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CP/16/C25

MOCK CLAT-25
SECTION I-ENGLISH
Directions(1-8):Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
Iran's first female vice president, Masoumeh Ebtekar, singled out the United States and the CIA as the
progenitor of ISIL. And Iran's former Iranian minister of intelligence, Heydar Moslehi, went further by
arguing that Mossad, MI6, And CIA created ISIL, or Daesh.
Sudan's President Omar al-Bashir agreed. He told Euronews this week that America's CIA and Israel's
Mossad are behind Boko Haram and ISIL.
"I said CIA and the Mossad stand behind these organisations. There is no Muslim who would carry out
such acts," he said. (Bashir also blames the US and Israel for the ICC's 2013 warrants accusing him of
responsibility for war crimes, crimes against humanity and acts of genocide.)
And so does Fidel Castro. He believes that Israel and certain American elements are behind ISIL. Others
believe the opposite; that it's actually Iran that's culpable. Former Syrian National Coalition President
Ahmad Jarbainsisted that Iran is behind rise of ISIL. Could "Quds Force be behind the ISIL in Iraq?"
asked one observer. And yet, more than a few argued that the Saudi Arabia stood behind ISIL. Then
Iraqi Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki, claimed in a statement last summer that the Saudis were
supporting ISIL and "facilitating genocide".
A former US general, Wesley Clark, reckons it's all part of an ongoing strategic conflict: "Our friends
and allies funded ISIL to destroy Hezbollah." For Clark, radical Islam is not the issue per se, as it's been
generally exploited for strategic ends. For example, according to him: "The United States used radical
Islam to fight the Soviets in Afghanistan. We begged the Saudis to put the money in; they did." And the
seasoned journalist, Patrick Cockburn, the author of "The Jihadis Return: ISIS and the New Sunni
Uprising", claimed that Saudi Arabia "helped ISIL take over north Iraq". He cited British intelligence
sources that believe the Saudi plan goes back a decade. Is "the enemy of my enemy my friend" or my
enemy? Or could it be both, depending on the level of cynicism involved? Clearly, those who highlight
the savagery of ISIL seem to also be benefitting most from it.
Most of the claims about the responsibility for the rise and spread of ISIL are either ideologically driven,
or pure speculation. It's not clear how any one of these prime suspects would be willing or able to put an
organisation like ISIL together. Money is not nearly enough to sustain or explain its drive. Even if ISIL
proves day-in day-out to be at their service; providing them with pretexts for any policy and every
action, it doesn't prove that any of these players are behind its rise. In short, benefitting from ISIL's
actions doesn't necessarily translate into creating it.
The question one must ask is not who's behind the rise and expansion of ISIL, but rather what led to its
rise and what helps it withstand the international coalition's bombings and pressures. Obama, as I
explained a few days ago, gave his own explanation for the rise of ISIL; one that included dictatorship,
sectarianism, alienation and marginalisation of Arabs and Muslims.
Seasoned former UN diplomat Lakhdar Brahimi, who served as special envoy to Afghanistan and Syria,
and was somewhat close to the Washington circles, said this week that there was "no doubt that the
original sin which led to the emergence of ISIL is the US-led invasion of Iraq. There was no justification

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for the war in Iraq, and we all suffer the consequences". To be clear, Brahimi later clarified: "I don't
mean the US created ISIL, but the conditions following the invasion led al-Qaeda to come to Iraq and
for ISIL to gain power."
To sum it all up, the US occupation of Iraq, the Iranian manipulation of instability in Iraq and Syria, the
cruelty and brutality of dictators like Bashar al-Assad, and the sectarian cynicism that followed are
certainly to blame.
1. Which of the following stated that U.S created ISIS?
A. Bashar al-Assad B. Masoumeh Ebtekar C. Heydar Moslehi D. Ahmad Jarba
2. What were the accusations put by U.S on Sudan?
A. genocide B. war crimes C. crime against humanity D. All of the above
3. Who is supporting ISIS according to Iraqi Prime Minister?
A. Syria B. Iran C. Saudi Arabia D. U.S.A
4. With which of the following the claims for the rise of ISIS inspired?
A. Speculations B. Ideologies C. Media reports D. Both A and B
5. What did the second statement of Brahimi suggest?
A. He is blaming the creation of ISIS on U.S B. He is shifting the blame from U.S.A
C. He is contradicting his earlier statement D. He is strengthening his earlier statement
6. What is the central idea of the passage?
A. To describe the evolution of ISIS B. To state the power of ISIS
C. To find the reason behind the origination of ISIS D. To state the international politics
7. What is the tone of the passage?
A. Ironical B. Sarcastic C. Descriptive D. Narrative
8. What is the source of the passage?
A. A documentary B. A compilation of interviews C. An article D. A blog
Directions(9-13): Fill in the blanks with the best choice:
Let the negotiators have their negotiations and the politicians their politics. And let‘s see what kind of
agreement comes out in the __9__. Forget transformations, grand bargains, and __10__ victories. We‘re
in the bazaar now bartering, haggling, and negotiating. It would be great if we could actually get a good
deal. And maybe that‘s still possible. But in __11__ off against a wily and __12__ counterpart with a lot
to gain and little to lose I‘m thinking that we‘re going to have our __13__ full just avoiding a bad deal
9. A. open B. wash C. bay D. public
10. A. easy B. hard C. strategic D. decisive
11. A. squaring B. rounding C. ticking D. circling
12. A. formidable B. dominant C. arch D. historic
13. A. eyes B. mouths C. hands D. stomachs
Directions(14-18): Fill in the blanks with the best choice:
14. Dayal Singh College is affiliated ______ Delhi University.
A to
B with

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C into
D within
15. I heard her lamenting ______the departed soul.
A at
B for
C in
D no word
16. That smoking is the cause of lung cancer is not susceptible ______proof.
A to
B of
C for
D with
17. Liberty is newly freed countries is liable ______abuse.
A for
B to
C by
D with
18. As he listened to the musical recital, he was rapt ______admiration.
A to
B with
C in
D for
Directions(19-23): Identify the correct meaning of the foreign words:
19. In Propria Persona
A. personal upheavals B. sudden grief C. his or her own person D. grim
20. Coup de Main
A. appropriate word B. inappropriate word C. to do the correct thing D. sudden attack
21. Cui Bono
A. who stands to gain B. Distress C. front D.flow
22. In Absentia

A. discord B. not in the presence C. alimony D.ill health


23. Dei Gratia
A. dearth B. attack C. prosperity D. by the grace of god

Directions(24-28):Arrange the following statements to form a coherent passage:


24. A. Desertion for the purpose of seeking divorce under the Act means the intentional permanent
forsaking and abandonment of one spouse by the other without that other‘s consent and without
reasonable cause.

