“An Institute Where Success Begins”

PG-DIAMS
AIIMS, NEET-PG, PGIMER, JIPMER & UPSC ENTRANCE EXAMS

Must Know Facts Before Exam

Final
Punch a final step to the next level

 Compact and concise must read hand notes.

 Based on national board of examinations.
 Focused on high yield topics which have been asked
frequently in all PG & MCI entrance examinations.

PG-DIAMS

PG-DIAMS
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www.pgdiams.com
 Director’s Message
Dear Aspirant,
At Delhi Institute of Advance Medical Studies, a team of top-class experts and professionals are determined to provide
excellent and quality education to aspiring doctors .We have a mission and vision to give a world-class education to
our students and we fetch best scholars from the medical industry to enrich our team of faculty. We are among the
top institutes in India who offer best PG program which can prepare you for any PG Medical Entrance Exam.  Mr. Rajesh Sharma
Managing Director
Our faculty has over 10 years of experience in PG Medical Entrance Exam preparations and they will always guide you
so that you can advance in your career. Our faculty teachers will help you crack the toughest PG medical entrance
exams like NEET, AIIMS, AIPG, PGI, JIPMER etc. Our students have subsequently given a rock-solid performance by scoring extremely high
in not just PG exams of India but also International medical council exams like MCCEE, USMLE and many more. Our results indicate our
success story.
PG-DIAMS has consistently proved its efficiency by giving constant results in polishing student's skills and knowledge which encourages
students to become their best self. Our students have an average of 75% Pass percentage rate in several PG medical entrance exams.
Special MCQ based questionnaire will be taught which resembles the most popular medical entrance exams conducted around the
world. We focus on every student individually and all the problems that might arise while entrance exam is tackled and resolved. Stress,
lack of practice or learning, and any other problem will be dealt with patience and right solution. 'Practice makes a man perfect', we
always follow this rule at PG-DIAMS.
Preparation for examination is based on 4 pillars and they are clarity of concept, application expertise, and familiarity with context and
core knowledge of the subject. All these four pillars are the basis of our core curriculum. For arduous preparations, these four pillars
should be kept in mind.
We will identify your strengths and weaknesses to maximize your potential. We will help you take strides on the path of success by
solving all your concerns and giving you the right suggestions. Here, we will help you bring a positive change in your life by embedding
all the ingredients of success in your system so that you can conquer the world on your own terms. 
We wish you the best of luck for your future. 

Imparting Education For Perfection

T&D
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per Batch
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 What Makes Us A Unique PG Medical
PG Coaching
– DIAMS FINAL PUNCH
Institute In India?
 Teaching approach: 
Our classes are taught by an expert faculty who are MD/MS, qualified doctors with an
extensive knowledge of the practice and teaching students. Our approach is a comprehensive,
theory-based approach blended with multiple choice questions as per the exam requirements. The
NEET exam pattern is also included to help prepare our students for any sudden inclusion of NEET.
 Faculty
The classes are conducted by excellent faculty members who themselves are MD/MS qualified
doctors and who carry immense practicing and teaching experience. All the faculty members have
been carefully selected based on several factors such as their qualification, experience, and skillset
and whether they have passion for teaching.
 Test series & study material
Online test system gives the student flexibility to take tests any time to keep their memory meter
in check. Because constant revision and mock tests will enable the student to have grip over the
course while making their memory stronger and revised study material covering syllabus based on
the NEET pattern as per the exam requirements.
 Free specialized module & classes:
As PG-DIAMS student you will get the chance to attend the paid classes like picture based class,
computer based test, and special revision classes by top medicos as absolutely free.

PG-DIAMS OFFERS

GRAND VISUAL SESSION VIDEO LECTURES &

VI
Quick Revision of Picture Based Ques ons.
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Based on Latest Neet PG. Video lectures / e-notes of all subjects.
 An easy last minute recall for all PG
Divided in 3 modules suitable for all
aspirants.
year students.
Easily Accessible Via Laptop, Tablet or
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 Free Mock Test & Grand Test Series.

 With regular CBT mock test we will enhance your
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learning & compe ve spirit.

Users can free download PG DIAMS
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SATELLITE CLASSES
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PG – DIAMS FINAL PUNCH
BATCHES STARTING ON

Delhi Regular Batch 1st Batch- 20th Jan ,2018

2nd Batch-24th Feb, 2018
3rd Batch- 24th March, 2018
4th Batch -21st April, 2018
Ahmedabad Regular 24th Feb, 2018
Vadodra Regular 17th March, 2018
Rajkot Regular 24th Feb, 2018
Surat Regular 2nd Week of March, 2018
Hyderabad Regular 1st Batch-25th Nov, 2017 (Weekend)
2nd Batch-20th Jan, 2018 (Weekend)
3rd Batch- 10th Feb, 2018 (Weekend)
4th Batch- 17th March, 2018 (Weekend)
5th Batch- 7th April, 2018 (Weekend)
6th Batch-11th April, 2018 (Weekday)
Kolkata Regular 1st Batch-27th Jan, 2018
2nd Batch- 17th Feb, 2018
3rd Batch-24th March, 2018
Patna Regular 1st Batch-13th Jan, 2018
2nd Batch-10th Feb, 2018
3rd Batch-17th March, 2018
4th Batch, 7th April, 2018
Ranchi Regular & Foundation 1st Batch-10th Feb, 2018
Regular & Foundation 2nd Batch-24th Mar ,2018
Lucknow Regular 7th April, 2018
Kanpur Regular 14th April, 2018
Cuttack Regular 1st Batch-19th Aug, 2017 (Already Started)
Regular 2nd Batch-9th Sept, 2017 (Already Started)
Bangalore Regular 1st Batch-27th Jan, 2018
2nd Batch-31st March, 2018
Raipur Regular 1st Week of March, 2018
Chennai Regular 1st Batch 7th April, 2018
2nd Batch 14th April, 2018
Chandigarh Regular 1st Batch 7th April, 2018
2nd Batch 14th April, 2018
Thiruvananthapuram Regular 1st Batch 7th April, 2018
2nd Batch 14th April, 2018

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 PG – DIAMS FINAL PUNCH
MD/MS SUBJECT- WISE TEST SERIES -2018
Date SUBJECTS
28th Jan Anatomy
4th Feb Biochemistry
11th Feb GRAND TEST 64
18th Feb Physiology
25th Feb General Pathology
4th Mar Systemic Pathology
11th Mar GRAND TEST 65
18th Mar PSM
25th Mar Microbiology
1st Apr FSM
8th Apr GRAND TEST 66
15th Apr Ophthalmology/ENT
22nd Apr AIIMS MOCK TEST
29th Apr PGI Mock Test
06th May TENTATIVE DATE FOR AIIMS EXAM
13th May OFF FOR PGI CHANDIGARH EXAM
20th May GRAND TEST 67
27th May Pharmacology
3rd June MED – I (CVS/CNS/Endo)
10th June GRAND TEST 68
17th June MED-II (Resp/GIT/Kidney ABG Haematology)
24th June Anesthesia
1st July OBS
8th July GRAND TEST 69
15th July Gynae
22nd July Orthopedic
29th July Radiology
5th Aug Psychiatry
12th Aug GRAND TEST 70
19th Aug General Surgery
26th Aug Systemic Surgery
2nd Sep Dermatology
9th Sep GRAND TEST 71
16th Sep Pediatrics
23rd Sep Oncology
Oct-Dec MOCK Test Starts (NEET BASED PATTERN)
Oct-Dec MOCK Test Starts (AIIMS BASED PATTERN)

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 COURSES OFFERED IN PG
PG – DIAMS FINAL PUNCH

Pre Foundation Course

(For 2nd year Students appearing
For 3rd year Exams)
 Duration 2 Years.
 Weekend Classes.
 Relevant Study Material
Foundation Course
FOR 3rd (Pre final & 4th year
Will Be Provided.
(Final year Students)

 Duration 2 Years.
 Weekend Classes.
Regular Course  Offline/Online Test Series.
JAN/FEB/MARCH)  Relevant Study Material Will Be Provided.

 Duration: 7 to 8 months.
 Weekend classes.
 All subjects discussion in the class.
 Offline/online /Grand test series.
 Relevant study material will be provided.
Elite Course
(March/April)

Test & Discussion (T & D)  Prepares you for an exam in short

span of time.
 Helps in evaluating one’s potential
 8 to 11 subjects are covered
and opportunity to correct the
concept of subject.  All important topics are discussed in
the class.
 All subject wise discussions with
priority of hot topics are focused.  Course covers numerous MCQ’S.
 MCQ’S are formed in such a  Frequent tests are conducted.
manner where every MCQ’S is
bundled with multiple information &
evaluation.

Grand Test
 Duration: 3 hrs.
 Test are held on every 2nd Sunday of month.
 Explanatory answers from our Best faculty.
 Questions are based on latest Neet Pattern.
 All India Ranking.
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PG – DIAMS FINAL PUNCH

 Increased IgA deposits are seen in Henoch schonlein purpura

 Gene inhibiting apoptosis is bcl 2
 Firm warty vegetations along with the line of closure of valves is due toRheumatic heart disease
 Characteristic feature of rheumatic carditis is  Pancarditis


 In leprosy most common renal lesion seen is  MPGN



 Most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma in India is  Mixed cellularity



