doing business
c) The contract is voidable
d) None of these
127. Principle: : An act or abstinence which is to be consideration for promise must be done or
promised to be done in accordance with the desire of the promisor. In other words, an act shall
not be a good consideration for a promise unless it is done at the desire of the promisor.
Facts: Defense ministry enters into a contract with a private military contractor to provide
them with 100 mercenaries for protection of prime minister during his trip to USA.

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Contractor provides supplies 100 men. Defense ministry refuses to pay the contractor
because the men don‘t have approved visas.
a) The contractor has to be paid as contract said nothing about visa
b) The contract has not been performed as its object is incomplete
c) The contractor can‘t be paid as acquiring visa is common sense
d) None of these
128. Principle: A contract is a contract only between the parties to it and no third party can
either enjoy any rights or suffer any liability under it. Acceptance of contract can be express or
implied.
Facts: A and B enter into an agreement that B will repair C‘s house if A pays him 100 Rs. C
has not been intimated of this agreement. When B reaches C‘s house for repair C allows him
to do his work.
a) C cannot enforce this agreement
b) The agreement is voidable at option of C
c) C has given free consent.
d) None of these
129. Principle: When consent is obtained through coercion, fraud and misrepresentation then
such a contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent is so obtained.
Facts: A goes to B to buy a horse. The horse is insane. While inspecting the horse A doesn‘t
ask any question about horse‘s health and B also doesn‘t inform him about the defect.

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a) The agreement is voidable due to fraud
b) The agreement is voidable due to coercion
c) The agreement is voidable due to misrepresentation
d) The agreement is valid
130. Principle: When the completion of contract is dependent an uncertain event which may or
may not happen, then such contracts are called contingent contracts.
Facts: An agreement states that A will transfer his estate to B when B turns 18.
a) This is a contingent contract
b) This is not a contingent contract
c) This is an agreement not a contract
d) None of these
131. Consensus ad idem means
a) Without consent
b) Common consent
c) Meeting of minds
d) None of the above
132. The members of the constituent assembly were elected by:
a) The Provincial Assemblies
b) People of India

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c) Rulers of the Indian States
d) Indian National Congress
133. Which of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution?
a) Separation of powers
b) Quasi-federal structure
c) Dedicated Judiciary
d) Supremacy of the constitution
134. The President of India has the same Constitutional authority as the:
a) President of U.S.A.
b) President of U.A.E.
c) House of Lords
d) British Monarch
135. The idea of Judicial Review in Indian Constitution has been borrowed from?
a) UK
b) USA
c) Canada
d) Russia
136. The aims and objectives of the Constitution have been enshrined in?

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a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Preamble
d) Fundamental Duties
137. The word ‗secular‘ in our Constitution denotes:
a) Staying away from all the religions.
b) Worshiping the Constitution
c) Practicing all religions
d) Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens
138. Indian Constitution permits discrimination on the basis of:
a) Religion
b) Sex
c) Caste
139. Who heads the government of Jammu and Kashmir?
a) Governor
b) President
c) Prime Minister

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d) Chief Minister
140. Who acts as the chief legal advisor to the government of India?
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Solicitor General
c) Attorney General
d) Advocate General
141. Planning in India derives its objective from the:
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) DPSP‘s
d) All of the above
142. Our Constitution originally recognized how many languages?
a) 32
b) 44
c) 16
d) 14
143. Equality before the law has been taken from?
a) USA

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b) UK
c) Canada
d) Russia
144. Which type of Democracy is adopted by the Indian Constitution?
a) Constitutional Democracy
b) Fundamental Democracy
c) Diplomatic Democracy
d) Democratic Republic
145. If Freedom of movement is denied, it is violation of:
a) Economic Rights
b) Political Rights
c) National Rights
d) Civil Rights
146. Governor can return the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration
a) Once only
b) Twice
c) Any number of times
d) Not even once

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147. The President can‘t make Ordinance regarding the subject mentioned in:
a) Union List
b) State List
c) Concurrent List
d) All of the above
148. Who can grant pardon to a convict sentenced to death?
a) Prime Minister
b) Governor
c) President
d) Governor and President both
149. The Prime Minister is?
a) The head of the state
b) The head of the government
c) The head of the state as well as government
d) None of these
150. Who presides over the meetings of the council of ministers?
a) The President
b) The Prime Minister