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B. Desertion is not the withdrawal from a place, but from a state of things.
C. Desertion is not a single act complete in itself; it is a continuous cause of conduct to be determined
under the facts and circumstances of each case.
D. In other words, it is a total repudiation of the obligations of marriage.
A. ABCD B. ACBD C. ADBC D. ADCB
25. A. Moreover, they could, if they were so inclined, swear that they would have no intercourse with
their wives, though still living with them.
B. They could also revoke their divorce, and divorce again as many times as they preferred.
C. They could divorce their wives at any time, for any reason or without any reason.
D. Among pre-Islamic Arabs, the powers of divorce possessed by the husband were unlimited.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CDBA D. DCBA
26. A. However, under the existing conditions of society, it was impossible to abolish the custom
entirely.
B. Accordingly, he allowed the exercise of the power of divorce to husbands under certain conditions.
C. The Prophet had to mould the mind of an uncultured and semi-barbarous community to a higher
development.
D. The Prophet Mohammad looked upon these customs of divorce with extreme disapproval and
regarded their practice as calculated to undermine the foundation of society.
A. ABCD B. DACB C. DABC D. DCBA
27. A. For Christians who are governed by the Act, cruelty and desertion are not by themselves
independent grounds for divorce.
B. To be grounds for divorce, adultery should also be alleged and proved along with cruelty or desertion
as far as Christians governed by the Act are concerned.
C. Indian women of all religions other than Christianity are entitled to get divorce on grounds of cruelty
and/or desertion which are recognised as independent grounds for divorce under the respective
enactments applicable to them.
D. As adultery is often committed with calculated care and utmost secrecy, direct proof of adultery is
very difficult.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CABD D. ABDC
28. A. Once the relation is broken down irretrievable, then it is better to find an easy way-out.
B. The proceedings under the divorce on mutual consent have great significance in the above situation.
C. It is commonly said that, none of the parties will won in the cases of divorce, whatever be the result.
D. On the ground that the parties are living separately for a period of one year or more, the Family Court
may allow the divorce on mutual consent.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. CABD D. DCAB
Directions(29-32):Identify the meanings of the following idioms:
29. Blowing one‘s own trumpet
a. None of the given b. to praise oneself c. to deride oneself d. to respond promptly
30. To go out and out

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a. to be thorough b. to be very specific c. to be curious d. to frighten someone


31. To talk through one‘s hat
a. to talk nonsense b. to be self-centered c. during one‘s lifetime d. to talk sense
32. To plough a lonely furrow
a. be independent b. be benevolent c. talking about own accomplishments d. be dependent
Directions(33-40):Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS), a predominantly Sunni jihadist group, seeks to sow civil unrest in
Iraq and the Levant with the aim of establishing a caliphate—a single, transnational Islamic state based
on sharia. The group emerged in the ashes of the U.S.-led invasion to oust Saddam Hussein as al-Qaeda
in Iraq (AQI), and the insurgency that followed provided it with fertile ground to wage a guerrilla war
against coalition forces and their domestic allies.
After a U.S. counterterrorism campaign and Sunni efforts to maintain local security in what was known
as the Tribal Awakening, AQI violence diminished from its peak in 2006–2007. But since the
withdrawal of U.S. forces in late 2011, the group has increased attacks on mainly Shiite targets in what
is seen as an attempt to reignite conflict between Iraq's Sunni minority and the Shiite-dominated
government of Prime Minister Nouri al-Maliki. Burgeoning violence in 2013 left nearly eight thousand
civilians dead, making it Iraq's bloodiest year since 2008, according to the United Nations. Meanwhile,
in 2012 the group adopted its new moniker, ISIS (sometimes translated as Islamic State of Iraq and the
Levant, or ISIL) as an expression of its broadened ambitions as its fighters have crossed into
neighbouring Syria to challenge both the Assad regime and secular and Islamist opposition groups there.
By June 2014, the group's fighters had routed the Iraqi military in the major cities of Fallujah and Mosul
and established territorial control and administrative structures on both sides of the Iraqi-Syrian border.
The insurgent group was launched by Abu Musab al-Zarqawi, an Arab of Jordanian descent, and
flourished in the sectarian tensions that followed the U.S.-led invasion of Iraq in 2003. Zarqawi had
commanded volunteers in Herat, Afghanistan, before fleeing to northern Iraq in 2001. There he joined
with Ansar al-Islam (Partisans of Islam), a militant Kurdish separatist movement, for whom he led the
group's Arab contingent. Analysts say this group, not al-Qaeda, was the precursor to AQI.
Ahead of the 2003 invasion, U.S. officials made a case before the UN Security Council linking
Zarqawi's group with Osama bin Laden, though some experts say it wasn't until October 2004 that
Zarqawi vowed obedience to the al-Qaeda leader. The U.S. State Department designated AQI a foreign
terrorist organization that same month. "For al-Qaeda, attaching its name to Zarqawi's activities enabled
it to maintain relevance even as its core forces were destroyed in Afghanistan or on the run," wrote
Brian Fishman, a counterterrorism fellow at the New America Foundation.
According to a 2011 report by the Center for Strategic and International Studies, Zarqawi developed a
four-pronged strategy to defeat the coalition: isolate U.S. forces by targeting its allies; discourage Iraqi
collaboration by targeting government infrastructure and personnel; target reconstruction efforts through
high-profile attacks on civilian contractors and aid workers; and draw the U.S. military into a Sunni-
Shiite civil war by targeting Shiites.

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The Coalition Provisional Authority (CPA), the transitional government established by the United States
and its coalition partners, made two decisions early in the U.S.-led occupation that are often cited as
having fed the insurgency. The CPA's first order banned members of Saddam Hussein's Ba'ath party
from government positions; its second order disbanded the Iraqi army and security services, creating
hundreds of thousands of new coalition enemies, many of them armed Sunnis.
"For al-Qaeda, attaching its name to Zarqawi's activities enabled it to maintain relevance even as its core
forces were destroyed [in Afghanistan] or on the run." —Brian Fishman, New America Foundation
AQI's fighters were drawn initially from Zarqawi's networks in Pakistan and Afghanistan, and later
merged with recruits from Syria, Iraq, and its neighbours. The group's makeup became predominantly
Iraqi by 2006, the Washington Post reported. But while the group peaked in 2006 and 2007 at the height
of Iraq's sectarian civil war—which AQI helped foment—its ranks were diminished by a
counterterrorism campaign by U.S. Special Operations Forces and the U.S.-backed Sahwa, or Sunni
Awakening movement.
33. What led to the evolution of ISIS?
A. Saddam Hussain regime B. U.S activities
C. Conspiracy of local government D. Provocation by Sunni leader
34. With which of the following is Iraq dominated?
A. Shia B. Sunni C. Both D. None
35. What is the meaning of the term ‗Burgeoning‘?
A. Rapidly decreasing B. Rapidly increasing C. Stagnant D. Revolutionary
36. Which of the following was the forerunner of AQI?
A. ISIS B. Al Qaeda C. Ansar al-Islam D. All of the above
37. From where were AQI fights drawn initially?
A. Pakistan B. Syria C. Iraq D. All of the above
38. What is the central idea of the passage?
A. Combating terrorism B. Evolution of ISIS
C. History of Terrorism D. The Middle East conflict
39. What is the tone of the passage?
A. Narrative B. Descriptive C. Inquisitive D. Sarcastic
40. What is the source of the passage?
A. A documentary B. A news report C. An article D. A research work

SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. Bangladesh celebrates its 46th Independence Day on which date?