 Most common variety of Hodgkin’s lymphoma IsNodular sclerosis

 Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma has got the BEST prognosis
 Most common carcinoma of breast is Intra ductal carcinoma
 Most commonly employed stain for amyloidosis is Congo red with polarised light
 Clara cells are seen inBronchiole
 Russels body is found inPLASMA CELL
 Most common benign tumor of liver is HAEMANGIOMA
 Crew haircut appearance in X ray skull and gamma gandy bodies are seen inSickle Cell Anemia/ Thalassemia
 Father of modern pathology  Rudolf virchow
 Most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is  Rupture of Subpleural Blebs
 Involucrum is a new living bone and Sequestrum is a dead piece of bone
Most common cause of intracerebral bleeding is  Hypertension
 Ratio of beta to alpha cells of islets of langerhans is 2: 1 in new born and 4:1in adult
In cloudy swelling there is Accumulation of water intracellularly
 Broke’stumour is a tumour of  Hair follicles
 Feulgen reaction tests for  DNA
Target fibres are seen in  Motor neuron disease
 In aorta commonest site of affection in syphilis is  Ascending Aorta
 Lepra cell is  Histiocyte
Weibelpalade bodies are storage organelle for Von willebrand’s factor
 In diabetes mellitus, the characteristic kidney changes are  Nodular sclerosis (Kimmelstein Wilson lesion)
Commonest germ cell tumour is  Teratoma
 Worm which causes myocarditis is Trichenella
 Thyroglossal cysts may give rise to  Papillary carcinoma
 Most common carcinoma of the thyroid is papillary carcinoma
 Diagnosis of DIC is confirmed by demonstration of  Fibrin degradation product in serum
 Hypoxia is the most common cause of cellular injury
 One of the most common and earliest manifestation of ischemic injury is  Acute cellular swelling due to pump
failure
 Susceptibility to ischemia  Neurons <Myocardium<Skeletal muscle
 Dystrophic calcification occurs in previously damaged tissue with normal level of serum calcium
 Metastatic calcification occurs in normal tissue and the serum calcium is raised
 Kimmelsteil Wilson lesion of glomerulo is found in long standing diabetes mellitus (extra cellular hyaline
degeneration)
 Zenkers degeneration is a type of intraepithelial hyaline change occurs specifically in striated muscle
 Nuclear changes are Pyknosis, Karyorrhexis ,Karyolysis, Disappearance of stainable nuclei
 CASEOUS NECROSIS is a combination of coagulation and liquefaction necrosis
 When coagulation pattern is dominant, the process is called DRY gangrene
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 When liquefaction pattern is dominant the process is called WET gangrene
 HISTAMINE is the principal mediator of immediate phase of inflammation, richest source is mast cells
 Most critical step for function of complements is the activation of third component (C 3)
 Amount the complements C 3, C 5 are the most important inflammatory mediators
Mediators involved in vasodilation are Histamines, Anaphylatoxins, Prostaglandins, Nitric oxide
 The most useful in the context of acute illness is C reactive protein (synthesized in liver) and it is often used as
an index of severity of the illness
 Granulation tissue is highly vascularised connective tissue
 Causes of oedema are Increased permeability of capillary wall, Decreased colloid oncotic pressure of plasma,
Increased hydrostatic pressure, Sodium retentio, Lymphatic obstruction
 Chronic passive congestion of lungs seen in congestive heart failure Heart failure cells (haemosiderin laden
macrophages) are seen in this
 Causes of thrombosis are mainly virchow triad (Endothelial damage, change in blood flow, increased coagulability
of blood)
 As about 99% of emboli arise in Thrombi
 Paradoxical embolism implies to a conditon in which a right sided thrombus enters left side of heart via septal
defect or abnormal communication, leading to embolism
 HEART is the commonest source of Cerebral embolism
 Most (95%)pulmonary emboli arise in Deep veins of calf and (70%)pulmonary emboli are Asymptomatic
Caissons disease is actually chronic form of decompression sickness
 About 99% of infarcts are due to thromboembolism
 White infarcts occurs due to arterial obstructions (kidney ,myocardium, spleen)
 Red infarcts occurs due to venous occlusion found in loose tissue(lungs, brain, gut, liver)
 Shock is a condition of generalized hypoperfusion of tissue due to decrease in cardiac output, decrease in blood
volume, redistribution of blood
 Malignant tumour arising from epithelium is called carcinoma, and arising from mesenchyme is called sarcoma
 The ras oncogene is the best example of activation of point mutations
 Most useful stain for amyloid is Congo red stain which gives apple green birefringence under polarized light .
 Kidney is the most common organ to be affected by amyloidosis
 In liver the deposition of amyloid occurs in Space of disse
 In skin the deposition of amyloid occurs in Periarteriolar space
 Best biopsy site in the diagnosis of amyloidosis is Rectal mucosa
 Haemochromatosis is usually presents as Bronze Diabetes as it is associated with bronze discolouration of
skin ,diabetes mellitus, cirrhosis.Hypogonadism is an important feature.
 In liver hemosiderin is deposited mainly in cytoplasm of Kupffer cells and hepatocyte
 Melanin pigments is formed from  Tyrosine by the action of tyrosinase in presence of copper ion
 In Haemosiderosis deposition of haemosiderin mainly in tissue macrophages
Alpha interferon _Leucocyte,, Beta intereferon_Fibroblast ,,Gamma interferon Lymphocyte
 Wiskott aldrich syndrome is immunodeficiency state with thrombocytopenia, recurrent infections and eczema
 Polymorphism is multiple allelic form of a single gene but penetrance is the percentage of individuals carrying
an autosomal dominant gene and expressing the trait
 In lysosomal disease all are autosomal recessive except hunter disease (x linked)
 Taysachs disease is due to deficiency of hexosaminidase a which leads to accumulation of gm 2 ganglioside in
neurons of cns autonomic nervous system and retina
 Niemann pick disease is due to deficiency of Sphingomyelinase (Only In Type A And B )(In Type C Defect Is In
Intracellular Esterification Of Cholesterol)
Commonest tumour to metastasize to heart is Lung Carcinoma
 Endocarditis of SLE is called Libmansacks Endocarditis (Lse). Important Feature Is Either Side Of The Valve Is
Involved
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 Commonest cause of myocarditis is viral.
 Commonest cause of aortic aneurysm is Atherosclerosis
Abdominal aorta is the most commonly affected vessel in atherosclerosis.
 Fatal arrhythmias may be seen in  subendocardial infarction
 The most frequent cardiac tumour is metastasis (secondaries)
 The most frequent primary cardiac tumour for all age groups is  Myxoma
 The most frequent primary cardiac tumour in infants and children is Rhabdomyoma
 Most common valve involved in endocarditis is Mitral valve, and mitral regurgitation is the most common
feature of rheumatic endocarditis
 In septicemia and I.V drug abusers the commonest valve affected is Tricuspid
 Incidence of M.I increases with AGE , commonest site of M.I is left ventricle
 Arteriosclerosis affects the small arteries and arterioles and the whole wall is affected
 In monckeberg’s medial sclerosis the characteristic lesion is Ring like calcification with in the media of
medium size and small size muscular arteries. Intima and adventitia are normal .
 Giant cell arteritis is also called Temporal Arteritis, And Is The Commonest vasculitis in the adults
 The commonest vasculitis in the children is Kawasaki disease
 Takayasu’s disease is also called pulseless disease, aortic arch syndrome
 Classic PAN is necrotizing inflammation of medium size muscular arteries and the distribution of lesion’s in
descending order of frequency are kidney, heart, liver, GIT
 Higher incidence of Aortic dissection has been seen in marfan’s syndrome
 Berry aneurysm or saccular aneurysm or congenital aneurysm is the most frequent type of intracranial aneurysm
 Most common site is junction between anterior cerebral artery and anterior communicating artery (40%)
In bronchopulmonary sequestration the separated part of lung has blood supply directly from aorta or its
branches and not from the pulmonary artery.
Pulmonary embolism is diagnosed by ventilation-perfusion scan but pulmonary angiography is the gold
standard method
 Respiratory syncytial virus is the commonest cause of acute bronchiolitis
Most common cause of emphysema is smoking
Panacinar emphysema is associated with alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
Reid index is the ratio of the thickness of mucous gland layer to the thickness of wall (normal – 0.4), R i is
increased in chronic bronchitis
Kartagener’s syndrome comprises of Bronchiectasis, Sinusitis, Situsinversus
Giant cell pneumonia may be found in Measles
There are 4 stages in lobar pneumonia a. Stage of congestion b. stage of red hepatization c. stage of grey
hepatization d. stage of resolution
Most common causative organism of Primary Atypical Pneumonia is Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Most common organism in lung abscess is a anaerobic organism, second commonest is staphylococcus
Primary complex is also called GHON complex, and it has 3 components
Right lung (apex) is more commonly affected in secondary tuberculosis
Interstitial lung disease is a heterogenous group of diseases, characterized by diffuse interstitial fibrosis of
alveolar wall giving rise to honeycomb appearance
Lung carcinoma is the commonest malignancy in male (in India – oral carcinoma)
Squamous carcinoma is the commonest type seen in smokers, whereas Adenocarcinoma is the commonest
type in nonsmokers and female
Small cell carcinoma has the worst prognosis despite the best responses to radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
Weight of the liver is about 1.5kg (2.5% of body wt)
ITO cells are fat containing lipocytes of mesenchymal origin it is the storage amd metabolism site of vit A
Focal necrosis in liver is caused by infections
Periportal necrosis is seen in phosphorus poisoning and eclampsia
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Commonest cause of cirrhosis is alcoholic liver disease (60%)
All hepatitis viruses are RNA viruses except HBV
Hepatitis A is also known as infectious hepatitis
Hepatitis C is the commonest cause of chronic liver disease (50%) and (50%)leads to cirrhosis
In Hepatitis E the mortality in pregnant women is high (20%)
Important histologic findings of progressive liver Disease are piecemeal necrosis and bridging necrosis
Wilson’s disease is also called hepatolenticular degeneration
The commonest benign tumour is cavernous hemangioma, secondary malignancy is much more common than
primary
Klatskin tumours arises from the part of common bile duct between the junction of cystic duct and the
confluence of right and left hepatic ducts. (adenocarcinoma)
Adenoma is the commonest benign tumor of stomach
Pseudomembranous colitis is most commonly caused by toxin of C. difficile ,clindamycin.
Commonest site of colonic diverticula is sigmoid colon
Commonest benign tumour of appendix is mucinous cystadenoma
Celiac sprue is non tropical sprue
Achalasia cardia is a condition of failure of relaxation and dilatation of lower esophagus,due to loss of myenteric
plexus
The most commonest esophageal carcinoma is squamous cell ca. In india whereas adenacarcinoma is the
commonest type of cancer worldwide
Bacterial cultures and sensitivity is a gold standard test for H. pylori
Autoimmune gastritis mainly affects body and fundus diffusely
Anterior wall of duodenum is more commonly involved in ulcer, duodenal ulcer is most common than gastric
ulcer
Commonest site of ca stomach is the lesser curvature of antrum and pylours region
Krukenberg tumour is an uncommon metastatic adenocarcinoma of ovaries, primary may be in stomach
Crohn’s disease – primarily affecting the terminal ileum, skip lesions found,transmural lesion, creeping fat, lead
pipe appearance, cobblestone appearance, fissures, fistula or sinus, crypt abscess, paneth cell metaplasia
Ulcerative colitis – onlysubmucosa and mucosa are affected, continuous lesion (pancolitis), pseudopolyps,
pyoderma gangrenosum, toxic megacolon
At least 100 polyps are necessary for diagnosis for FAP. Chances of developing malignancy in these polyps are
almost 100%
Gardeners syndrome is a variant of FAP and is characterized by innumerable adenomatous polyps with multiple
osteomas, fibromatosis, and epidermoid cysts
Left sided colon(annular and encircling ) is the commonest (50%)site, 25%at rectum and distal sigmoid colon
and another 25%at descending colon and proximal sigmoid
Carcinomas at right side are usually polypoid and fungating
Most important prognostic factor in colorectal carcinoma is its depth (stage)
Commonest site of carcinoid tumour is appendix (followed by ileum)
Acute nephritic syndrome is glomerular disease characterized by gross hematuria ,mild to moderate proteinuria
and hypertension
In renal insufficiency GFR is 20-50%of normal, in renal failure GFR is less than 20% , in the end stage renal
disease GFR is less than 5%.
In henoch schonlein prupura the deposition of Ig A is deposited into mesangial region.
Tamm horsfall protein is a specific urinary glycoprotein, normally secreted by cells of ascending limb of henle
loop and distal tubules.
Commonest (70%)cause of renal artery stenosis is  atheromatous plaque at the origin of renal artery
Adult polycystic kidney is a autosomal dominant condition and usually bilateral
Childhood polycystic kidney is a autosomal recessive condition and usually bilateral
Lipoid nephrosis (minimal change disease ) is the commonest cause of nephritic syndrome in children
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In acute proliferative glomerulonephritis the mechanism of injury is Immune complex mediated
The number of crescents is an important prognostic factor in RPGN
MGN (membranous glomerulonephritis) is the commonest glomerulonephritis causing nephritic syndrome in
adults .
Loss of foot processes has been seen in MGN and DM
Ig A nephropathy is (bergers disease) whereas buerger’s disease is seen in smokers (it is a cause of intermittent
claudication)
In Ig A nephropathy (bergers disease) the usual presentation is recurrent gross/microscopic hematuria
Hypertension is the common clinical feature in chronic glomerulonephritis ,and the chances of developing
chronic GN is highest with crescentric GN and is lowest with post streptococcal GN
Commonest GN causing nephrotic syndrome in adult is  Membranous glomerulonephritis..
Characteristic lesion of chronic pyelonephritis is  Coarse, discrete, corticomedullary scarring overlying a
deformed or dilated blunted calyx
Acute tubular necrosis is  the commonest cause of Acute renal failure
Malignant hypertension  Flea bitten appearance of kidney, hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (onion skin like
appearance of the vessels)
Benign nephrosclerosis  gross appearance  bilaterally symmetrical, finely granular contracted kidneys
grain leather appearance
Hypernephroma is also called clear cell carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, grawitztumour
In renal cell Ca commonest (70%) cells are clear cells.
Hematuria is the most diagnostic finding which is usually intermittent
Renal pelvis Ca, is a transitional cell carcinoma
Commonest (90%) neoplasm of bladder is  Transitional cell carcinoma
Interstitial cystitis is also known as hunner’s ulcer
Commonest structural defect in RBC with Hb abnormality is heriditary spherocytosis.
Capillary fragility is assessed by hess test
Dithionite test is used for Hb-S
Earliest sign of megaloblastic anemia is increased neutrophil segmentation
Teardrop poikilocytosis of red cells is seen in  Myelofibrosis
Thromboasthenia is a defect of platelet aggregation
Hemoglobins; embryonic < 12 wks gower 1 (e 4), gower 2(alpha 2,e2) hb f (alpha 2, gamma2), hbbarts (gamma 4
Iron deficiency should not be considered as a cause of anaemia in the first 3 months of life, unless thereis
considerable perinatal blood loss.
Total iron content of normal adult is 5 gm (child 0.5)
Earliest change of iron deficiency anemia is decreased serum ferritin
Increased excretion of figlu after administration of histidine is a feature of folate deficiency anaemia
Chronic granulomatous disease (NADPH oxidase) is  Diagnosed by Nitroblue tetrazolium test
In chronic liver disease factor VIII is increased but all other factors are depressed
IN pregnancy ,all factors are increased except XI and XIII and antithrombin III
Haemophilia A is due to factor VIII deficiency, Haemophilia B is due to factor VIII deficiency, Haemophilia C is due
to deficiency of factor XI, in parahaemophilia deficiency is factor V
Maximum dose of whole blood to be given in one transfusion is 20 ml/kg., usual dose of plasma is 10 ml/kg
Cryoprecipitate is very rich source of factor VIII
In primary type polycythemia erythropoietin is always decreased, whereas in secondary its increased.
Multiple myeloma is the commonest primary malignant tumour bone (vertebra)
Leukemia is the commonest malignancy of child hood. (ALL most common)(Auer rods are diagnostic of AML)
Hairy cell leukemia is a rare but distinctive b cell neoplasm.
In Hodgkins lymphoma the BEST prognosis is for(popcorncells) lymphocytic predominant, and the worst
prognosis is for lymphocytic depletion
Commonest lymphoma in children is Non hodgkins lymphoma(NHL)
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Lewy Bodies Parkinson’s ds
Russel bodies Multiple myeloma
Mallory Alcoholism
Donovana Leishmaniasis
Herring bodies G- 6–P–D
Hirona / Neurofibrillary tangles Alzheimer’s ds
Negribodies Rabies
Pick bodies Picks ds
Howell jolly bodies Sickle cell anemia
Councilman bodies Yellow fever
Reilly bodies Hurler ds
Giagar bodies Sporotrichiosis
Herring bodies Neurohypophysis
Dohle bodies seen in Endoplasmic reticulum
Michaelisgutamann bodies Malakoplakia
Zebra bodies Metachromatic leucodystrophy
Helber staedfer prowazeki bodies Sarcoidosis
Asteroid Sarcoidosis
Torres bodies Yellow fever
Feruginous bodies Asbestosis
Lafora bodies Myoclonic epilepsy
Aschoff bodies Rheumaticfever
Call exner bodies Granulosa theca cell tumor
Schiller duval bodies Yolk sac tumor
Civatte bodies Lichenplanus
Creola bodies Asthma
Gandy bodies Congestive splenomegaly
Verrocay bodies Schwannoma
HEART SOUND
S1 – produced by closure of AV valve
 Loud S1
 Normal in children
 Anaemia, pregnancy and sinus tachycardia
 Thyrotoxicosis, Beri-beri, AV fistula
 Mitral and tricuspid stenosis
 Short PR interval
 Soft S1
 Sinus bradycardia
 Prolonged PR interval
 Severe MR
 Chronic severe MR
 Acute MI
 Myocarditis
 Ventricular aneurysm
 Cardiomyopathy
 Calcified MS
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 Variable S1
 AV dissociation
 Atrial fibrillation
 Complete heart block
 Multiple ectopics
 Ventricular tachycardia
 Atrial flutter with varying block
 Reversed split S1
 Mitral stenosis
 Left atrial myxoma
 Left bundle branch block
S2 – Produced by closure of semilunar valves (A2P2)
 Loud P2 – Pulmonary hypertension
 Loud A2 – Systemic hypertension,Aortitis,Aortic aneurysm
 Wide split S2 (P2 component is delayed)
a. Prolonged RV ejection
 Pulmonary stenosis
 ASD
 Acute pulmonary embolism
 Right ventricular failure
b. Delayed electrical impulse to RV – Right bundle branch block
c. Increased hang out interval – Atrial septal defect
d. Earlier LV ejection – severe MR
 Reversed splitting of S2 (A2 component delayed)
a. Delayed electrical activation of LV
b. LBBB
S3: Caused by rapid ventricular filling with prerequisites of
 Dilated ventricle and Nonstenosed valve
 Normal in children, pregnancy, young < 40 yr.
 Ventricular failure
 Hyperkinetic states
 Volume overloads: AR/PR, MR/TR
 Pericardial knock in constrictive pericarditis
 Left atrial myxoma
S4: Presystolic sound caused by forcible atrial contraction
 Heard in elderly> 60 yrs and in patients of systemic hypertension
 LVH: Aortic stenosis
HOCM
 Restrictive CMP
 RVH: Pulmonary stenosis
Pulmonary artery hypertension
Restrictive CMP
 Ischemia or infarction
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 AR/MR/TR
 Prolonged PR interval
 Classification and causes:
a. Midsystolic murmur:
 Aortic stenosis
 Pulmonary stenosis
 Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
 Fallot’s tetralogy
 Atrial septal defect
b. Pansystolic murmur
 Mitral regurgitation
 Ventricular septal defect
 Tricuspid regurgitation
c. Late systolic murmur
 Mitral valve prolapse
 Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d. Early diastolic murmur
 Aortic regurgitation
 Pulmonary regurgitation
 Graham Steel murmur (pulmonary incompetence due to pulmonary HT and MS)
e. Mid-diastolic murmur
 Mitral stenosis
 Austin flint (aortic regurgitation impairing mitral diastolic diastolic flow)
 Tricuspid stenosis
 Carey-Coombs murmur (Rheumatic fever)
f. Continuous murmurs
 Patent ductusarteriosus
 Coronary AV fistula
 ASD
 Mammary souffle
 Anomalous left coronary artery
 Ruptured aneurysm of sinus of Valsalva
 Proximal coronary artery stenosis
 Aortopulmonary window
 Right-sided murmurs are accentuated during inspiration and left sided are louder during expiration
 Murmurs of HOCM and MVP goes opposite to all other murmurs, as they increase while:
 Standing
 Valsalva’s maneuver
 Inhalation of amynitrate
 Decrease of
 Squatting
 Isometric exercise
 Search for cases in epidemic is done till  Twice the Incubation period since last case
 Point source Epidemic  Sharp rise/fall, all cases in 1 Incubation period
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 Disease imported to a country  Exotic Disease
 Phase I clinical trial of drugs done on  Healthy volunteers
 MMR is a  Ratio
 Case fatality rate  Killing power of a disease
 Marc Koska developed  Disposable K1-syringe (auto-disabled)
 Measles vaccine stored at  (+)2° to (+) 8° C
 Rubella is  Live vaccine & C/I in pregnancy
 Period of infectivity of measles  4 days before to 5 days after appearance of rash
 Yellow fever Vaccine (17 D)  Live Vaccine
 Lyophilised (freeze dried) Vaccines  BCG, Yellow Fever, Measles, MMR
 Cold Chain Temperature  + 2° to + 8° C (Except OPV: -20° to -40° C)
 Sensitivity  True positives (& Specificity  True Negatives)
 PPV  is α Prevalence
 Dysphagia, dysarthria and diplopia seen in  Clostridium botulinum food poisoning
 Leishmaniasis (Kala Azar) is transmitted by  Sand Fly (Phlebotamus)
 DOC for Kala Azar (Black sickness)  Sodium Stibo-gluconate (Antimonials)
 DOC for Lympho granuloma venerum  Tetracycline
 Malaria exhibits  Cyclo-propogative transmission
 Vector of urban malaria  Anopheles stephensi
 Vector of KFD in India  Hemophysalis (Hard Tick)
 Japanese Encephalitis, Pigs are  Amplifier Hosts
 Torniquet test (dengue) is +ve  >20 petechial spots per sq. inch in cubital fossa
 Reservoir in Chikungunya fever  Primates (monkeys)
 Reservoir of Polio  Man (only)
 HEV transmission  Faeco-oral route
 Hydatid disease cysts in  Postero-superior lobe of liver
 Typhoid diagnosed in 1st week by  Blood Culture
 Yersinia pseudotuberculosis resembles  Typhoid/Appendicitis (in humans)
 8th Day Disease  Tetanus neonatorum
 DOC Cholera (Pregnancy)  Furazolidone
 Diagnosis in RNTCP  2 sputum smear examination (ZN Staining)
 RNTCP Objectives  >85 % cure rate &>70 % case detection rate
 Treatment duration of MBL  12 months (Surveillance 5 years)
 Elimination Level of Leprosy  <1 per 10,000
 IP of yellow fever  2 – 6 days
 Validity of YF vaccination Certificate  10 days - 10 years
 HIV MTCT  30 %
 HIV MTCT due to breast feeding  16 %
 HIV MTCT Prevention with Nevirapine  50%
 Nevirapine in MTCT given to child  Within 72 hours
 Zidovudine is C/I with antiretroviral drig  Stavudine
 Best marker of HIV progression  CD4 : CD8 ratio
 MC Opportunistic Infection in HIV  Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia (TB in India)
 Blood screening before transfusion  HIV/ HBV/ HCV/ Malaria/ Syphilis
 Epidemic typhus main mammalian reservoir  Human beings
 Soft Tick is vector of  Q-fever, Relapsing Fever & KFD (except India)
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 Avian Influenza DOC  Oseltamivir 150 mg BD X 5 days
 Last outbreak of Plague  Village Hatkoti, Simla (2002)
 Indicator of operational efficiency in Malaria  ABER (Annual Blood Examination Rate)
 Height/ ³√Weight  Ponderal Index
 Body Mass Index (BMI)  Weight (kg)/ Height2 (metre)
 Highest Growth Rate in India (Census 2011)  Dadra & Nagar Haveli
 India is in Demographic cycle  Stage 3 (Declining BR and declining DR)
 Highest Life Expectancy  Japan: 82
 Life expectancy Japan  M: 79 years & F: 86 years
 NPP 2000, Bring ‘TFR to replacement level’ by  2010
 % Geriatric population in India  8.1 %
 Infant Mortality rate  No. of infant deaths per 1000 Live births
 IMR of Japan  3 per 1000 LB (MMR: 7 per 1,00,000 LB)
 Normal respiratory rate in a newborn  40 – 60 breaths per minute
 Pearl Index (Failure rate per HWY)  Contraceptive Efficacy
 Failure rate of condoms  2 – 14 per HWY
 Who Oligospermia  Sperm Count <20 million/HPF
 World Health day  7th April
 National Maternity Benefit Scheme  Rs 500/- per birth to poor women (first 2 births)
 Short stature in High Risk Pregnancy  < 140 cms
 Mental retardation if  IQ Level < 70
 Golden rice is rich in  ß-carotene (and Iron)
 Milk is poor in  Vitamin C and Iron
 Pulse with highest protein content  Soyabean (43%)
 Reference protein  Egg
 Toxin in Lathrism  BOAA
 Pellagra  Niacin deficiency
 No plant source for vitamins  B12 and D
 Tests of pasteurization  Phosphatase test, Coliform Count, Std plate count
 Horrocks Apparatus (Starch Iodide indicator)  Chlorine demand estimation
 Level of residual level of chlorine in water  0.5 ppm (mg/litre) for contact period 1hr
 Maximum tolerable level of nitrates in water  50 mg/litre
 Anopheles larvae rest  Parallel to under surface water
 Aedes larvae breed in  Artificial collection of water
 Kata thermometer measures  Cooling power of air
 Maximum allowable sweat rate  4.5 litres per 4 hours
 Vit-D resistant rickets inheritance  Sex linked dominant
 Burtonian Line (Blue Line on Gums)  Lead poisoning (Plumbism)
 Group addressed &lecture on specific topic  Symposium
 The Factory Act and ESI Act were passed in  1948
 Recommended per capita space in Factory Act  500 Cubic feet
 No.of PHCs in India  23,236
 Bhore committee (1946) recommended  ‘3 Million Plan’&‘Social Physicians’
 ‘Multi-purpose Workers’ introduced by  Kartar Singh Committee
 ‘Inventory’ (of materials) means  Stock on hand at any time
 Scatter/Dot Diagram represents  Correlation
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 Histogram is  Continuous quantitative data presentation
 Mean (μ) + 2 SD (σ)  95 % of total values
 Cluster Random Sampling  Evaluation of Immunization Coverage
 Chi-square χ2 Test  Sig. of association b/w 2 qualitative characteristics
 Father of Medicine/First True Epidemiologist  Hippocrates
 Father of Public Health  Cholera
 First Country to Socialise Medicine completely  Russia
 Health as a “State of complete physical, social & mental well being” was defined by  WHO
 HDI(Human Development Index) comprises–Knowledge (Literacy & Mean years of schooling), Income &
Longevity (Life Expectancy at Birth)
 Life Expectancy is a  Mortality Indicator (Positive Health Indicator)
 “Epidemiological Triad” comprises of  Agent, Host & Environment
 Extermination of organism is  Eradication
 Action taken prior to onset of disease is  Primary Prevention
 Early Diagnosis & Treatment are  Secondary Prevention
 Ivory Towers of Disease  Large Hospitals
 ICD-10 Classification is for  Diseases
 Prevalence is a  Proportion (Total=New + Old Cases)
 Total no. of deaths/Total no. of cases is  Case Fatality Rate
 Observed Deaths/Expected Deaths is  Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)
 Prevalence/Duration is  Incidence
 Both exposure & outcome have occurred before study starts in  Case Control Study
 Cohort Study  Forward Looking/Prospective Study
 Matching  Removes confounding (Ensures Comparability)
 Relative Risk is  Incidence among Exposed/ Incidence among non-exposed
 Framingham Heart Study is a  Cohort Study
 Heart of a Control Trial is  Randomisation
 Occurrence of a Disease Clearly in excess of normal expectancy  Epidemic
 Disease imported in a country where it doesn’t occur  Exotic
 Iatrogenic Disease is  Physician-induced
 First case to come to notice of investigator  Index Case
 Pseudo-Carriers are  Carriers of avirulent Organisms
 Malaria parasite in Mosquito is  Cyclo-propagative Transmission
 Gap between Primary case & Secondary Case is Serial Interval
 Yellow Fever/BCG/Measles are  Live Vaccines
 First Vaccine to be discovered  Small Pox Vaccine(Edward Jenner)
 Risk of Cold Chain failure is greatest at  Sub-centre& Village level
 Quarantine is for  Healthy Contacts
 Most effective sterilizing agent  Autoclaving (Steam under pressure)
 Beaching Powder contains  33% available chlorine
 Advantage gained by screening  Lead Time
 Sensitivity identifies  True Positives
 Usefulness of a screening test is given by  Sensitivity
 Small Pox was declared Eradicated on  8 May, 1980
 Rash in Chicken pox is  Pleomorphic and Dew-drop like
 Koplik Spots are diagnostic of  Measles (upper 2nd molar)

