CD Exams and Rationale
1.Preventive measures for malaria least likely include:
a.Plating of Neem trees and other herbal plants.
b.Wearing of clothing that covers the arms and legs
at daytime.
c.Using mosquito repellents, mosquito coils.
d.None of these
Question 1 Explanation:
Wearing clothing that covers the legs and arms in the
EVENING prevents the occurrence of malaria. The
vector’s peak biting is from 9pm to 3am.
2. A person who harbors the microorganism but does
not manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease is
called:
a. Contact b. Infected c. Suspect d. Carrier
Question 2 Explanation:
Carriers harbor the microorganism but does not
manifest the signs and symptoms of the disease.
CONTACT = person who has a close association with a
person. SUSPECT = person whose medical history
reveals that he’s having the disease. INFECTED = person
who medical and diagnostic test reveals that he is
having the disease.
3. To prevent whooping cough, which of the following
vaccines should be given to infants?
a. BCG b. DPT c. OPV d. IPV
Question 3 Explanation:
Routine DPT immunization of all infants which can be
started at 1 ½ months of life and given at monthly
intervals in 3 consecutive months. This constitutes the
primary injection. Booster dose is given at the age of 2
years and again at 4-5 years of age.
4. Treatment regimen for Category I TB patient on the
continuation phase includes which Anti-TB drugs?
a. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
b. Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol
c. Etambutol and Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide, Etambutol, Isoniazid and Rifampicin
Question 4 Explanation:
Category I TB patient Intensive phase: Rifampicin,
Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol Continuation
Phase: Rifampicin and Isoniazid
The drug of choice for Schistosomiasis that kills all types
of microorganisms that can cause this communicable
disease is:
a.Metrifonate c. Oxamniquine
c. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate d. Praziquantel
Question 5 Explanation:
Schistosomiasis’ etiologic agents can be either of the
following: Schistosoma Mansoni, S. Haematobium, S.
Japonicum. Praziquantel (Biltricide) is the drug of choice
against all species. Alternative drugs are Oxamniquine
for S. Mansoni and Metrifonate for S. Haematobium.
Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) is for filariasis.
6.Nematode parasites Brugia Malayi and Wuchereria
Bancrofti causes the communicable disease called:
a. Schistosomiasis b.Epidemic Parotitis
c. Diphtheria d. Filariasis
Question 6 Explanation:
A - Schistosomiasis - Schistosoma Mansoni, S.
Haematobium, S. Japonicum B - Epidemic Parotitis
(MUMPS) – Mumps Virus C - Diphtheria –
Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus) D -
Filariasis
7. Prevention of TB includes the following measures:
a. BCG vaccination newborns
b. Public education about TB and its mode of
c. transmission, methods of control and early diagnosis.
Availability and accessibility of medical, laboratory and x-
ray facilities for examination.
d. All of these
Question 7 Explanation:
Preventive Measures of TB includes the ff: (1) Prompt
diagnosis and treatment (2) BCG vaccination of
newborns (3) Public education about TB and its mode of
(4) Transmission, methods of control and early
diagnosis (5) Availability and accessibility of medical,
laboratory and x-ray facilities for examination.
8.A child is diagnosed with dengue fever. The etiologic
agent for Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) is:
 Question 11 Explanation:
a. Chikungunya virus
Rumpel Leads Test or Torniquet Test is positive when
b. Aedes Aegypti
there are 20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1
C. Common household mosquito
inch square are observed.
d. Infected person
12. Clinical manifestations of DHF are divided into 3
Question 8 Explanation: stages. Which of the following is least likely observed
The etiologic agents for DHF are the following: during the toxic stage?
Dengue viruses (1,2,3,4) and Chikungunya virus. a. Severe abdominal pain
Vectors/ source of infection: Aedes Aegypti, b. Hematemesis
Common household mosquito, Infected person. c. High fever
9. Based on the National Tuberculosis Control Program d. Unstable BP
patients with TB are recommended to seek
Question 12 Explanation:
hospitalization if they have the following condition:
During the toxic or hemorrhagic stage, the temperature
a. Massive hemoptysis is lowered. Other s/s observed are the ff: Vomiting,
Frequent GI bleeding (hematemesis/melena), Severe
b. Pleural effusion
c. With complications abdominal pain, Unstable BP, Narrowed pulse pressure,
d. All of these Shock.
13. Which of the following term refers to the degree of
Question 9 Explanation: pathogenicity of a microbe, or in other words the
Patients with TB are recommended for hospitalizations relative ability of a microbe to cause disease?
with the following conditions: • Massive hemoptysis • a. Susceptibility
Pleural effusion • Military TB • TB meningitis • TB b. Virulence
pneumonia • Those requiring surgical intervention or c. Infection
with complications d. None of the above
10. Direct sputum smear microscopy (DSSM) is the
primary diagnostic tool in tuberculosis case finding. Question 13 Explanation:
Which of the following conditions does a DSSM is Virulence is the capacity of the microorganism to cause
contraindicated? the disease. It refers to the degree of pathogenicity of a
microbe, or in other words the relative ability of a
a. Fever microbe to cause disease when they multiply and grow
b. Cough in number.
c. Hemoptysis 14. The most hazardous period for development of
d. Tonsillitis clinical disease is how many months after infection with
Question 10 Explanation: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?
The only contraindication for sputum collection is
hemoptysis; in which case, DSSM will be requested after a. 4-5 months
control of hemoptysis. b. 2-3 months
11. Rumpel Leads Test for DHF is positive when: c. 6-12 months
d. 12-18 months
a. 10-15 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch
square are observed
Question 14 Explanation:
b. No petechiae are present
The most hazardous period for the development of
c. 15-20 petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1 inch
clinical disease after the infection with Mycobacterium
square are observed
Tuberculosis is 6-12 months.
d. 20 or more petechiae per 2.5 cm square or 1
inch square are observed
15. The time interval between the first exposure to the
a. Provide abdominal support
appearance of the first signs and symptoms is called: b. Feed the child during an attack
c. Allow the child to rest
a. Prodromal period
d. Special attention to diet is needed when the
b. Incubation period
child vomits after cough paroxysms.
c. Stage of illness
d. Convalescence Question 18 Explanation:
A child should not be fed during a cough attack to
Question 15 Explanation:
prevent aspiration.
Stage of Illness:  Incubation Period – time interval 19. Mang Jose is Category III TB patient. He asked the
between the first exposure to the appearance of the nurse about the duration of his treatment regimen
first signs and symptoms PRODROMAL PERIOD = during the intensive phase. Intensive phase in Category
premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex. III patients lasts for:
Frequent sneezing)  Period of Illness – patient is
a. 2 months
actually manifesting the signs and symptoms of the
b. 3 months
disease  Convalescence – is the gradual recovery of
c. 4 months
health and strength after illness
d. 5 months
16. Treatment for filariasis includes the administration Question 19 Explanation:
of which drug? Category III patients are new smear-negative PTB with
a. Metrifonate minimal parenchymal lesions on CXR. Treatment
b. Oxamniquine regimen includes Rifampicin, Isoniazid and
c. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate Pyrazinamide for 2 months in the intensive phase and
d. Praziquantel Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide in the continuation phase.