A. 26th March
B. 27th March
C. 28th March

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D. 29th March

42. Which community has the lowest sex ratio in India as disclosed in the additional data pertaining to Census
2011 released recently?
A. Buddhist
B. Sikh
C. Jain
D. Muslim

43. ‗Seva Divas has been proposed by central Government to celebrate the birthday of
A. Atal Bihari Bajpayee
B. Deen Dayal Upadhyay
C. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
D. Veer Savarkar

44. Capital of Belgium is


A. Milan
B. Hague
C. Brussels
D. Prague

45. The book ‗Kargil: Turning the Tide' is written by


A. Mohinder Puri
B. Anita Nair
C. Chetan Bhagat
D. Durjoy Datta

46. In the International Tennis Premier League (ITPL) 2015, matches held in India, Rafael Nadal played from the
team
A. UAE Royals
B. Japan Warriors
C. India Aces
D. Philippine Mavericks

47. Rotavirus attacks which part of our body?


A. Small intestine

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B. Large intestine
C. Stomach
D. Liver

48. Barak-3 Missile (next generation) has been developed by India in collaboration with which of the following
countries?
A. Russia
B. U.S.A.
C. Israel
D. France

49. In the 64th Miss universe Competition, the winner Pia Alonzo wurtzback belongs to
A. Philippines
B. Columbia
C. U.S.A.
D. France

50. Which of the following place in India is considered popular in overall Medical value Tourism?
A. New Delhi
B. Shimla
C. Kerala
D. Jammu and Kashmir

51. ‗Sunhak Peace Prize‘ Awarded for the first time in 2015, belongs to which country?
A. Switzerland
B. South Korea
C. Canada
D. France

52. Which one is the largest Mosque in the world?


A. Mosque-El-Nabvi
B. Imam Ali mosque
C. Al-Azhar Mosque
D. Al-Haram Mosque

53. Which state will set up the country‘s first organic farming university?

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A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Maharashtra

54. The highest peak of Indian Peninsula is


A. Ootakamund
B. Anaimudi
C. Dodabeta
D. Mahabaleshwar

55. Which of the following States of India produces more than 70 percent coffee of the country alone?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka

56. Which biosphere reserve spanning two states of TN and Kerala is among 7 added to the UNESCO World
Network of Biosphere Reserves?
A. Agasthiarmalai Biosphere Reserve
B. Peppara Sanctuary
C. Neyyar Sanctuary
D. None of the above

57. The cities which are included in ‗Golden Triangle‘ of Indian Tourism are
A. Agra, Delhi and Jaipur
B. Mathura, Agra and Gwalior
C. Agra, Kanpur and Lucknow
D. None of the above

58. Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in the State of


A. Assam
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Andhra Pradesh

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59. Which volcano erupted on 27th March in Alaska?


A. Pavloc
B. Pavlov
C. Pavlof
D. None of the above

60. Who among the following was the Chairman of 14th Finance Commission?
A. Shanta Kumar
B. C. Rangrajan
C. Y.V. Reddy
D. None of the above

61. What is the effect of deficit financing on economy?


A. Reduction in taxes
B. Increase in wages
C. Increase in money supply
D. Decrease in money supply

62. Which number had been adopted as national emergency number?


A. 111
B. 112
C. 113
D. 114

63. Time span of ‗Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana‘ is


A. 2014 - 2021
B. 2014 - 2024
C. 2015 - 2022
D. 2015 - 2025

64. Which one of the following thermometers is known as pyrometer?


A. Thermo-electric thermometers
B. Radiation thermometers
C. Gas thermometers
D. Liquid thermometers

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65. Recently the National Film Awards were announced. The best actress award went to
A. Kangana Ranaut for ‗Tanu weds Manu returns‘
B. Deepika Padukone for ‗Piku‘
C. Priyanka Chopra for ‗Bajirao Mastani‘
D. Deepika Padukone for ‗Bajirao Mastani‘

66. Which one of the following gases is not a green house gas?
A. CO2
B. CH4
C. NO2
D. O2

67. The maximum biodiversity is found in


A. tundra
B. coniferous forests
C. tropical rain forests
D. temperate forests

68. Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan is


A. Village Self Governance Campaign
B. Village Employment Campaign
C. Village Economic Development Campaign
D. Village Electrification Campaign

69. The minimum distance of clear vision for a normal healthy eye of human being is supposed to be
A. 50cm
B. 10cm
C. 15 cm
D. 25 cm

70. The substance used as moderator and coolant both, in nuclear reactors is
A. Ordinary water
B. Heavy water
C. Liquid Ammonia

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D. Liquid Hydrogen

71. Government has permitted 100% FDI in which sector to attract more foreign investments?
A. e-commerce
B. manufacturing
C. services
D. agriculture

72. Which of the following air pollutants gets dissolved in haemoglobin of the blood more rapidly than oxygen?
A. PAN
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Ozone

73. ‗Big-Bang theory‘ explains the origin of


A. Mammals
B. Ice-age
C. Universe
D. Ocean

74. Aqeela Asifi has been awarded the 2015 UNHCR Nansen Refugee Award. She is a refugee of
A. Afghanistan
B. Syria
C. Palestine
D. Sri Lanka

75. Recently, who is appointed as a chief of ‗National Commission for Protection of Child Rights‘ (NCPCR)?
A. Kaushal Singh
B. Stuti Narain Kacker
C. Neera Yadav
D. Devesh Chaturvedi

76. In wind power, which form of energy is converted into electrical energy?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy

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C. Solar energy
D. Radiant energy

77. The main reason for the decrease in biodiversity is


A. habitat pollution
B. introduction of exotic species
C. over exploitation
D. natural habitat destruction

78. Union Minister Smriti Irani conferred an honorary degree on which sportsperson on 30th March 2016?
A. M C Mary Kom
B. Vijender Singh
C. Viraat Kohli
D. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