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 Incubation Period for Measles is  10-14 days
 Strain for Measles Vaccine is  Edmonston Zagreb
 Strain for Rubella Vaccine  RA 27/3
 Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (Bird Flu) is b  Type A (H5N1 strain) virus
 Hundred Day Cough is  Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
 DOC for Chemoprophylaxis of Meningococcal Men  Rifampicin
 Positive Schick Test indicates  Susceptible to Diphtheria
 Inability to drink is a sign of.  Very Severe Disease
 SARS is caused by  Corona Virus
 Overall Prevalence of TB infection  30 - 40 %
 Sputum Smear +ve at or after 5months ATT  Defaulter
 Only Bacteriostatic drug in Primary ATT Drugs  Ethambutol
 Category II treatment (RNTCP) duration is  8 Months (3m IP + 5m CP)
 Who has recommended ‘DANISH 1331’ strain for  BCG Vaccine
 Failure in RNTCP  Sputum +ve at/after 5 months t/t
 Case finding Tool of choice in RNTCP is  putum Smear (ZN Staining)
 DOTS is  Directly Observed Treatment, Short Course Chemotherapy
 Relapse/Defaulter/Failure in RNTCP is classified as  Category II (8 Months treatment)
 For every 1 clinical case of Poliomyelitis, there are 1000 subclinical Cases
 Polio stool samples are transported in  Reverse Cold Chain (+20 to +80 C)
 HBeAg is Marker of  Infectivity/Viral Replication
 ORS Solution should be used within  24 Hours
 Enteric Fever includes  Typhoid & Para-typhoid Fevers
 Chandlers’ Index for Hookworms is  Av. no. of Eggs/gm of stool
 MC arboviral Disease is  Dengue
 Presumptive Treatment in Malaria  Chloroquine
 Only communicable disease of man that is always fatal  Rabies
 Main Vector for Yellow Fever is  Aedes aegypti
 Pigs in Japanese Encephalitis are  Amplifier Hosts
 KFD is transmitted by  Haemophysalis
 Main reservoir of Plague in India  Tateraindica (Wild Rodent)
 Scrub typhus is caused by  Rickettsia tsustsugamushi
 Sandfly transmits  Leishmaniasis (Kala Azar)
 Elimination Level for leprosy  <1/10,000
 MDT for PBL is given for  6 months
 Yaws is caused by  Treponemapertenue
 Slims’ Disease is  AIDS
 Rule of Halves is seen in  Hypertension
 MC cause of heart disease in 5-30 yr old is  Rheumatic fever
 WHO Criteria for diagnosis of RF/RHD are based on  Revised Jones Criteria
 MC Cancer in India is Lung Cancer (male)  Cervical cancer (Females)
 Pap Smear should be done  at beginning of sexual activity & then every 3 yrs
 BMI is  Weight (Kgs)/Height2(m2)
 Waist Hip Ratio indicates Obesity in Women when  >0.85
 WHO Blindness is  <3/60 in better eye
 MCC of Blindness  Cataract
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 Modified Plan Operation (1977) was based on  API
 In Malaria program, MPW does Active Surveillance every  14 days
 NHP 2002 envisages Kala Azar Elimination by  2010
 Elimination Level of Leprosy  <1/10,000
 Under RNTCP, Case finding is  Passive
 Prevalence of Blindness in India  1.1%
 Under RCH Program, Kit A, B are kept at  ubcentre Level
 India was certified free of dracunculiasis on  Feb 2000
 Annual growth rate for India  1.64%
 Sex ratio  No. of females/1000 males
 Completely family Size represents  TFR(Total Fertility Rate)
 2 child norm means  NRR=1
 No. of Eligible Couples in India  150-180 ECs/1000 populn
 Conventional Contraceptives  Condoms/Spermicides
 Progestasert (3rd gen IUD) releases  65 mcg/day Progesterone
 MC complaint of IUD insertion is  Bleeding
 Only Non-steroidal OCP  Centchroman (Saheli)
 MTP Act, 1971 was passed in  April 1972
 For sterilization, age of Husband should be  25 yrs
 Contraceptive Efficacy/failure is measured by  Pearl index (____/HWY)
 3 most important MCH problems  Malnutrition, Infection & Unregulated fertility