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c) Cabinet Secretary
d) Different ministers by rotation
151. Which committee of the cabinet is regarded as most active committee?
a) Committee on appointments
b) Committee on economic affairs
c) Committee on foreign affairs
d) Committee on political affairs
152. NRI‘s are permitted to contest election in India:
a) For President and Vice President Only
b) For Membership of Parliament
c) For Membership of State Legislature
153. What is the maximum period for which the Parliament may not meet?
a) 3 Months
b) 6 Months
c) 9 Months
d) 1 Year
154. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in:

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a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) Never dissolved
155. Lok Sabha is superior to Rajya Sabha:
a) In all matters
b) In money matters only
c) In the constitutional amendment
d) In the removal of the President
156. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
a) UK
b) US
c) Canada
d) Australia
157. Which of the following is not in the State List under our Constitution?
a) Education
b) Agriculture
c) Public Health

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d) Gambling
158. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
a) Public Health and Sanitation
b) Capitation Taxes
c) Agriculture
d) Population Control and Family Planning
159. Tax on agricultural income can be levied by the:
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Center and State Both
160. Preamble of the constitution is amendable:
a) True
b) False
c) Subject to basic features
SECTION-V: LOGICAL REASONING

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161 Four girls (A, B, C, D) and three boys (X, Y, Z) are sitting for lunch in a row such
that no two boys sit together nor any two girls sit together. Also they are successively
sitting in the same order, what is the position of Y and C from left?
a) 5th and 6th b) 4th and 5th c) 3rd and 4th d) 2nd and 3rd
162.Five boys – A, B, C, D and E (of same team) participated in a relay race of 500m. The
one who started the race passed the baton to C. The one who got the baton last had taken
it from A. E was not the first or last runner. There were two runners between B and A.
To whom did B pass the baton?
a) A b) C c) D d) E
163.If INVADER is coded as 49 and PETROL as 36 in a certain code language, then how is
SITUATION coded?
a) 81 b) 100 c) 64 d) 121
164.Find the next term: 3, 4, 12, 45, 196, ______

a) 895 b) 985 c) 1005 d) 1105
165.Find the next term: BDG, CFJ, EIN, HMS, ______

a) KSZ b) LRY c) LWZ d) None of
these
166.Find the next term: 4, 9, 20, 43, 90, 185, ___.

a) 286 b) 359 c) 366 d) 376
Directions for Questions 167 to 171: Read the following and answer the questions
that follow.
Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are working in different companies, namely, - P, Q, R,
S, T and U in some order. Each of these six persons is living in a different house each
having a number – 111, 112, 113, 114, 115 and 116 in some order. The following is also
known –
i. The person whose house number is 116 is working for Q.
ii. A‘s house number is one less than the person‘s house number who is working for
R.
iii. B is working for U but his house number is not 115.

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iv. E‘s house number is one more than B‘s house number. E‘s house number is not
113.
v. F‘s house number is 114. D‘s house number is not 116.
vi. F‘s house number is one less than the person‘s house number who is working for
P but not one more than that of person‘s house number who is working for T.
167.What is B‘s house number?

a) 111 b) 112 c) 113 d)114
168.Who is working for R?

a) E b) F c) A d) B
169.Who is working for P?

a) A b) E c) D d) F
170.Whose house number is 116?

a) A b) B c) D d) C
171.Which of the following is true?

a) 111 – F
b) 113 – A
c) 112 – B
d) 115 – C
Directions for Questions 172 and 173: These questions are based on information below.
Six friends – K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting in a row facing north. N is to immediate
right of M. P is fourth to the left of O. The person who is third to the left of L is at one
extreme.
172.Who is third to the left of O?

a) P b) N c) L d) M
173.Who is at the rightmost extreme?

a) K b) O c) P d) Data insufficient

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Directions for Questions 174 to 178: Read the information below and answer the questions
followed.
A group has to be selected from seven persons. Among the seven are two women: Fanta and
Sush, and five men: Raju, Sonu, Dany, Pulkit and Rahul. Raju and Sonu are always selected
together. Sonu and Rahul are never selected together in the group. Sush would like to be in the
group only if Dany is also there. If Dany is selected then Pulkit is not selected. Dany and Fanta
are always selected together.The size of the group is defined as the number of members in the
group.
174.Who among the following is definitely not a member of a group of size 4?