79. Which country is given to host 22th Commonwealth Games-2022?


A. Auckland, New Zealand
B. London, England
C. Durban, South Africa
D. Beijing China

80. Where were Commonwealth Youth Games 2015 organized?


A. Pune, India
B. Glasgow, Scotland
C. Beijing, China
D. Apia, Samoa

81. The State Finance Commission is a


A. Legal body
B. Non-statutory body
C. Constitutional body
D. None of the above

82. Which two states accounted for 46% of exports in FY2015, according to an ASSOCHAM study?
A. Kerala, Karnataka

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B. Maharashtra, Gujarat
C. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
D. Rajasthan, West Bengal

83. Who was the founder of ‗Vikramshila Vihar‘?


A. Gopal
B. Devapal
C. Dharmapal
D. Mahipal

84. Recently, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) successfully launched India's first multi-
wavelength space observatory 'ASTROSAT' from which of the following spacecraft?
A. PSLV- C28
B. PSLV- C30
C. PSLV -C29
D. PSLV -C31

85. India‘s first indigenous composition _____ dome was flagged off by the Defence Ministry on March 30,
2016.
A. Sonic
B. Sonar
C. Solar
D. Lunar

86. Who was called ‗a slave of a slave‘?


A. Mohd. Ghori
B. Qutubuddin Aibak
C. Balban
D. Iltutmish

87. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State list subject for giving
effect to international agreements?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 253

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88. What was the name of the party formed by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das in 1923 A.D?
A. Independence Party
B. Ghadar Party
C. Swaraj Party
D. Indian National Party

89. Which Indian company has formed a joint venture with Rafael Advanced Defence Systems Ltd. of Israel for
air to air missiles?
A. Mahindra and Mahindra
B. TATAs
C. Reliance Defence Ltd.
D. Infosys

90. Which of the following was first victim of Lord Dalhousie‘s ‗policy of doctrine of lapse‘?
A. Jhansi
B. Satara
C. Karauli
D. Sambalpur

SECTION-III:NUMERIC ABILITY
91. 42 mango trees, 84 apple trees and 63 guava trees have to be planted in rows such that each row
contains the same number of trees of one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the
above trees may be planted is
a) 21 b) 12 c) 9 d) None of these

92. To dig a well 20 meters deep and 1.4 meters in radius, the amount of earth to be dug out is
a) 123.2 cu.m b) 164.4 cu.m c) 137.6 cu.m d) 125.3 cu.m

93. Rajiv invested part of Rs. 7700/-, in a scheme at 6% per annum for 2 years and the remaining at
8% for 4 years, on simple interest. If the interest on the first part for 2 years is equal to the
interest on the second part after 4 years, then the second sum is
a) Rs. 2300 b) Rs. 1900 c) Rs. 5600 d) Rs. 2100

94. A mother is three times the age of her daughter. Three years back, the daughter was one third the
age of her father. What will the difference between father‘s and mother‘s age 10 years from
now?

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a) 16 years b) 8 years c) 6 years d) Data insufficient

95. Nikita purchased a saree for Rs. 2500/-. On wearing it, she realised that it was one meter shorter
than the required length. She made a mental calculation and found that she was cheated of Rs
125. What is the actual length of this saree?
a) 20 m b) 19 m c) 18.5 m d) 21 m

96. Two trains are running on the same track in opposite direction, one at 120 km/h and the other at
150 km/h. Initially they were 4560 km apart and started simultaneously. What will the distance
between the two 15 mins before they collide?
a) 67.5 kms b) 72.5 kms c) 135 kms d) 82.5 kms

97. A tea company mixes 20 kgs of tea that costs Rs. 25/- per kilo with 30 kgs of tea that cost Rs. 36
per kilo. After mixing both, the company sells that mixed tea at Rs 30/- per kilo. The company's
total loss percentage is
a) 2% b) 8% c) 10.2% d) 5.06%

98. The cost of 5 apples is Rs. 5 more than the cost of 10 mangoes. The total cost of 6 apples and 6
mangoes is Rs 20. The cost of 18 mangoes is
a) Rs. 14 b) Rs. 15 c) Rs. 24 d) None of these

99. For the series 23, 26, 29, 32, ……………… Find the difference between 56th and 100th term of
the series?
a) 132 b) 135 c) 129 d) 165

100. 16 persons can paint the four walls of 8 cubical rooms of same dimension in 20 days. How
many days will it for 1 person to paint two adjacent walls of one of these rooms?
a) 40 days b) 30 days c) 16 days d) 20 days
101. In an exam, a person gets 4 marks for each correctly done question by loses 1 marks for each
wrongly done questions. Sohail attempts 50 questions and gets 140 marks. How many questions
did he get incorrect?
a) 14 b) 25 c) 12 d) Data insufficient

102. Akash sold a watch at a profit of 5% to Huma and Huma sold it to Wajid at a profit of 4%. If
Wajid paid Rs 182 for it, find the price paid by Akash?
a) Rs 160 b) Rs 166.66 c) Rs 165.6 d) Rs 168.66

32 ×0.2 ×0.02 ×0.002


103. Find the value of the following: 16 ×0.4 ×0.04×0.004
a) 0.20 b) 0.25 c) 0.40 d) 0.50

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104. Rohit is standing on point A (6, 3) in a XY plane. From here he wants to go to B (3, -2). How
much distance should he travel (at minimum) to reach point B? (He may or may not travel along
the grid lines)
a) 8 units b) 34 units c) 6 units d) 5.5 units
105. There are 8 stations between Delhi and Lucknow. How many second class tickets have to be
printed, so that a passenger can travel from one station to any other station?
a) 80 b) 90 c) 56 d) 112

106. A, B and C started a business together. Thrice the investment of A, twice the investment of B
and the investment of C are equal. Find the ratio of their respective profits at the end of the year?
a) 3:2:1 b) 2:3:6 c) 4:2:1 d) 1:2:3

107. If A is an integer, find the minimum value of x such that 0.0001254415 ×10A exceeds 1000.
a) 8 b) 10 c) 7 d) 6

108. An article is sold at a certain price. By selling it at 2/3rd of that price one loses 10%. Find the
profit percent at original price?
a) 15% b) 35% c) 25% d) 40%

1 1 1
109. Find the sum of infinite terms of series : 5 + 52 + 53 + ⋯ … … … ..
a) 0.2 b) 0.25 c) 1 d) Infinite

110. Find the probability of picking a white ball from a bag containing 2 red and 3 white balls?
a) 0.4 b) 0.45 c) 0.6 d) 0.3