 MC disorder to be screened in neonates  Neonatal Hypothyroidism

 Low Birth Weight is  Birth Weight <2.5 Kg
 Most sensitive indicator of growth among children  Weight
 World’s greatest Public Health Tool is  Immunisation
 Denominator for MMR  Live Births
 MCC of MMR is  Hemorrhage
 Juvenile is age  <18 yrs (boys) <18 yrs (Girls)
 Alcohol yields energy of  7 Kcal/gram
 Protein requirement  0.83 gm/kg/day
 Most important Essential fatty Acid is  Linoleic Acid
 Richest Source of Vitamin-A/D is  Halibut Liver oil
 First Clinical Sign of Xerophthalmia  Conjunctiva lXerosis
 Tocopherols are  Vitamin-E
 Aminoacid converted in body to Niacin  Tryptophan
 Richest Source of Vitamin-C  Amla (Indian Gooseberry)
 Adult Pregnant females are Anemic if  Hb< 11 gm%
 Optimum Level of Fluorine intake  0.5-0.8 ppm (mg/L)
 Soyabean contains  43.2% proteins
 Best among food proteins  Egg
 An Indian Reference Man weight  60 kg
 Best indicator of Protein Quality  NPU
 First Indicator of PEM  under-Weight for Age
 Two-in-One salt contains  Iron+Iodine
 Toxin in Lathyrism  BOAA
 Phosphatase Test is done for  Efficiency of pasteurization
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 Acculturation is  Cultural Contact
 IQ  Mental Age/Chronological Age X 100
 Disinfecting Action of chlorine is due to  Hypochlorous Acid
 Residual Level of Chlorine in Water  0.5 mg/L X Contact period 1 Hr
 Temporary Hardness of Water is due to  Ca++& Mg++ Bicarbonates
 Anemometer measures  Air Velocity
 Most satisfactory method of Refuse disposal  Sanitary Landfill/Controlled Tipping
 Water Seal in Sanitary latrine is  2 cms
 Best approach for arthropod control  Environmental Control
 Tiger Mosquito  Aedes
 Paris green is a  Stomach Poison
 Pyrethrum is a  Space Spray
 Yellow bag is used for disposal of B  at. 1,2,3 & 6
 Plumbism is  Lead poisoning
 MC Occupational Cancer  Skin Cancer
 Preplacement Examination is a part of  Ergonomics
 Indian Factories Act, 1948 recommends per capita space  min.500 cu.ft.
 Sickness Benefit under ESI Act,1948  91 days
 Census takes place every  10 years
 1,3,6,7,8, 9,11 Median is  7
 Normal Distribution Curve is  Bell Shaped Symmetric
 To test significance if Difference bet two proportions  Chi-Square test
 Focus group Discussion should have  60-12 members
 NHP 2002 says, Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis by  2015
 Bhore committee was ESTABLISHED in  1943
 MPW was given by  Kartar Singh Committee
 1 PHC is for a population of  30,000
 Int’l Conference at Alma-Ata (1978) gave concept of  Primary Health Care
 MDGs have to be achieved by  2015
 MPW is located at  Subcentre level
 Greatest risk of Cold Chain failure is at  Subcentre& village level
 World Health day  7 April
 ‘O’ in GOBI Campaign (UNICEF) stands for  Oral Rehydration therapy
 Diseases under Int’l Health Regulations  Cholera, Plague & Yellow fever (Small Pox, Wild Polio, Human
Influenza & SARS)
 Census
 Census population count in reference to 1 st march
 Legal basis f census based on census act 1948
 It comes under ministry of home affairs
 First regular census in India started in 1881 and rest took place at ten year interval
 Disease subjected to international surveillance
 Louse born typhus fever
 Malaria
 Polio
 Rabies
 Influenza
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 Relapsing fever
 Salmonellosis
 Disease in which chemoprophylaxis is advisable
 Bacterial conjunctivitis
 Diphtheria
 Influenza
 Malaria
 Meningococcal meningitis
 Plague
 Cholera
 Secondary Attack Rate
 Chicken pox--90%
 Prtusis--90%
 Mumps--86%
 Measles--80%
 Small pox--35-45%
 Period of Communicability MMR
 Measles--4 days before to 5 days after appearance of rash
 Mumps--4-6 days before to 7 days after appearance of symptoms
 Rubella--7 days before to 7 days after appearance of rash
 Chicken pox--1-2 days before to 4-5 days after appearance of rash
 Influenza-1-2 days before to 1-2 after appearance of symptoms
 Diptheria--14-28 days from disease onset
 Food born intoxication nd Active principles
 Lathyrism--beta oxalyl amino alanine
 Endemic ascites--pyrrolizidene alkaloids
 Aflatoxicosis—aflatoxin
 Epidemic dropsy—sanguirine
 Triage system
 Red- high priority-immediately. Transfer for resuscitation of life/limb saving surgery in next 6 hr
 Yellow- med priority- possible resuscitation or life/limb saving surgery in next 24 hr
 Green--low priority- ambulatory pt-minor/mod injury
 Black--least priority--dead/moribund pt
 Water related diseas
 Water borne disease-diarrhoea,cholera,typhoid,dysentery,polio,hepatitis A and E
 Water based disease-snails--schistosomiasi,cyclops-dracunculiasi
 Water related vector di-malaria, filariasis, yellow fever, trypanosomiasis
 Water source/washed di-trachoma,scabies,conjuntuvitis, bacilkary and amobucdysntry, skinsepsis, lice,
salmonellosis, worminfestatn
 Heat Stress Index% of heat storage capacity of an average man
 0No thermal stress
 10-30Mild to mod heat strain
c. 40-60Severe heat strain
 70-90Very severe heat strain
 100Upper limit of heat tolerance
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 Hardness of watersoap destroying power of water
 Temporary h.-d/t bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
 Permanent h.-d/t sulphate,chloride,nitrate of Ca and Mg. Permutit process-base exchange method and
addition of sod. Bicarbonate removes both temp and perma hardness. Nalgonda tech- defloration of water
done by phosphate
 State with highest sex ratio Kerala, 1084
 State with lowest sex ratio Daman & Diu, 618
 Instruments
 Anemometer-for low air velocity
 Kata thermometer-cooling power f air
 Assman sling psychrometer-humidity f air
 Symons rain gauze-measurs ppt. frain, snow, hail, dew, frost
 Dial thermometer-cold chain temp monitoring
 Salter scale-measure b. at
 Winchester quart bottle--asses physical and chemical quality f drinking water
 Chloroscope--measur residual cl in water
 Colorimeter--determine colour of water
 Chloronome--mixing cl in water
 Sound level meter--intensity of sound in db
 Pattern kopfer test--measure co2 content of air
 Pocket dosimeter-cumulative radiation exposure to an individual
 Stevenson screen-measuring air temperature
 WHO classification of mental retardation
 Mild MR--50-70
 Mod MR--35-49
 Sever MR--20-34
 Profound MR--<20
 Level of intelligence
 Idiot-0-24
 Imbecile-25-49
 Moron-50-69
 Borderline-70-79
 Low normal-80-89
 Normal-90-109
Superior-110-119
 Very superior-120-139
 Near genius->140
 Wind speed
 0.5 m/sComplete calm
 3.3 m/sslight breeze
 10 m/sStrong wind
 15-20 m/sStorm
 25-30 m/sGale
 >30-50 m/sHurricane