Question 16 Explanation:
20. During the fastidial stage of typhoid fever 3 cardinal
Diethycarbamazine Citrate (DEC) or Hetrazan is used for
symptoms are observed to the client. These cardinal
the treatment of filariasis.
symptoms include the following except:
17. Pertussis is becoming communicable during which
stage of illness?
a. Ladder-like fever
a. Catarrhal stage b. Rose spot
b. Paroxysmal stage c. Splenomegaly
c. Convalescence d. Hematochezia
d. All of these
Question 20 Explanation:
Question 17 Explanation: Prodromal Stage: 1st week (FEVER, Abdominal Pain,
Pertusis is communicable during the Catarrhal stage. - 7 Diarrhea, Constipation - sometimes). Fastidial Stage:
days after the exposure after exposure to 3 weeks after 2nd week 3 Cardinal symptoms (Ladder-like fever -
onset of typical paroxysms. STAGES I. Catarrhal Stage – Stairway fever, Rose Spot, Spleenomegaly).
fever, nasal catarrh (rhinitis nasal congestion), cough II. Defervescence Stage: 3rd week (GI Bleeding - melena,
Paroxysmal – 5-10 times rapid successive coughing. hematochezia) (Peritonitis (severe abdominal pain,
(Coughing in one expiration which ends in a whoop or a board-like/rigid abdomen). Lysis or Convalescent: 4th to
high-pitched CROW) III. Convalescence Stage (recovery) 5th week.

18. The mother of an infant with pertussis should be

instructed of the following except:
21. A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who
a. Category I
calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According
b. Category II
to the client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse
c. Category III
told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of
d. Category IV
urine is the side effect of which anti-TB drug?
Question 24 Explanation:
a. Isoniazid
Clients who had treatment with TB but failed to
b. Rifampicin
recover, relapse, and return after default is under the
c. Pyrazinamide
Category II of TB patient.
d. Ethambutol
25. Prodromal period is best described as:
Question 21 Explanation:
a. the gradual recovery of health and strength
Rifampicin causes the reddish-orange urine output.
after illness
The child presents with high fever and less hemorrhage.
b. patient is actually manifesting the signs and
The child’s DHF is classified as:
symptoms of the disease
a. Mild c. first exposure to disease
b. Moderate d. premonition of an impending attack of a
c. Severe disease
d. No DHF
Question 25 Explanation:
Question 22 Explanation:
Stage of Illness: Incubation Period – time interval
Mild DHF: slight fever, with or without petechial
between the first exposure to the appearance of the
hemorrhage Moderate DHF: high fever, but less
first signs and symptoms. PRODROMAL PERIOD =
hemorrhage, no shock Severe, frank type: flushing,
premonition of an impending attack of a disease (Ex.
sudden high fever, severe hemorrhage, followed by
Frequent sneezing). Period of Illness – patient is actually
sudden drop of temperature, shock and terminating in
manifesting the signs and symptoms of the disease.
recovery or death.
Convalescence – is the gradual recovery of health and
23. Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus is the etiologic agent of which
strength after illness.
communicable disease?

a. Schistosomiasis
b. Epidemic Parotitis Believe You Can And your Half way there!
c. Diphtheria
d. Filariasis Theodore Roosevelt.

Question 23 Explanation:
A - Schistosomiasis - Schistosoma Mansoni, S.
Claim That you are a REGISTERED NURSE!
Haematobium, S. Japonicum B - Epidemic Parotitis
(MUMPS) – Mumps Virus C - Diphtheria – GOD SPEED RN!
Corynebacterium diphtheria (Klebs-Loeffler Bacillus) D -
Filariasis
24. A client with TB has been treated before with Anti-
TB drug, however the treatment failed. The client is
under which category of TB patient?