SECTION-IV:LEGAL APTITUDE
Principles for Q.No. 111-120
A. Free Consent is required for a valid contract
B. Wilful breach of contract is a breach of contract liable for compensation
C. In case of a Joint Promise, the liability is joint and several
D. There is no liability for impossibility of performance

111. Which one of the following is relevant in normal circumstances in determining the amount of
damages from breach of contract?
(a) Normally expected loss
(b) Difference between market price and contract price
(c) Sudden closure price of production
(d) Additional expenses for procuring the goods

112. A party who does not suffer any loss in case of breach of contract is entitled to:
(a) Statutory damages

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(b) Liquidated damages


(c) Exemplary damages
(d) Nominal damages

113. W, a singer enters into a contract with M, the manager of a theatre, to sing at his theatre for two
nights in every week during the next two months and M engages to pay her Rs.5 Lacs for each
night‗s performance. On the 7th night, W willfully absents herself from the theatre:
(a) M cannot put an end to the contract
(b) The contract is unlawful
(c) M is at liberty to put an end to the contract
(d) The contract is left at the liberty of W

114. A mother owes RS.10,000 to her daughter. But this debt has become barred by the Limitation
Act. The mother signs a written promise to pay Rs.3,000 on account of the debt. In such a case
which one is correct:
(a) There is no contract as the debt is already barred by Limitation and so it cannot be revived
by as subsequent promise
(b) There is no contract because the mother has promised to give only a part of time debt
(c) This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and binding under the
Indian Contract Act
(d) None

115. X and Y contract that Y shall build a house for X for Rs.20 Lacs. Y‗s ready and willing to
construct the house but X prevents him from doing so. In such case:
(a) Y is entitled to recovers compensation for any loss suffered by him
(b) Y can opt to rescind the contract
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) (a) and (b)

116. X sold to Y by sample and Y thinking that they were old rice purchased them, but the rice was
new. In this case:
(a) Y is not bound by the contract
(b) Y is bound by the contract
(c) Y can recover damages from X
(d) Y can sue for replacement of new rice with old rice

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117. A enters into a contract with B for dancing at his theatre for three nights for a fee of
Rs.2,00,000. A dances for two nights and is taken ill. What remedy is available to B?
(a) B can repudiate the contract
(b) B can claim damages from A
(c) B is not bound to pay fees
(d) B cannot claim damages from A

118. A servant is employed for one year on a monthly salary of Rs.1800, the whole salary to be paid
at the end of the year. The servant wrongfully leaves the service after six months. Is he entitled
to any salary?
(a) He is entitled to the whole salary
(b) He is entitled to the salary of six months.
(c) He is entitled to the salary which his master thinks suitable
(d) He is not entitled to any salary

119. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D a sum of Rs.90,000. C is compelled to pay the whole of
the amount to D. Can he recovers anything form A and B when both A and B were solvent?
(a) Yes, C can recover Rs.60,000 from A
(b) Yes, C can recover Rs.90,000 from A
(c) Yes, C can recover Rs.30,000 each from A and B
(d) No C cant recover anything from A and B

120. A lets out a theatre to B for a series of drama for certain days. The theatre was completely
destroyed by fire before the scheduled dates. In the case:
(a) The contract is discharged by impossibility of performance
(b) The contract is void ab initio
(c) The contract is voidable at the option of B
(d) A cannot be discharged of the contract

121. Which of these systems is followed in India?


(a) Adversarial System (b) Judicial System (c) Inquisitorial System (d) Continental System

122. The violation of which of the given rights leads to an action in torts?

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(a) Rights in rem. (b) Rights in personam. (c) Rights in matrimony. (d) Rights per se.

123. Besides its permanent seal at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at
(a) Any other Union Territory
(b) Any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President
(c) Any other metropolitan city
(d) Any other major city

124. The term tort derives its origin from a latin word ―tortum‖ meaning
a. To Twist b. Complicated c. Precise d. Liability

125. The proponent of Pigeon Hole Theory


a. Denning b. Blackstone c. Winfield d. Salmond

126. Which of these remedies are unavailable in Civil Law


a. Injunction b. Nominal Damages c. Liquidated Damages d. All of the above

127. The maxim ‗doli incapax‘ relates to:


a. Civil Law b. Arbitration Law c. Mercantile Law d. Criminal Law
128. Who gave the concept of Judicial Review?
a. Coke J. b. Marshal J. c. Krishna Iyer J. d. Salmond
129. The burden of proof shifts to the defendant in which of these case
a. Damnum Sine Injuria b. Injuria Sine Damno
c. Res Ipsa Loquitor d. Malicious Prosecution
130. The resolution for removing the Vice President of India can be moved in the
a. Lok Sabha alone b. Either house of Parliament
c. Joint sitting of Parliament d. Rajya Sabha alone
131. Which of these situations does not constitute a qualified agency in law?
a. Express Agency b. Necessity c. Conduct d. Self assumption by agent
132. The President of India referred the 2G Spectrum issue to the SC of India under which Article ?
(a) 143 (b) 132 (c) 138 (d) 136
133. Which of the following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review of the Supreme Court and the High
Court ?
(a) 24th (b) 28th (c) 46th (d) 42nd
134. Principle 1 – Whoever causes a breach of a duty which one ought to follow, commits negligence.
Principle 2 – Whoever commits the tort of negligence shall be liable to compensate the aggrieved
party
Facts – There was a manned railway level crossing whose gates were kept open. There was no guard
to be seen. Pinku, who was in his car and was willing to cross the crossing believed that there was no

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train in the vicinity. He tried crossing the gates. However, suddenly a train crossed the crossing and
hit his car, injuring him badly. Decide
a. Pinku is at fault as he himself was negligent in not crossing the railway line with adequate care.
He should have done the same with proper lookout
b. Neither Pinku nor the concerned railway authorities would be held liable
c. The railway authorities would be held liable for negligence and will have to compensate Pinku
d. None of the above
135. Principle – A person is entitled to protect his property by using lawful and reasonable means
Facts – Somu had fenced his farm with barbed wires so as to prevent cattle from entering his farm
and destroying the plants. In addition to this, he had kept a ferocious dog for the same purpose. One
day, one of the children playing in a nearby field came to the farm while chasing a ball. Seeing the
boy Somu‘s dog injured the boy badly and caused him serious injuries. The boy‘s parents sued
Somu. Decide
a. Somu‘s dog acted in an unexpected manner, hence Somu is not liable
b. The boy trespassed the property of Somu, hence his parents cannot sue Somu
c. Somu would be liable as a barking dog would have sufficed the purpose.
d. None of the above