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 Contents or structures passing through:
 Between superior and middle constrictor:
 Stylopharyngeus muscle and its nerve
 9th nerve
 Carotid sheath: internal jugular vein Common carotid a. (int. carotid a. upper part)
Vagus n. (+9th, 11th &12th n. at level of parotid)
 Mandibular canal/foramen: - inferior alveolar nerve and vessels
 Incisive foramen: - terminal part of greater palatine vessels &nasopalatine nerve
Superior orbital fissure Inferior orbital fissure Optic canal
 Nv. 3,4,5  Maxillary nerve  Optic nerve
 Frontal + nasal +lacrimal nerve &  Zygomatic nerve  Ophthalmic a.
their ducts
 Orbital br. From pterygopaletine  Sympathetic
 Superior & inferior ophthalmic vein ganglia nerve
 Ophthalmic br. Of 5th& 6thnv.  Infra-orbital vessels  CRV
 Lower border provides attachment
to common tendinous ring of zinn.
Named nerves:
 Nerves intermedius of wrisberg : sensory component of 7thnv(taste from ant. 2/3 tongue & gen. Sense from
ext. auditory canal)
 Jacobson’s N.: Tympanic br. Of 9thnv. It forms tympanic plexus in middle ear & enters the petrous bone
through tympanic canaliculus
 Arnold’s/alderman’snv. : Auricular br. Of 10thnv.(vagus)
 Vidian nerve:
 Nerve to pterygoid canal (7th). Branch of GSPN containing parasymp. Secreto motor fibers + DPN (cervical
ganglia)
 DPN containing sympathetic vasoconstrictor fibres
 Autonomic n/s to nasal sinuses
 Nerve is formed in foramen lacerum
 Vidian neurectomy is done in vasomotor rhinitis
 Nerve of lattarjet : br. Of 10th nerve (vagus) present in the stomach
 Nervous spinosus : meningeal branch of mandibular nerve which passes through foramen spinosum
 Nerve erigentes : Parasympathetic efferents S234 are motor to detrusor muscle & inhibitory to sphinctor
vesciae
 Nerve of kuntz : grey rami running upward from 2nd thoracic nerve
 Brachialis muscle is called hybrid muscle (has a dual blood supply)
 Struther ligament – Extrahead of coracobrachialis
 Sublimus muscle is called palmarislongus
 Damage to Extensor Carpi radialis causes wrist drop
 Damage to Posterior interosious nerve caused finger drop
 Anchoneusmusle helps in screwing movement
 Brachioradialis helps in keeping hand in mid prone position. i.e. hels in both pronation and supination
 Muscle affected in Carpal tunnel syndrome- Abductor pollicebrevis.
 Claw hand- injury to Median + Ulner nerve.
 Winging of scapula – caused by injury to long thoracic nerve.
 Erb’s palsy aka policeman’s tip deformity involves C5-6
 Klumpke’s deformity involves C8T1
 Median nerve is also called as eye of hand
 Ape thumb deformity caused be involvement of Abductor pollicis brevis (most affected) + opp. Pollicis
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 Pointing index- Loss of flex. Digitorum superficialis+ Flex.digi. Pollicis
 Duputryen’s contracture is seen in cirrhosis of liver.
 Anatomical snuffbox –present at thumb( laterally-Ext.Poll. Brevis + APL and medially- Ext. Poll. Longus)
 Int. thoracic art. Is also called as internal mammary artery.
 Rt. sided superior gluteal nerve injury causes Lt. sided lurching gait and vice-versa.
 High stepping gait is seen in foot drop is seen in foot drop.
 Meralgia parasthetica is caused by compression of lat. Cutaneus nerve of thigh by inguinal ligament.
 Calcaneus is the largest tarsal bone.
 Viability starts from 7th month of intrauterine life.
 Ligament of Biglow (Illiofemoral ligament) helps trunk of body from falling backward.
 Popliteus muscle iste only muscle in body with intracapsular origin.
 Circumflex femoral art.is a branch of profundafemoris and not Femoral artery.
 Sup. Epigastric art. is a brach of internal thoracic artery.
 Deep circumflex iliac artery is a branch of external iliac artery
 Internal pudendal art. is a branch of Internal iliac artery.
 M.C. peripheral artery for aneurysm- Poplitial artery.
 M.C art. involeved in Berry’s aneurysm- Ant. Communicating artery
 M.C vein used in veinidies section- Long Saphenous vein.
 Housemaid knee- Pre-patellar bursitis.
 Clergyman’s knee – Infra-patellar bursitis.
 Students elbow – Enlarged Olicrenon.
 Hunter’s canal/adductor canal/ subsartoreal canal is present at mid thigh.
 Internal thoracic artery is a branch of Subclavian artery.
 In females in f. Vesicle artery is represented by vaginal artery.
 Rt. gastroepiploic art. is a branch of Hepatic artery
 Cystic art. is a branch of rt. hepatic artery.
 Part of colon most prone to ischemia- Splenic flexure of colon.
 Meckel’s diverticulum – True diverticulum (size-5 cms)
 Zanker’s diverticulum- False diverticulum
 Ca. colon- M.C at Recto sigmoid junction.
 Hemiballismus is caused byinjury to subthalamus which is a part of Basal Ganglia.
 M.C sit of hypertensive bleeding- Putamen
 Degeneration of lantiform nucleus is seen in –Wilsons disease.
 Mask like face is seen in parkinsonism.
 Hypoglossal nerve injury- tongue deviates to the same side,causes medial medullary syndrome.
 Vidian nerve resection is done ine in Vasomotor rhinitis.
 Smooth muscle are Involuntary and Non striated
 Facial development starts at which age  4 to 8 week
 Stellate ganglion is formed by Fusion of which structuresInferior cervical ganglion & 1st thoracic ganglion
 How many parasympathetic cranial nerve nuclei are situated in head and neck region  Ciliary ganglion, Otic
ganglion, Submandibular ganglion, Pterygopalatine ganglion
 Which layer of scalp can’t be separated from skull  5th layer [periosteum]
 Muscle of facial expression not supplied by facial nerve:  Levator palpabrae superioris
 Which muscle is responsible for Winner’s smile [grinning muscle]  Risorius
 Tongue is drained by which lymph nodeJugulo Omohyoid lypmh node
 Chassaignac’s tubercle is related with which vertebra C6
 Ligament of Berry is modification of which fascia Modification of Pretracheal Fascia

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 Inferior sagital sinus is situated at  Inferior margin of falx cerebri
 What are the unpaired venous sinuses of brain
 Superior sagital sinus
 Inferior sagital sinus
 Straight sinus
 Occipital sinus
 Anterior inter-cavernous sinus
 Posterior inter-cavernous sinus
 Which nerve passes through Dorello’s canal  Abducent nerve
 Which nerve is most susceptible to get damage in head injury  VI cranial nerve
 Which infrahyoid muscle is not supplied by Ansa cervicalis Thyrohyoid [supplied by anterior ramus of C1]
 What are the 4 nuclei of Vth cranial nerve 
 Motor nucleus [in pons]
 Chief sensory nucleus [in pons]
 Mesencephalic nucleus [in mid brain]
 Spinal nucleus[in medulla]
 Pharyngeal plexus is situated over which muscleMiddle constrictor of pharynx
 Pharyngeal plexus is contributed by which nervesFollowing nerves
 Pharyngeal branch of IX cranial nerve
 Pharyngeal branch of X cranial nerve
 Cranial root of accessory nerve [via vago accessory complex]
 Sympathetic branch from superior cervical ganglion
 Killian’s dehiscence is formed between which 2 muscles  Thyropharyngeus & cricopharyngeus
 Passvant’s ridge is formed by which muscleUpper fibres of palatopharyngeus with few fibres of superior
constrictor muscle
 What is the function of medial Pterygoid muscle
 Elevation
 Protrusion
 Side to side
 Weight of upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by which ligament  Coracoclavicular ligament
 What are important changes in nerve at level of Coracobrachialis insertion
 Median nerve crosses brachial artery from lateral to medial side
 Radial nerve comes in anterior compartment from posterior compartment
 Ulnar nerve comes in posterior compartment from anterior compartment
 Poland syndrome is related with congenital absence of which muscle  Pectoralis major
 Thickest cord of brachial plexus  Posterior cord
 What are the 2 characteristic features of Subscapularis muscles 
 Multipinnate muscle
 Hybrid / composite muscle
 Which muscle is known as forgotten muscle of rotator cuff  Subscapularis
 What is the PRONATOR TERES SYNDROME  Compression of median nerve in between 2 heads of pronator
teres muscle in cubital fossa is known as pronator teres syndrome
 Which structures passes through GUYON’S TUNNEL  Ulnar nerve & ulnar artery
 Book test/ Froment’s sign is test for which nerve and muscle Ulnar nerve & Adductor pollicis
 Various cranial nerves are at attached at which part of brain 

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 I & II –forebrain
 III & IV –midbrain
 V, VI, VII, VIII- pontomedullary junction
 IX, X, XI, XII – medulla
 What are various types of white matter fibre  3 types
 Commissural fibres
 Association fibres
 Projection fibres
 Which commissural fibre develops 1st in the brain Sequence of development of important commissural fibres:
 Anterior commissure
 Hippocampal commissure
 Corpus callosum
 Floor of III ventricle is formed by which structures 
 Infundibular recess
 Pituitary stalk
 Tuber cinereum
 Mammillary body
 Posterior perforated substance
 Which part of internal capsule is most susceptible for lesion  Posterior limb
 Facial colliculus is situated at which level of brain stem  Lower part of pons
 Which cranial nerve nuclei consists of GSE fibres  III, IV , VI & XII cranial nerve fibres
 Earliest sensation lost in diabetic neuropathy  Vibration sence
 Atezolizumab is a recently FDA approved drug for use in Urothelial carcinoma
 Most important parameter to monitor patient status in DHF  Hematocrit
 What is inverted supinator reflex Flexion of fingers without elbow flexion and brachiradialis contraction
 “Incision in tubectomy is given at isthumus”
 “Bupivacaine is most cardio toxic local anesthetic”
 “Lermoyz syndrome is a variant of Meneries in which sx occurs in reverse fashion”
 “Cahart’s notch in otosclerosis occurs at 2 kHz however dip in barotrauma occurs at 4 KHz”
 The most common facial abnormality in Gardner’s syndrome  Multiple osteomas
 For HTLV-III infection (AIDS)-the most specific test is Western blot test
 Kenny packs used in the treatment of  Poliomyelitis
 ’A’ wave in JVP corresponds to Atrial contraction
 Post-pneumonic fibrosis is called Caranification
 Best artery for coronary angiography is Femoral
 “Death in drowning occurs due to ventricullar fibrillation or cardiac arrest”
 “Heneberts sign is associated with Meneries disease”
 “AC>BC and weber lateralised owards normal ear means normal or sensoneural deaffness or presbyccusis”
 River blindness is caused by  Onchocerca volvulus
 Immunity develops after Japanese Encephalitis vaccination  30 days
 Which OHAs can be given in pregnancy  Metformin
 Pendular jerk is a features of  Cerebellar dysfunction
 Orthodeoxia is found in Hepatopulmonary syndrome
 Prolonge use of PPI cause  Osteoporosis
 Metronidazole induced CNS toxicity,cumulative doses 25gm-110gm
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 Classical finding in Metronidazole induced cerebellar dysfunction on MRI is T2 hyperintensity of Dentate
nucleus
 “Dribbling of saliva from angle of mouth is sure sign of death due to hanging”
 “Hyoid fracture is mostly seen in throttling”
 “Potts puffy tumor and mucocele occurs mostly in frontal sinus”
 “Max dose of lignocaine is 300 and 500 mg with adrena”
 Which is causing Quartan malaria  Plasmodium malaria
 In ECG, which limb is used as an earth complexion  Right leg
 Which is not a feature of Irritable bowel syndrome  Rectal bleeding
 Painless asymmetrical circumscribed enlargement of lymphnodes of rubbery consistency is seen in  Hodgkin’s
lymphoma
 Somogyi phenomena is  Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
 Circumduction gait is commonly seen in  Hemiplegia
 In treatment of Histoplasmosis,what is target CD4  CD4>150/cmm
 Most common gait abnormality in cerebellar ataxia  Wide base gait
 “Most common cause of maternal death in India is hemorrhage>anemia>sepsis”
 “Intersitial ectopic pregnancy ruptures later because of closer endometrial suppourt”
 “Progesterone is common harmone in both Arias stella and Decidual reaction”
 “Pentoxifyline has proved to be the best for treating hepatorenal syndrome”
 Shot shuffling gait is characteristic of  Parkinsonism
 Most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly age group  Amyloid angiopathy
 Which is the most common preceding infection in bone marrow failure syndromes Hepatitis
 A patient is shown a ‘pen’ and was asked to name it. He replied as ‘pencil’. Identify the type of language disorder
in this patient. Semantic paraphasia
 The artery that is spared in polyarteritis nodosa  Pulmonary artery
 Which mode of ventilation has the risk of patient getting respiratory alkalosis  assist controlled mode
 “D xylose will be negative in pancreatic malabsorption, malnutrition, gastrectomy”
 “D xylose will be false positive in ascites, pleural effusion, blind loop syn, renal failure”
 “Alpha feto protein is normal in hepato lammelear tumour of liver but increased in HCC”
 “In mallory weiss mucosa and submucosa are involved however Boerhaave is transmural”
 In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is  Sinus tachycardia
 Which conditions require a higher PEEP to be applied in recruiting collapsed alveoli  ARDS
 If palmer creases are lighter in colour than surrounding skin,hemoglobin level is usually  <8gm/dl
 International normalized ratio (INR) is calculated by (PT patient/PT control)ISI
 In elective splenectomy, pneumococcal vaccine should be administered how many weeks before surgery  2
weeks
 Sokal index staging system used in  CML
 Evans’syndrome refer to  Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia with ITP
 In ITP, total dose of IVI gG is  2 gm/kg
 Henoch-Schonlein purpura is also reffered to as  Anaphylactoid purpura
 Paget-Schroetter syndrome relates to  Deep vein thrombosis of arm
 J-receptors are sensitive to  Interstitial edema
 Palmar crease Xanthomas are specific for  Type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia
 “Amoebic ulcers are flask shaped”
 “Typhoid ulcers are longitudinal”