a) Raju b) Rahul c) Sush d) Pulkit
175.What could be size of the largest group so formed?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) None of these
176.In how many ways can a group of size 3 be formed?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) None of these
177.Which of the following statement is definitely true?

a) A group of size 4 cannot have two girls.
b) A group of size 3 cannot have two girls.
c) A group of size 3 cannot have all boys.
d) None of these
178.Which of the following is definitely false?

a) Sush may be selected in a group of size 4.
b) Sonu is always selected in a group of size 5.
c) Pulkit is never selected in a group of size 3.
d) Fanta may be selected in a group of size 2.
179.In a family of six members A, B, C, D, E and F, there are two married couples. D is the
grandmother of A and mother of B. C is the wife of B and mother of F. F is the grand-
daughter of E. What is the relation of C with A?

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a) Mother b) Wife c) Grandmother d) Data insufficient
180.Pointing to Sanju, Rajesh said, ―The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife‘.
How is Sanju related to Rajesh?
a) Aunt
b) Mother-in-law
c) Grandmother
d) Sister of Father-in-law
Directions for questions 181 to 185: In each a question and two arguments are given.
Arguments in relation to the question are either weak or strong. Use the following key to
mark your responses.
a. Arguments I is Strong
b. Argument II is Strong
c. Both I and II are Strong
d. Both land II are Weak
181.Question: Should the government have the authority to block websites?

Argument I: No, it raises the disturbing question of curbs imposed on free speech in India
through executive fiat.
Argument II: Yes, it is necessary for national security reasons.
182. Question: Should the fees of public colleges across India be hiked to private colleges level?
Argument I: Yes, market driven rates are the best way to go forward.
Argument II: No, access to education, without financial constraints, is a fundamental right.
183. Question: Should Bollywood change its name to Hi Fi (short for Hindi Film industry)?
Argument I: Yes, Bollywood‘s an outworn term.
Argument II: No, it will dilute the brand.

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184. Question: Should India allow euthanasia?

Argument I: Yes, It provides a way to relieve extreme pain.
Argument II: No, it devalues human life.
185. Question: Will doing away with the exam pressure hamper educational standards?
Argument I: No, a consistent and overall evaluation of the child should be the priority, instead of
exams as a parameter.
Argument II: Yes, training in handling pressure should start at an early age.
Directions for questions 186 to 190: In each of the questions a statement is followed by two
assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement. Select your
response in accordance with the following code :
a. Only assumption I is implicit
b. Only assumption II is implicit
c. Both assumption I and II are Implicit
d. Neither of the assumption l and II is implicit
186. Statement I: If Sachin bats well then India will win.
Assumption I: For India to win it is necessary that Sachin bats well.
Assumption II: Sachin batting well in itself can make India win.
187. Statement: Despite India's dramatic modernisation over the last decade, it remains ―ground
zero‖ for some of the world's most dreaded tropical diseases.
Assumption I: Modernisation should lead to lower incidence of tropical diseases.
Assumption II: The incidence of dreaded tropical diseases is not lowering in India.
188. Statement: India‘s economic growth momentum cannot be sustained if urbanisation is not
actively facilitated.
Assumption I: Economic growth momentum is a desirable goal.

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Assumption II: India has been experiencing economic growth momentum.
189. Statement: Pakistan will consider using Umar Akmal as a wicketkeeper in their remaining
group games in the World Cup in a bid to offset the disastrous glovework of his elder brother
Kamran.
Assumption I: Kamran Akmal has not kept well in the past few games.
Assumption II: Umar Akmal can do wicketkeeping.
190. Statement: You should definitely read the novel Open House as it is recommended by
Oprah‘s book club.
Assumption I: Oprah is an author.
Assumption II: Oprah‘s book club‘s recommendations are accurate and should be read.
Directions for questions 191 to 195: In each of the questions two statements are given.
There may or may not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Mark
your answer using this code.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
c. Both the statements are independent causes
d. Both the statements are independent effects
191. Statement I: Oranges are highly acidic in nature.
Statement II: Oranges have citric acid.
192. Statement I: Mahesh is only interested in aerated drinks and junk food.
Statement II: Mahesh is gaining weight day by day.
193. Statement I: The Dalai Lama has retired from public life.
Statement II: The Dalai Lama had been in public life for many years.
194. Statement I: India lost the last one-day game against Australia.