136. Principle 1: A person is liable for all the injurious consequences of his act.
Principle 2: A person is not liable for any injury caused to another person by the latter‘s consent

Facts – A snake charmer was exhibiting his talent in front of a group of people. Somehow, the snake
escaped and bit a small child of 4 years of age. The child fell ill. His parents filed a suit against the
snake charmer
a. The snake charmer would be held liable
b. The snake charmer will not be held liable as it was an inevitable accident
c. The snake charmer will not be held liable as the parents of the child had voluntarily assented to
the danger
d. None of the above

137. Principle : A master is liable for all the acts of the servant done during the course of his
employment
Facts – X the driver of a bus, was specifically instructed by his master not to overtake any other bus
or any other heavy vehicle while driving on a highway. The bus driver defied the instructions
attempted to overtake another bus and in that process, his bus got toppled. Will X‘s master be liable
for such an act.
a. X will be liable alone
b. X‘s master will be liable alone
c. X and his master both will be liable
d. None of the above

138. Which one of these is an essential element for private nuisance?

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a. There must be interference with the use or enjoyment of land or some right over it.
b. The plaintiff must show title over the thing to which the nuisance is alleged to be caused
c. The act complained of must result in damage to the plaintiff
d. All of the above

139. Vicarious Liability arises in which of the following cases?


a. Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
b. Liability of the partners of a firm for the tort of either of them
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

140. Which of the following is a settled case with respect to explaining the concept of vicarious
liability?
a. State Bank of India V. Shyama Devi
b. Haynes V. Harwood
c. Stanley V. Powell
d. None of the above

141. Which of these defences is not sustainable in law of torts?


a. Volenti Non fit injuria
b. Inevitable Accident
c. Rightful delegation of duties but wrongful execution by the agent
d. None of the above

142. Which of these is a principle of natural justice?


a. Audi alteram – Hear the other party (as well)
b. Res ipsa loquitor – Things speak for themselves
c. Nemo judex in causa sua - No one should be made a judge in his own cause or the rule against
bias
d. Both a and c
143. Which of these is an essential ingredient of the offence of criminal misappropriation
1. The accused misappropriated or converted to his own use another‘s movable property
2. Mala fide intention
3. The dishonest removal of property from the possession of the owner
4. Deceitful removal of the property from the possessor
a.Only 1
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 2

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144. Principle: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so
deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any
property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he
would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to
cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to ―cheat‖.

Facts : A intentionally deceives Z into a belief that A means to deliver to Z a certain quantity of
indigo plant which he does not intend to deliver, and thereby dishonestly induces Z to advance
money upon the faith of such delivery.
a. A has cheated
b. A has not cheated but merely attempted to cheat
c. A may be held guilty of having committed the offence of cheating
d. None of the above

145. Principle: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so
deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any
property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he
would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to
cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to ―cheat‖.

Facts : A intentionally makes Z believe that A means to deliver to Z a certain quantity of indigo
plant which he does intend to deliver, and thereby induces Z to advance money upon the faith of
such delivery. However, afterwards A did not deliver the indigo plant. Here A -
a. Would be guilty of the offence of cheating as he intended to cheat
b. Would not be guilty of the offence of cheating
c. A is guilty of an inchoate offence of cheating
d. All of the above are partially correct

146. Which of these is a principle covered under the general exceptions to the offences covered under
the IPC
a. Act done by a person bound by law, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound by law
b. Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified by law
c. Act of a child below the age of seven years
d. All of the above
147. Principle 1: Whoever intentionally causes injury, fear or annoyance to another is said to have
used criminal force
Principle 2: Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely
that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that
gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.

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Principle 3 : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give
to his gestures or preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to
an assault.
Facts: A and B are stranded in an isolated island. A takes out a gun from his pocket and starts filling
bullets in it
a. A has committed assault
b. A has committed the offence of criminal force
c. A has committed the offence of both assault and criminal force
d. A has neither committed any assault nor criminal force

148. Principle 1: Whoever intentionally causes injury, fear or annoyance to another is said to have
used criminal force
Principle 2: Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely
that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that
gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.
Principle 3 : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give
to his gestures or preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to
an assault.
Facts : Ramavtar intimidates Chotu over phone by saying ―I will kill you as soon as I reach your
city‖
a. Ramavtar has committed assault
b. Ramavtar has committed assault and used criminal force as well
c. Ramavtar has not committed assault
d. None of the above

149. Principle 1: Whoever intentionally causes injury, fear or annoyance to another is said to have
used criminal force
Principle 2: Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely
that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that
gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.
Principle 3 : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give
to his gestures or preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to
an assault.

Facts: Ma‘am Khan takes up a stick, saying to Divyansh, "I will give you a beating, since you have
not done your home-work".
a. Ma‘am Khan is liable for the offence of assault
b. Ma‘am Khan cannot be liable for assault as she is a teacher
c. Ma‘am Khan is not liable for the offence of assault
d. None of the above
150. Principle : Whoever intentionally or knowing it likely to cause the death of a person, causes the
death of a person, is said to have committed murder

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Facts: A mixed poison in some sweets and placed it on B‘s dinner table. B was having diabetes, so
he did not intend to eat the sweets and so as to avoid them completely, threw them outside his house.
Few beggars pick some of these sweets and ate them. They died consequentially.

a. A is guilty of murder
b. A is not guilty of murder, but will be guilty of attempt to murder only
c. A is guilty of some other offence, but murder
d. All of them are partially correct

151. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care
causing injury to the victim.

Facts: Indira Gandhi International Airport is about to shut down. One Kingfisher flight is al-most ready
to leave the airport, but is having some final maintenance work done. Under the pressure of the
passengers, Kingfisher decides to have the flight take off despite not completing the maintenance
checks, so that the flight doesn't get grounded by the closure of the airport. The flight crashes and
everybody on the plane dies. Has Kingfisher been negligent?
(a) Yes. It had a duty to perform all the maintenance checks, which it breached, causing the accident
(b) No. The decision was taken under the pressure of the passengers
(c) No. The decision was caused by extraneous factors like the closing of the airport
(d) Yes. KF should have been able to reasonably foresee this Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence
involves the breach of a reasonable duty of car.