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 “Tubercular ulcers are tranverse”
 “Tubercular enteritis cause strictures of gut”
 Blood pressure difference between both arms should be less than  10mmhg
 It may be difficult to distinguish between type1 from type 2 block when AV block is When AV block 2:1
 Diaphoresis is a predominat symptom of which valvular heart disease  AR
 The most reliable ECG distinguishing feature between acute pericarditis and acute MI  Ratio of ST segment
elevation to T-wave height in V6 of >0.24
 Which is central cause of insulin resistance  Overabundance of circulating fatty acids
 Patients with rales at lung bases, S3 gallop, tachypnea, or signs of heart failure belong to which Killip class 
Killip class 2
 Most sensitive ECG signs of right ventricular infarction is  ST-elevation of >1mm in V4R with upright T-wave
during first 12 hrs
 Which syndrome is commonly associated with coarctation of aorta  Turner’s syndrome
 First line inotropic agent for treatment of PE-related shock is  Dopamine/ Dobutamine
 Mutations of gene that encodes fibrillin-1 are present in patient with  Marfan syndrome
 “Dementia is a late feature of whipples disease but bad prognostic feature”
 “Ito cells containing vitamin A are present in space of disse”
 “Most common site of gastrinoma is duodenum (Passaro triangle)”
 “D xylose test is used to make difference between malabsorption due to intestine and pancreas”
 Stanford and Debakey classifications are used to classify Aortic dissection
 In pulmonary hypertension, mean pulmonary artery pressure is  >22 mmhg
 During cardiac catheterization, pressures must be recorded only at End expiration
 When you call chronic cough  Cough persist >8 weeks
 Clubbing of digits is not a sign of COPD
 Fishman’s classification is used for Clubbing
 Which respiratory function can not be measured by spirometer FRC
 A dilated vessel in a pulmonary tuberculosis cavity is calledRasmussen’s aneurysm
 Straight back syndrome occurs in patient with  Mitral valve prolapsed
 Most specific sign of a metabolic encephalopathy is  Bilateral asterixis
 Which infection reduced the risk of asthma  Hookworm
 Major problem in IM triamcinolone acetonide therapy  Proximal myopathy
 ”Crazy paving” HRCT pattern is characteristic of  Silicosis
 Particles below what size can be carried to lower airways <2.5micro-m
 Caplan’ syndrome is  Seropositive RA + Progressive massive fibrosis
 “In proximal short bowel syndrome symptoms will be malabsorption, iron deficiency and calcium malabsorption”
 “In terminal ileum short gut syndrome sx will be megaloblasticanemia, malabsorption, cholesterol gall stones
and oxalate kidney stones”
 “Potential of malignancy is highest in UC as compared to CD”
 The most common mutation in Cystic fibrosis  F508
 What value of sweat Cl-concentration is typical in Cystic fibrosis adults  >70meq/L
 Macrophage is dominant cells in which stage of pneumonia  Resolution phase
 PORT risk score’ is used to classify  Community-acquired pneumonia
 Single most useful sign of severity of pneumonia in a person without underlying lung disease  Respiratory
rate>30/minutes
 Obstructive lung disease is diagnosed if  FEV1/FVC<0.70
 In COPD, Hoover’s sign refer to  Paradoxical inward movement of rib cage with inspiration
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 Pathological hallmark of sarcoidosis  Granuloma
 Lofgren’s syndrome is characterized by  Erythema nodosum + Hilar lymphadenopathy + Uveitis
 Therapeutic thoracocetesis is indicated if pleural free fluid separates lung from chest wall by  >10 mm
 “5ASA is drug of choice in IBD howeversulfasalazine moeity is responsible for side effects and use in rheumatoid
arthritis”
 “Chronic gastritis caused by H. pylori involves fundus body and antrum but autoimmune involves fundus body
only”
 Rapid-shallow-breathing index is calculated by  Respiratory rate/tidal volume
 In GBS, which type of respiratory failure occur  Type2
 The “Gold standard” for monitoring in ICU is  ABG
 When you called Anuria  Urine output<100ml/24 hrs
 A lower esophageal mucosal ring is also called  B ring
 Esophageal mucosal biopsies should be taken at least  5 cm above LES
 Which of the gastric ulcer has high gastric acid production  Type3 GU
 The most sensitive antibody test for the diagnosis of celiac disease are of which class IgA class
 Most common neurological manifestations of classical Whipple’s disease  Cognitive change
 Backwash ileitis occurs when which part of colon is involved in UC  Whole colon
 Autoantibody found in cases of UC is  pANCA
 Which drug can mimic IBD  Mycophenolate / ipilimumab
 Criteria for diagnosis for IBS  Rome2
 Watershed area within the colonic blood supply and common location for intestinal ischemia  Griffiths’ point
 Single most common risk factor for hepatitis-C is Injection drug use
 CAGE questionnaire is used for  Alcohol dependence and abuse
 Trail-making test is useful for  To asses mental status in hepatic encephalopathy
 Byler disease is also known as  Progressive Familial Intrahepatic Cholestasis type 1
 Which cryoglobulinemia is associated with lymphoproliferative disease  Types 1
 Which of the following mothers almost invariably transmit hepatitis B infection to their offspring  HBsAg
positive plus HBeAg-positive
 The diagnosis of anicteric hepatitis is based on  Aminotransferase
 Gianotti-Crosti syndrome is best related to  Hepatitis B
 Which of the following differentiates natural immunity by resolved HBV infection from that which is acquired
through vaccination  Presence of Anti-HBs+IgG antiHBc
 The most pronounced side effect of ribavarin therapy is  Hemolysis
 Most liver transplant centre require alcoholic to have documented abstinence of at least  6-months
 Zieve’s syndrome in alcoholics is best related to  Acanthocytes
 Stauffer’s syndrome refers to intrahepatic cholestasis specifically associated with  Renal cell cancer
 Toxicity of which vitamin can cause venoocclusive disease of liver  Vitamin A
 Portal hypertension is defined as elevation of hepatic venous pressure gradient to  >5mm Hg
 Apart from propranolol, what another β-adrenergic blocker is used to reduce portal pressure  Nadolol
 For melena, blood should be present in GI tract for what duration  14 hours
 Gastric antral vascular ectasia is the cause of Watermelon stomach
 What does SAAG stand for Serum ascites-to-albumin gradient
 Renal failure in cirrhosis is defined as serum creatinine above  1.5mg/dl
 Long-term administration of what reduces the risk of hepatorenal syndrome and improves survival 
Norfloxacin
 “Barrets metaplasia cause adenocarcinoma always”
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 “Paracussis willlisi is better hearing in noisy environment seen in otospongosis”
 “Tulio phenomenom is associated with endolymphatic hydropis”
 “Pulsatile tinnitus is seen in glomus jugalare”
 Earliest sign of hepatic encephalopathy is  EEG changes
 For diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathy, which test has most relevance  Elevated arterial ammonia level
 TACE stands for  Transarterial chemo embolization
 Currently, what is the most common indication for liver transplantation in adults  Chronic hepatitis C
 In chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic calcification on radiological examination is superimposed on which lumbar
vertebrates  2nd lumbar vertebra
 CFTR and SPINK1 genetic mutations causing acute pancreatitis are frequent in  HIV- positive patients
 What feature best relates to Revised Atlanta criteria Morphological features of acute pancreatitis on CT scan
 SOFA score stands for  Sequential organ failure assessment
 “Walled –off Necrosis” occurs how many weeks after necrotizing pancreatitis  >4 weeks
 Most common cause of pancreatic calcification is Alcohol
 The most common congenital anatomic variant of human pancreas is  Pancreas divisum
 Kalimann syndrome best relates to Olfactory bulb agenesis
 Which gene is associated with Prader Willi syndrome  SNRPN
 In ‘Empty Sella syndrome’pituitary functions are usually  Normal function
 ACTH reserve is most reliably assess by Insulin-induced hypoglycaemia
 Last hormone to be lost in acquired pituitary hormone deficiency ACTH
 Central osmo-receptors are located in which part of hypothalamus Preoptic nuclei of hypothalamus
 Pallister-Hall syndrome is associated with  Hypothalamic hamartomas
 Which organ is not enlarged in Acromegaly Parotid gland
 Most common cause of cushingoid features is  Iatrogenic hypercortisolis
 For diagnosis of Acromegaly, measurement of which is most useful  IGF-1
 Which Vitamin cause papilloedma  Vitamin A
 Primary cause of death in patients of Cushing’s syndrome is  Cardiovascular disease
 Characteristic skin change in hypogonadal adult males  Fine facial wrinkles
 The eggs of Schistosoma mansoni are characterized by  Lateral spine
 Fir-tree appearance is seen in Pityriasis rosea
 Gonococcus does not cause involvement of  Testis
 “Pulsatile ottorhea is associated with Asom”
 Susceptible of nerve fibres :
Local anesthetics  Aγ & Aδ>>Aα & Aβ>>B>>C
 HypoxiaB>A>C
 PressureAα>>Aβ>>Aγ>>Aδ>>B>>C
 “Life span of Mirena IUCD is 5 yrs
 Cu T 380 A 10 years
 Nova T 5 years
 Progestert 1 year
 CUT 200 3 years
 CU T 200B 4 years
 Amoebic ulceration is most commonly noted in  Caecum
 Cullen’s sign is a feature of  Acute pancreatitis
 Parkinsonism may occur due to chronic exposure to  Manganese
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 Which of the following is related to lead exposure  saturnine gout
 Which is not a feature of Wilson disease  sensory abnormalities
 Which X-linked syndrome is related to mutation in MCT8 gene  Allan-Herndon-Dubley syndrome
 Hung up reflexes seen in  hypothyroidism
 Antithyroid drugs must be stopped how many days before administration of radioiodine  At least 2-days
 Which anti-thyroid drug is preferred in pregnancy with Grave’s disease  Propylthiouracil
 Marshal scoring system used in  Acute pancreatitis for organ failure
 What is Carney’s complex  Cardiac myxomas + Sertoli’s cell tumor + Hyperlentiginosis
 Syndrome of minerelocorticoids excess (SAME) is caused by inactivating mutations in which of the following
gene  HSD11B2
 Histopathological classification for adrenocortical carcinoma Weiss score
 Principle drug for the treatment of adrenocortical carcinoma is Mitotane
 Which disease related to E3 ubiquitin protein ligase  Parkinson’s disease
 Maximum sensitivity in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma  Plasma free metanephrines
 Which test provide better diagnostic sensitivity in pheochromocytoma diagnosis  18 F-fluorodopaminPET
 Lisch nodule of iris best relates to  Hamartoma of iris
 Elevation of what strongly suggestive of MEN2  Serum calcitonin
 Characteristic laboratory finding in glucanomas is  Hypoamminoacidemia
 Reliable size liver biopsy sample is  1.5-2.0 cm
 In tumor lysis syndrome, which is correct  Normal CPK
 First choice of vein for insertion of dialysis catheter in patient with AKI  Right jugular vein
 Most common type of RTA in diabetic ketoacidosis  RTA type4
 Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis develops how many weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis  1-3 weeks
 In lupus nephritis, the most common clinical sign of renal disease is  proteinuria
 Which of the following is the most common cause of glomerulonepephritis throughout the world malaria
 Carpal spasm may be induced by inflation of a blood pressure cuff to 20mmHg above the patient systolic
blood pressure for 3 minutes
 The “Frog sign” in JVP(Jugular veinous pressure) is  It is rapid, regular, cannon A wave
 The “Frog sign” is diagnostic of  Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
 A 48 years male k/c/o type 2 DM and HTN is taking an oral hypoglycemic drug frequently developed urinary
tract infection, the drug responsible  SLGT2 Inhibitor
 Reaction to light is difficult to appreciate in pupils  <2mm in diameter
 Ocular bobbing is diagnostic of  Bilateral pontine damage
 Which cranial nerve is most frequently involved in T. Pallidum invasion in CNS  7
 Most common valvular abnormality in rheumatoid arthritis  Mitral regurgitation
 Which ANA pattern is highly specific & suggestive of Lupus  Peripheral(rim)
 Most common symptom of chronic cor pulmonale  Orthopnea
 The best place to examine blood cell morphology  Feathered edge of the blood smear
 Broadbent’ sign is a feature of  Constrictive pericarditis
 Levels of which of the following is low in POEMS syndrome TGF-beta
 Combination of arm extension with leg flexion or flaccid legs is associated with lesions in  Pons
 Corneal reflex depends on the integrity of pontine pathways between  5th & both 7th cranial nerve
 Todd’s paralysis  Paresis following seizure
 For melena, blood should be present in GI tract for what duration  14 hrs
 Sick euthyroid syndrome  there is a decrease in total & unbound T3 level(lowT3 syndrome) with normal levels