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Statement II: Australia have been on a winning spree.
195. Statement I: I am going to the Puma showroom
Statement II: There is a sale of 40 percent going on there.
Directions for questions 196 to 200: Each question below consists of one Assertion [A] and one
Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using the code below.
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
196. A: Hospital-acquired infections, in circumstances where the use of antibiotics is high, are
common.
R: Resistance of microbes to standard antibiotics is well known.
197. A: Mediterranean diet has positive effects on individual risk factors such as waist size, HDL
cholesterol levels, triglycerides levels, blood pressure levels and glucose metabolism.
R: The Mediterranean diet is a dietary pattern characterized by high consumption of

monounsaturated fatty acids, primarily from olives and olive oils.
198.A: Institutions benefit immensely if the alumni network is active and strong.
R: The alumni network of the IIMs is not very strong.
199.A: India‘s economic growth rate is one of the lowest in the world.
R: The software industry in India is growing rapidly.
200.A: It is no coincidence that geniuses like Einstein were skilled in multiple areas, or
polymaths, as we like to refer to them.
R: When people seek novelty, they create new synaptic connections, which in turns create
more connections and this leads to learning.

CP/16/C02

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CP/16/C02

civil courts in its original jurisdiction.

C. The government is endeavouring to establish ‗Environmental Courts‘ in each state

appellate courts under other environment related Acts as well.

A. ABCD B. CBDA C. ABDC D.CABD

2. A. I deeply regret the rise of such miscreant‘s activities in Bengal.

B. The government should respond with strict measures.

the investigating agencies.

D. Through investigating agencies, the government is trying to pressurize and prosecute

A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CDAB D. DABC

A Team Satyam Offering

A. ABCD B. BCDA C. DABC D. CDAB

4. A. All reports relating to children are to be treated as confidential.

A. ABCD B.BCDA C. DABC D. BADC

5. A. Brutal assault and rape incidence of 16th December 2012 in Delhi

A. ABCD B. ACDB C. ADBC D. ACBD

A Team Satyam Offering

Directions(11-13): Identify the meanings of the given foreign words:

11. Audi alteram partem

A)to hear the other side B) Worst year

C) high society D) noble deed

12. Carte blanche

A) written will B) complete freedom

C) curtailed freedom D) Cheque

13. Autrefois acquit

A) particular affection B) formerly acquited

C) best friend D) up to date

Directions(14-18): Identify the antonyms of the given words:

A Team Satyam Offering

a) frugal b) deceit c) ebb d) indifference

Directions (19-23): Identify the meaning of the given words:

19. Invigorating A. tiring B. dodgy C. vitalising D. vaporising

20. Scintillating A. intelligent B. sharp C. naïve D. shining

21. Obnoxious A. ugly B. abhorrent C. miser D. discourteous

22. Disdain A. guide B. polite C. derision D. conserve

23. Bedlam A. medium B. mayhem C. morgue D. modest

24. A. from B. for C. on D. to

A Team Satyam Offering

25. A. rival B. competitor C. challenger D. enemy

26. A. backed B. backed out C. withdrew D. passed

27. A. less B. more C. short D. over

28. A. desired B. required C. acquired D. vital

29. A. after B. before C. over D. between

30. A. promoted B. campaigned C. crusaded D. operated

31. A. betterment B. change C. revolution D. reform

32. A. who B. who were C. whom D. those

33. A. from B. with C. for D. by

A Team Satyam Offering

34 Which of the following saddens the author?

A Team Satyam Offering

B. Breaking up of long lasting marriages

C. Breaking up of marriages due to family interference

D. Breaking up of his own marriage

A. Over interference B. Over sensitiveness

C. Lack of trust D. Lack of faith in their upbringing

36. What is the meaning of ‗infirm elders‘?

C. Dependent D. All of the above

37. Which of the following is used in the passage constantly?

38. Which of the characteristic is prevalent throughout the passage?

A. Education of girls B. Independence of females

C. Financial stability of girls D. All of the above

40. What is the source of the given passage?

A. An advertisement B. A research work

A Team Satyam Offering