152.Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim.
Facts: A has hired B's law firm to represent his company in an important commercial matter. A has a
meeting with B at the law firm's office dur-ing lunchtime, so B offers A food. The food causes A to get a
stomach ache.
Has B's law firm been negligent?
(a) No. Their duty of care does not extend to the quality of the food provided for lunch
(b) No. This is a simple accident. These things happen all the time
(c) Yes. Their duty of care extends to all reason-able harms that may befall their client in their office
(d) Yes. They have caused the stomach ache. They must be held liable

153.Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A is trying to get home from office late at night. All the buses have stopped plying. He takes a lift
from a stranger, who drives carelessly and gets into an accident. A is injured. Who is respon-sible for
negligence?
(a) A
(b) Driver
(c) Both A and the driver
(d) Neither A nor the driver

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154. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A is staying in a hotel, which is situated next to a very noisy night club. He leaves the win-dow
open at night, and as a result has a very dis-turbed night. Who is responsible?
(a) A
(b) Hotel
(c) Both A and the hotel
(d) Neither A nor the hotel

155.Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A hires a prestigious law firm to represent him on a very valuable and confidential matter. He
signs a very strict confidentiality agreement with the firm. One day during a meeting, he acci-dentally
lets some very sensitive information slip. This is heard by an intern at the firm, who leaks it to A's
competitors. Who is responsible for the negligence?
(a) A
(b) Law Firm
(c) Intern
(d) A and Intern

156. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A leaves his electrical iron on in his house causing a tire, which then spreads to his neigh: hour's
houses, because his neighbour's electri-cal wiring is old and faulty. The neighbour Was required by law
to have changed the wiring two years ago, but had failed to do so. Who has been negligent?
(a) A
(b) Neighbour
(c) Both A and the neighbour
(d) Neither A nor the neighbour

157. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A unconsciously uses a virus-infected pen drive on B's computer. B mails him some docu-ments
without realising that his computer is in-fected, and A's computer also gets infected. Both of them lose
valuable data, and neither of themhad invested in anti-virus protection beforehand. Who is responsible
for negligence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Neither A nor B
(d) Both A and B

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158. Principle: Negligence is a tort. Negligence involves the breach of a reasonable duty of care causing
injury to the victim. To the extent that the injury to the victim is caused by his own negligence, the
liability of the tortfeasor is diminished.
Facts: A is negligently handling a crane at a con-struction site. B is a worker who is not wearing the
regulation safety helmet. A accidentally hits B in the head with the metal hook of the crane. Who is
responsible for negligence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

159. Principle: Every citizen has the freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation,
trade or business. State can reasonably restrict the exercise of this right in the interest of general public.
Facts: Martin is the owner of an advertising firm ABC Advertising. ABC was recently engaged by a
pharmaceutical company manufacturing contraceptive pills to create its marketing campaign. In order
for such advertisement, ABC put 200 hoardings across the State of Vindhya Pradesh (VP) promoting the
same. Bharat Charitra Nirman Sena (BCNS) is a political party in power in VP. Enraged by this
marketing campaign, they passed a law banning all advertising firms and agencies from taking up any
marketing assignment related to advertisement of contraceptives as they thought it is against Indian
culture and morals. ABC challenged the validity of this law in the High Court of VP. Will they succeed?
(a) No they cannot as exposing the youth to contraceptives and consequent indirect sexual representation
is not in the interest of general public.
(b) Yes they can as this law is in violation of ABC‘s freedom to practice any profession.
(c) No they cannot as ABC has no right to challenge the validity of this law which was passed by the
legislature of the State of VP
(d)Yes they can as the restriction imposed by this law has no relation with protection of interest of
general public.

160.Principle 1: Whenever there is no violation of legal right there is no legal remedy available in Tort,
as per the doctrine of damnum sine injuria.
Facts: After the release of the movie PK starring Amir khan the social media was set ablaze with cries
of boycott PK, criticizing the movie being critical of superstitions relating to gods and goddess‘s of all
religions. After reading one such article online a staunch follower of Hinduism called Hari, who is a
priest at a famous lord Shiva temple, got hurt and claimed that after the release of the movie devotees
lost faith in Hindu gods and there is a sharp decline in people visiting his temple which is adversely
affecting the finances of his temple. Hari files suit for compensation against the promoters of the movie
PK.

A. Hari will not get any relief, as he did not suffer any legal injury.
B. His suit is not maintainable as he did not suffer any legal injury because hurting someone‘s religious
feelings by being critical of it‘s superstitious practices does not amount to violation of anybody‘s
legal right.
C. He will get the relief, as this is a case of violation of legal rights of Hari.

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D. His suit is maintainable only when the devotees of other religions also come forward and claim the
same. Hari alone can‘t get compensation on behalf people whose religious feelings have been hurt.

SECTION-V:LOGICAL REASONING
Directions(161-170):identify the correct conclusions:
161. Statements: All Bs are Cs. No C is T.
Conclusions:

No B is T
All Cs are Bs.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows

162. Statements: All Cs are Ts. All Fs are Cs.

Conclusions:

All Cs are Fs.


Some Fs are Cs.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows

163. Statements: No R is D. All the Ds are Cs.

Conclusions:
1. No R is C.
2. No C is R.

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3. Some Cs are Ds.


4. All the Cs are Ds.

A. Only (2) and (4)


B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (3) and (4)
D. Only (3)
164. Statements: All G are B. All B are W.

Conclusions:
1. Some B are G.
2. Some Ws are G.
3. Some Gs are not W.
4. All Ws are Bs.
A. Only (1) and (2)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (1) and (4)
D. Only (2) and (4)

165. Statements: All Ms are Vs. Some Ls are Vs.

Conclusions:
1. All M are Ls.
2. All Ls are M.
3. Some Vs are Ls.
4. All Vs are M.
A. Only (4)
B. Only (2)
C. Only (3)
D. Only (1)

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166. Statements: All the Ps are Ss. All the Ss are Cs.

Conclusions:
1. All the Cs are Ss.
2. All the Ps are Cs
3. All the Ss are Ps.
4. Some Cs are Ps.
A. Only (1) and (4)
B. Only (3) and (4)
C. Only (2) and (4)
D. Only (1) and (2)

167. Statements: Some Ts are Vs. Some Vs are Rs.

Conclusions:
1. Some Ts are Rs.
2. Some Rs are Ts.
3. All the Rs are Vs.
4. All the Vs are Ts.
A. Only (2) and (4)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (4)
D. None of the four.

168. Statements: Some Ps areOs. Some Os are Cs.

Conclusions:
1 Some Ps are Cs.
2 Some Cs are Ps.
3 All Cs are Ps.
4 All Os are Ps.

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A. Only (1) and (3)


B. Only (2) and (4)
C. All the four
D. None of the four

169. Statements: All the Gs are Ts. All the Ts are Ls.

Conclusions:
1. All the Gs are Ls.
2. All the Ls are Gs.
3. Some Ls are Gs.
4. Some Ts are Gs.
A. All the four
B. Only (1), (2) and (3)
C. Only (1), (3) and (4)
D. Only (2), (3) and (4)

170. Statements: All the Bs are Ps. No P is E.

Conclusions:
1 All the Ps areBs.
2 Some Es are Bs.
3 No B is E.
4 Some BsareEs.
A. Only (3)
B. Only (1) and (3)
C. Only (1) and (2)
D. Only (2) and (3)

Directions(171-175): An assertion and its reason are given. Read and answer accordingly if,
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.