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of T4 & TSH
 Transient neonatal diabetes resolves between  6-12 months of life
 What is the most appropriate investigation to determine iron store levels  Serum ferritin
 Which investigation would differentiate between hypersplenism and aplastic anaemia  Reticulocyte test
 ”Gold standard” for diagnosis of hypovolemic hyponatremia is plasma Na+ correction after  Hydration after
normal saline
 Protein losing enteropathy with mucosal erosion is seen in  Lymphoma
 Sausage digit is seen in  Psoriatic arthritis
 Ehrlichiosis is a common coinfection with  Lyme disease
 Collagen fibrils in bone are crosslinked with  Pyridinium
 Sokolo-Lyon ECG criteria is for the diagnosis of  Left ventricular hypertrophy
 Wide pulse pressure as an indicator of large left to right shunt is seen in  PDA
 Ejection click in pulmonary stenosis is  Better heard in expiration
 Symmetric, high voltage, triphasic, slow wave EEG pattern is seen in Hepatic encephalopathy
 NARP syndrome is a  Mitochondrial function disorder
 Coarctation of aorta most commonly seen with  Bicuspid aortic valve
 Acute, severe headache with stiff neck but without fever suggests  Subarachnoid hemorrhage
 Which of the following is the cause of “Coat-hanger headache  Neck muscle ischemia
 Kernohan - Woltman sign refers to  Hemiparesis contralateral to original hemiparesis
 Highest amount of DHA found in retina, sperm and cerebral cotex
 Largest body store of choline  cephalin
 Tay sachs – hyperacusis, cherry red spots, microcephaly and loss of motor skills
 Gaucher’s disease  Deficiency of beta glucosidase
 Erlenmask flask deformity Gauchers disease
 Sandhoffs  deficiency of beta- hexaminadase A & B
 Wolmans disease  calcification of adrenal glands
 Hormone sensitive lipase is activated by  glucagon
 Hormone sensitive lipase is inactivated by  insulin
 Apo A1 activates LCAT
 Apo E is rich in arginine
 Apo E3 is most common
 Tangier disease  Mutation in gene encoding ABCA1
 Norum disease  LCAT deficiency
 Rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis HMG CoA reductase
 Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia is due to LPL deficiency
 Accumulation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is a feature of Niemann Pick disease
 Defect in alpha oxidation of phytanic acids  REFSUMS DISEASE
 Cu acts as co enzyme for Tyrosinase, Dopamine β-hydroxylase, Cytochrome oxidase, Lysyl oxidase
 Zn acts as co enzyme for -carbonic anhydrase, glutamate DH, LDH, alcoholDH, superoxide dismutase, leucine
aminopeptidase, retinine reductase, alkaline phosphatase, DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase & d-ALA
dehydratase
 McArdle disease is a prototypical muscle energy disorder as the enzyme deficiency (Ms. glycogen phosphorylase)
limits ATP generation by glycogenolysis and results in glycogen accumulation
 Length of okazaki fragment sin eukaryotes  100-250 nucleotides
 Shortening of DNA is prevented by TELOMERASE/ TELOMERE

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 Amino acids with maximum number of codons – serine, arginine and leucine
 Selenocysteine is coded by -UGA
 Pyrrolysine is coded by  UAG
 MAGNESIUM cofactor for amino acyl tRNA synthetase
 Poly A codes for lysine
 Poly C codes for proline
 Poly G codes for Glycine
 Poly U codes for Phenyl alanine
 SYBR green dye is used for – PCR
 Non- Coding RNA’s  tRNA, rRNA, siRNA, incRNA, gRNA, miRNA, Sno RNA
 Ame’s test detects mutagenicity
 Citrate is inhibited by fluoroacetate
 Inhibitor of proton translocation ATP synthase  Oligomycin
 Inhibitor of nucleotide transporter  Atractyloside
 Von gierke’s disease  hepatomegaloy, hyperlipidemia, hypoglycemia, acidosis & normal glycogen deposition
in liver
 Muscle cannot use glycogen due to lack of G-6-phosphatase
 Muscles are not involved in type  1 Glycogen storage disease
 Cellular oxidation is inhibited by  Cyanide
 Piericidin A inhibits complex  1 by competing CoQ
 Tauri’s  Deficiency of muscle and erythrocyte PFK-1
 Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of  Aldolase -B
 Glucose transporter activated by insulin  GLUT 4
 Glucose transporter present in RBC  GLUT 1
 Monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is galactose
 Keratan sulphate is originally isolated from cornea
 Allose is an epimer of glucose at carbon 3
 Pompe’s disease is a deficiency of acid alpha, 1-4- glucosidase /acid maltase
 NADPH producing enzymes -G-6-P-D & 6- phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
 Faconi bickel syndrome  Glucose transporter 2 deficiency
 Menke’s kinky hair or steely hair syndrome  Copper is not metabolized from the intestine
 Site of absorption of iron  Proximal duodenum
 Site of absorption of folic acid  Proximal jejunum
 Site of absorption of cobalamin  Ileum
 Nutritional causes of cardiomyopathy  Deficiency of selenium, calcium, magnesium and thiamine
 Stylohyoid ligament is derived from  Branchial arch
 Parathyroid gland is derived from from  Branchial pouch 3 and 4
 Last structure of pinna to develop in intrauterine life  Lobule
 Congenital defect of external auditory canal  Fissure of santorini and Foramen of huschke
 Most common site of cholesteatoma  Prussack’s space
 Origin of stapedius muscle is from  Posterior wall (Tip of pyramid)
 Dilator tubae muscle  Tensor velipalatini
 Anterior vestibular artery supplies  Utricle, Superior semicircular canal, Lateral semicircular canal
 Sensory organ of angular motion  Crista ampularis
 Sensory organ of linear motion  Macula
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 Most common organism for Perichondritis  Pseudomona
 Most common organism for Fungal otitis externa  Aspergillus niger > Aspergillus fumigatus
 Most common organism for acute suppurative otitis media  Strep Pneumoniae> H. Influenzae > Moraxella
catarrhalis
 Wittmack’s classification is for  Cholesteatoma
 Wittmack’s surgery is done in  Atropic rhinitis
 Most common complication of CSOM  Mastoiditis
 Schwabach sign is seen in  Otosclerosis
 “Inv of choice for VUR and posterior valves is MCU”
 “Inv of choice for cytotoxic drug induced cardiotoxicity is endomyocardial biopsy”
 Schwabach surgery is  Cortical mastoidectomy
 Epley’smaneuver is therapeutic in this condition  BPPV
 Tobey ayer test is done in  Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
 Crowe beck test is done in  Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
 Hitzelberger sign is seen due to which nerve involvement  CN VII (in acoustic neuroma)
 Cottle test is done to check  Internal nasal valve patency
 Which is 4th turbinate  Aggernasi air cell
 Samter’s triad  Aspirin sensitivity, Asthma and Polyp
 Onodi cell is closely associated with  Optic nerve
 Best Radiological view to evaluate maxillary sinus  Water’s view
 Best Radiological view to evaluate sphenoid sinus  Submentovertical view
 Most common sinus involved in osteoma  Frontal sinus
 Most common sinus involved in squamous cell CA  Maxillary sinus
 Hot potato voice is seen in  Quincy (peritonsillar abscess)
 Semon’s law is a hypothesis for  RLN palsy
 Key hole glottis is seen in this condition  Phonasthenia
 “Contraceptive of choice in emergent conditions is levonorgestrel”
 “Lucio phenomenom is seen in LL type leprosy”
 “Type 1 lepra reaction type 4 and type 2 is type 3 hypersenstive rxn as per comb and gel classification”
 Turban epiglottis is a feature of  TB larynx
 MC Site of singer’s nodule/Vocal cord nodule  At junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd
 Cystic hygroma is mostly seen in which age group  Below 2 years (`90% cases)
 Walsham’s forceps is for  Nasal bone fracture correction
 Ion responsible for motility of sperm  Calcium
 Most common site of implantation  Posterior surface of the upper uterine segment
 Amount of liquor is maximum at 36-38 weeks
 Schwanger shaft protein is  Pregnancy specific beta 1 glycoprotein
 Keratinization of fetal skin occurs at 24-26 weeks
 HCG is secreted by  Syncytiotrophoblast
 Which test differentiates maternal and fetal blood cell  Kleihaure-Betke test
 Chadwick sign is seen in  Vagina
 “Otoverrugurth fold and pseudodementia is associated with depression”
 “La belle indifference is seen in conversion disorder”
 “Quinsy is peritonsillar abscess and citteli is in posterior digastric belly”
 Kegels exercise should begin  24 hours after delivery
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 Fetal anemia is detected on Doppler of  Middle cerebral artery
 FHR should be auscultated in low risk pregnancy after every what duration, during first stage of labour 
30-minutes
 Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme,what is diagnosis  Open spina bifida
 Early deceleration denotes  Head compression
 Banana and lemon sign is seen in which fetal anomalies  Neural tube defect
 The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is  Interspinous diameter
 During active labour cervical dilatation per hour in primi is  1.2 cm
 Ritgen maneuver is done in  For delivery of head in normal labour
 Most important component of Bishop score  Dilatation
 Assessment of progress of labour is best done by  Partogram
 Most common cause of death in a patient with uterine inversion  Haemorrhagic shock
 Early cord clamping is not indicated in  HIV positive female
 B lynch suture is applied on  Uterus
 Deep transverse arrest, which should not be done  Wrigley’forceps
 In left oblique breech presentation,head engages in  Right oblique
 Procedure to be performed in case of arrest of after coming head due to contracted pelvis in breech  Zavanelli
maneuver
 Best method to deliver arms in breech  Lovset’s method
 On per vaginal examination, anterior fontanelle and supraorbital ridge is felt in the second stage of labour, the
presentation is  Brow presentation
 Most common fistula as a complication of obstructed labour  VVF
 Robert sign is a sign of  IUD
 “X rays are produced by linear and beta accelerators”
 “Concentration of ethinyl estradiol in Mala N and Mala D is 30 microgrm
 “Investigation of choice for early renal TB is IVP”
 A women comes with obstructed labor and is grossly dehydrated. investigation reveal fetal demise. what will be
the management  Cesarean section
 True regarding Organ of Rosenmuller  Represents cranial end of the Wolffian body
 Tumour secreting placental alkaline phosphatase is  Dysgerminoma
 Moschcowitz repair is done for  Enterocoele
 Gold standard test for measuring ß HCG levels in serum is  Radioimmunoassay
 False regarding hormone levels in polycystic ovarian disease  Increased Prolactin
 Which congenital malformations can be diagnosed in the first trimester  Anencephaly
 Drug of choice for treatment of intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is  Ursodeoxycholic acid
 Virus responsible for non immune hydrops foetalis is  Parvovirus
 Which of the following maneuvers is not used for the management of shoulder dystocia  Mauriceau Smellie
Veit maneuver
 Best marker for Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is  Bile acid s
 Patients of Rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with:  Colostomy
 Ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease  Diaphragm
 Vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy 
Folic acid
 “Sphenopalatine artery is called artery of epistaxis”
 “IPC 320 defines grievous hurt”
 “Stockers line is seen in pterygium”
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 Which tumor is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy  Glioma
 Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury  Weitheim’s hysterectomy
 In the Manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring, parameter is not included  Oxytocin
challenge test
 The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilatation and Curettage (D & C) is done following condition 
Post partum haemorrhage
 PAP smear shows Ca in situ-what is the best next logical procedure  Colposcopy & biopsy
 Red degeneration most commonly occurs in  2nd trimester
 Lady with infertility with bilateral tubal block at cornua. Best method of management is  Laparoscopy &
Hysteroscopy
 The most common congenital anomaly in baby born to Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) mother
is  Cardiovascular anomalies
 Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding in women in India is  Cancer cervix
 Ovarian tumour which is bilateral  Dysgerminoma
 Endodermal sinus tumour is associated with  Schiller duval body
 Not associated with recurrent abortions  TORCH
 Fallopian tubal peristalsis is affected in  Kartagenar’s syndrome
 PBAC Scoring is used in  Menorrhagia
 Choriod plexus cyst in fetal head on ultrasound is not associated with chromosomal anomalies  Trisomy 21
 At what stage of gestation would you expect a nulliparous women to begin to feel foetal movements  18-20
weeks
 Primary stain in acid fast staining  Carbol fuschin
 Gram negative organism secreating exotoxin  Shigella, yersinia, P.aurogenosa, V. parahemolyticus
 M/C methode of transfer of genetic material  Transduction
 Capnophillic bacteria  H. influenza, Brucella abortus
 Internal podalic version is done for  Transverse lie of second fetus in twin pregnancy
 Round ligament is supplied by  Sampson artery
 The earliest morphological evidence of ovulation on endometrial biopsy is  Basal vacuolation
 Cornification index or eosinophilic index indicates  Estrogenic effect
 Which of the following is formed by Mullerian duct in males  Hydatid of Morgagni
 Mc uterine malformation associated with renal anomalies  Unicornuate
 Complete failure of mullerian duct fusion will result in  Uterus didelphys
 What is the first sign of puberty in a girl  Thelarche
 Mc cause of ambigious genitalia in a female child is  Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
 A girl with normal stature and minimal or absent pubertal development is seen in  Kallmann syndrome
 “Inv of choice in advanced renal TB is CT”
 “Inv of choice for blunt abd trauma is CT”
 “Inv of choice for avascular necrosis is MRI”
 Best test to diagnose infection Electrone microscopy of scraping from the ulcer
 DOC for Chlamydia infection  Azithromycin and contact tracing
 Lens at birth 6.5mm, adults 10mm
 Snow flake cataract is more specific for type 1 DM, accumulation of sorbitol
 Oil droplet cataract seen in galactosemia , only reversible cataract, accumulation of galactilol
 Hamarlopia is a feature of central cataracts
 Uniocular diplopia is a feature of intumscent cataract
 Spontaneous absorbtion of lens material is seen in hallerman streiff syndrome
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 Marfan syndrome has superotemporal subluxation, homocytinuria has inferonasal, weil marchesani has forward
 Most common cause of preventable blindness worldwide is trachoma
 Trachoma is caused by C . Trachomatis A, B, Ba and C serotypes
 VKC is type 1 Hs response to exogenous allergen
 Horner tranta spot, cobblestone papillae , pseudogerontoxon, shield ulcer are seen
 Steroids are the drug of choice in phlyctenular conjunctivitis
 Night blindness is first symptom and conjuctival xerosis 1st sign of xerophthalmia
 At birth ECC is 6000 cells / mm. Cell count falls by 26 % at end of first year and then 26 % during next 10 years
of life
 Corneal edema is because of pump failure , accumulation of lactate
 Cornea absorbs UVA and UVB rays
 Contact lenses reduces amount of glucose availability to corneal epithelium
 Corneal sensations are checked by Aesthesiometer
 Neurotrophic ulcer  Paralysis of 5th Nerve
 Neuroparalytic ulcer  Paralysis of 7th Nerve
 MC indication of penetrating keratoplasty is psuedophakic bullous keratopathy
 DALK  Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasy is indicated in stromal pathologies
 Primary graft failure manifest on 1st post operative day with severe edema of cornea
 Ferry line  Corneal epithelial iron line on bleb are seen
 Lasik is done using excimer laser ( 193 nm)
 IOP is increased by age, myopia, smoking, valsalva; decreased by cold, exercises
 Critical angle for cornea tear film interface is 46 degrees
 Target size in Humphrey perimeter is III , 4 m
 Earliest field defect is isopteric contraction, insignificant though
 Defects in bjerrum area ( arcuate area in 25 degrees), significant of glaucomatous damage
 Earliest field defect is isopteric contraction, insignificant though
 Triad in congenital glaucoma is blepharospasm, photophobia, lacrimation
 Mutation of CYPB gene is seen in congenital glaucoma, most cases are sporadic
 Light used for phase contrast microscopy  Polarized light
 Resolution of light microscope  0.2 micron meter
 Capsule of B. anthrax demonstrated by  Mac Fayden reaction
 Outer membrane protein is present only in gram negative bacteria
 Compostion of endospore  Dipicolinic acid
 Lophotrichious arrangement of flagella  H. pylori
 Falling leaf motility  Giardia lamblia
 Haab’s straie  Horizontal stress lines in DM in buphthalmos
 Trabeculotomy plus trabeculectomy is treatment of choice for congenital glaucoma
 Krukenberg spindle, iris transillumination defects, sampaolesi line are seen in pigmentary glaucoma
 ICE syndrome, on specular microscopy endothelial cells appear dark with central light spot, showing
pleomorphism
 Rods MC in perifoveal area
 Vitreous has hyaluronic acid and ascorbic acid
 ROP screening < 32 weeks postgestational or birth wt < 1500 gm
 Vision 2020 programme has ROP as avoidable blindness
 Earliest pathological change seen in diabetic retinopathy is loss of pericyte, and clinically microaneurysm