C. R is true but A is false.
D. A and R both are false.
171. Assertion (A) : Increase in carbon dioxide would melt polarice.
Reason (R) : Global temperature would rise.
172. Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu gets most of the rainfall in winter.
Reason (R) : Tamil Nadu gets rainfall from retreating monsoons
173. Assertion (A) : Graphite is slippery and used as a lubricant.
Reason (R) : Graphite has free electrons.
174. Assertion (A) : In India, the judiciary is not independent and works under the influence of the
executive.
Reason (R) : Judiciary favours the government and helps in the implementation of its plans
175. Assertion (A) :The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.
Reason (R) :An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water.
Directions(176-180):Read the given passages and answer accordingly:

176. Over the past three years, the corruption has steadily declined in the city. One year ago, a new
minister took office promising to take a tougher stance on corruption and improvingcity youth
programs. Without this minister‘s leadership, it is certain that this positive change in corruption level
would never have occurred.

Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

A. In the first few months the minister was in office, the corruption rate rose by 1.5%.
B. Due to budget cuts, the minister‘s proposed funding for youth programs was never implemented.
C. One year ago, a new tribunal was appointed which instituted suomoto action against corruption.
D. The corruption rate in neighboring cities has been on the rise for the past one year.

177. Since the late 2011s and early 2012s, tax regulations and other changes have encouraged increasing
numbers of start-ups. Since 2011, some one-half million new start-ups been started. Not all have

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succeeded, of course.
The above statement makes which of the following assumptions?

a. Success in starting a new business depends in large part on sound financial planning.
b. Social incentives motivate investors just as much as financial rewards.
c. Financial incentives are associated with new business starts.
d. Most new start-ups succeed initially but fail later on.

178. Although Locke has been hailed as a giant figure in European intellectual history, his ideas were
largely borrowed from his predecessors, who are now unfairly neglected by historians. Furthermore,
Locke never wrote a truly great book; his most widely known works are muddy in style, awkwardly
constructed, and often self-contradictory.
With which of the following would the author most likely agree?

a. Locke made use of ideas without acknowledging his predecessors as the sources of those ideas.

b. Current historians are re-evaluating the work of Locke in the light of present-day knowledge.

c. Locke's contributions to the development of European thought have been greatly exaggerated.

d. Historians should reexamine Locke's place in European intellectual history.

179. Inflation rose by 2.5% over the 3 months, up from 4.1% during the beginning of the year, and
higher than the 3.3% recorded during the same time last year. However, the higher price index did not
seem to alarm stock prices which remained steady.
Which of the following, if true, could explain the reaction of stock market?

a. Stock prices were steady because of a fear that inflation would continue.
b. The President announced that he was concerned about rising inflation.
c. Economists warned that inflation would persist.

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d. Much of the quarterly increase in the price level was due to a summer drought's effect on food
prices.

180. Vijay Mallya, the owner of Kingfisher is facing legal action for allegedly defaulting on loans of Rs
9,000. Mallya, who is also a member of RajyaSabha, has been asked by the Supreme Court to appear
before it on March 30.
Which of the following would weaken the above premise?
a. Mallya has no legal obligation to pay as there is no decree against him
b. Kingfisher and Mallya are two different entities and Mallya cannot be said to have defaulted
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
181. If ‗handpump‘ is called ‗well‘, ‗well‘ is called ‗fire‘, ‗fire‘ is called ‗field‘, ‗field‘ is called
‗state‘, then where is ‗cricket‘ played?
a) Well b) Fire c) State d) Field

182. Complete the following series: 260, 280, 320, 400 ?


a) 560 b) 580 c) 660 d) None of these

183.Complete the following series: A, C, E, G, I, K, M, O, ?


a) Q b) S c) R d) T

184. DM : WN :: ST :?
a) PS b) UP c) HG d) GH

Directions for Questions 185 to 188: These questions are based on information below.
In a sign language Ra Te Ju Pa is meant as ‗you are my brother‘, Lo Ki Ju Te is meant as ‗they all are
brother‘, Ko Pa Hi Te is meant as ‗you are drive car‘ and Su Lo Jig Cha is meant as ‗they were
stranger people‘.

185. Which sign code is used for ‗all‘?


a) Ju b) Cha c) Lo d) Ki

186.Which sign code is used for brother


a) Ju b) Cha c) Lo d) Data insufficient

187. What is the code for stranger car?


a) Jig Hi b) Cha Hi c) Su Ko d) Data insufficient

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188.―Pa Ju‖ is a possible code for?


a) brother they b) brother you c) my brother d) all stranger

189. Eight students are sitting in a circular ring. Mohan is immediate left of Sohan and immediate
right of Rohan. Sudhir is third to the left of Rohan, then Sudhir is on which place to the right of
Mohan?
a) Fourth b) Second c) Third d) Fifth

190.23 girls are standing in a row. Sita is fourth from starting of the row. Dipali‘s place is 7 position
behind Sita, then Dipali is on which position from the end of the row?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) Can‘t be determined

191.Find the odd one out


a) 65, 80 b) 62, 78 c) 50, 66 d) 53, 69

192. Find the odd one out 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21


a) 17 b) 14 c) 3 d) 21

193. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
g_ _ g _ _ gh _ g _ i
a) hhiihh b) jkljkl c) hijkli d) hihiih

194.Sunita says that father of Rajiv‘s father is my father. How Sunita is related to Rajiv?
a) Mother b) Aunt c) Niece d) Sister

195.There are twelve dozens of apples in a basket. Two dozens are added later. Ten apples got spoilt
and are removed. The remaining are transferred equally into two baskets. How many are there in
each basket?
a) 168 b) 158 c) 79 d) 89

196.Which among the following is a leap year?


a) 1600 b) 1900 c) 1800 d) All the above

197.Priti scored more than Rahul. Yamuna scored as much as Divya. Lokita scored less than Manju.
Rahul scored more than Yamuna. Manju scored less than Divya. Who scored the lowest?
a) Manju b) Yamuna c) Lokita d) Rahul

198. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards South. He turned left and travelled 6 m straight, then turned
right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he from the starting point?

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a) 8 km b) 10 km c) 12 km d) 14 m

199. Which number is wrong in the given series: 1, 9, 25, 50, 81


a) 1 b) 25 c) 50 d) 81

200.Find the next two letters in the given series: B C E H L ? ?


a) XY b) MN c) QW d) OP

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