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 Mizuo phenomenon in Oguchi disease ability to see better in dark than during day
 Papilledema is grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy
 DOC is latanoprost for POAG and pilocarpine for PACG
 Drugs with bimodal action is briminodine, bimatoprost , mannitol
 Brimonidine new use is in LASIK , prevents glare and decrease pupil size
 Krukenberg spindle, iris transillumination defects, sampaolesi line are seen in pigmentary glaucoma
 ICE syndrome, on specular microscopy endothelial cells appear dark with central light spot, showing
pleomorphism
 Cattle track/tram track is seen in retina in CRAO
 Retinitis pigmentosa best prognosis is with AD
 Female carrier of RP show tapetal reflex at macula ( golden appearance)
 Lateral wall is strongest, medial is weakest
 Suspensory ligament of lockwood formed by thickening of tenon capsule, on which eye ball rests
 Supraorbital foramen transmits supraorbital nerve and artery, not vein
 MC malignant orbital tumour in adults is B cell lymphoma
 MC primary metastasis to orbit comes from breast.
 Chandler’s classification is for preseptal / postseptal cellulitis
 “Investigation of choice for cholecystitis and gall stones is ultrasound”
 “Investigation of choice for bone density and osteoporosis DEXA bone test”
 “Investigation of choice for GERD is 24 hour ph monitoring ”
 Toxic amlyopia: digoxin, methyl and ethyl alcohol, tobacco, chloroquine, vitamin B2, B 12 deficiencies
 Kjer AD, Behr AR, wolfram AR are hereditary optic neuropathies
LHON mitochondrial inherited optic neuropathy, point mutation at 11778; characterised by telengiectasia of
disc, pupils are spared till the end
 Wernicke hemianopic pupil is seen in optic tract lesions
 Cocaine test for diagnosis of horner syndrome ( horner pupil doesn’t dilate)
 Double ring sign is seen in optic disc hypoplasia
 Bergmeister papillae is posterior most remnant of hyaloids canal
 Superior rectus is a pure elevator in abduction, Inferior rectus is apure depressor in abduction
 For checking action of superior oblique muscle ask the patient to look in and down (reading)
 Pseudoexotropia is seen in positive angle kappa, hypertelorism
 Pseudoesotropia in epicanthus , telecanthus
 Cover test confirms tropia
 Cover uncover test detects phoria
 Krismsky test prism is placed over the apparently normal eye
 Downbeat nystagmus  Drugs , Arnold chiari and cerebellar lesions
 Convergence retraction nystagmus is seen in perinaud’ s syndrome
 Crossed diplopia is seen in exotropia
 Berlin nodules are seen in iris angle
 Mobile shifting hypopyon in behcet’s disease, dense immobile hypopyon in HLA B 27 arthropathies
 Stellate KPs are seen in herpes, Fuch’s heterchromia iridis, toxoplasmosis
 Festooned pupil is irregularly dilated pupil
 Iris pearls  leprosy ; Iris roseolai: syphilis
 Most consistent sign of fracture  Tenderness
 Most reliable sign of fracture  Abnormal mobility

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 Classification for open fractures  Gustilo and anderson classification
 Classification of nerve injuries  1. Seddon and 2. Sunderland
 Rate of regeneration after nerve injury  1mm / day
 Nerve biopsy in leprosy is taken from sural nerve
 Aeroplane splint is used in  Brachial plexus injury
 Klumpke paralysis  injury to lower trunk of Brachial plexus
 “Hellens rule says twins as 1 in 80,2 in (80*80),3 in (80*80*80)
 “In Mayer Rokintansky kuster Hausers syndrome ovary is normal because it develops from genital ridge”
 “Most common cause of perinatal death in multi fetal pregnancy is prematurity”
 REGI Most common complication of proximal humerus fracture  Shoulder stiffness
 Nerve likely to be injured in mid third fracture of humerus  Radial nerve
 Fracture lateral condyle humerus , complication is non union  leads to cubitus valgus deformity
 Mental badge sign  Injury to axillary nerve
 Most common nerve injured in supracondylar fractures of humerus  Anterior interosseous nerve ( branch of
median nerve)
 Colles fracture  Fracture of distal radius at corticocancellous junction with dorsal displacement. seen in post-
menopausal osteoporotic females
 Smith fracture  Fracture distal radius with ventral displacement, also known as reverse colles fracture
 Bartons fracture  Intra articular fracture of distal radius with coronal split of distal fragment
 Night stick fracture  Isolated fracture of ulna with intact radius
 Monteggia fracture  Fracture of proximal ulna with proxila radio ulnar joint subluxation/ dislocation
 Galeazzi fracture dislocation (peidmont fracture)  Fracture of distal radius with distal radio ulnar joint
subluxation or dislocation
 Bennets fracture dislocation  Intra articular fracture base of 1st metacarpal, single fracture line
 Rolando fracture  Comminuted , intra articular fracture base of 1st metacarpal
 Boxer fracture  Fracture neck of 5th metacarpal
 Crescent fracture  Fracture of iliac wing that enters into is joint
 Jumpers fracture  Fracture of sacrum
 Duverney fracture  Isolated iliac wing fracture
 Hoffa fracture Coronal fracture of distal femoral condyle
 Lisfrancs fracture dislocation  Through tarso metatarsal joint
 Jones fracture  Avulsion fracture base of 5th metatarsal
 Pseudo Jones  Avulsion fracture through tip of 5th metatarsal
 Attitude of anterior dislocation of hip  Flexion , abduction and external rotation with no shortening
 Out of any lower limb bone fracture, maximum shortening of the limb is produced by fracture shaft of femur
 Treatment of Comminuted fracture of patella  Encirclage
 Treatment of transverse fracture of patella  Tension band wiring
 Type of seizures common in SSPE Myoclonic
 Meningismus refers to:  Meningeal irritation signs without meningitis
 Most common location of brain tumors in children  Infratentorial
 Marker of neural tube defect is Acetylcholinesterase
 Most common cause of seizures in children  Febrile seizures
 Acquired extra-cranial infection that cause Aqueductal stenosis is:  Mumps
 Commonest type of seizure in newborn:  Subtle
 Most common cause of ischemic heart disease in children  Kawasaki disease

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 Wide fixed spilt S2 heart sound is seen in  Ostium secondum ASD
 Structural with functional closure immediately after birth  Foramen Ovale
 Teratogenic drug associated with Ebsteins’ anomaly  Lithium
 Infective endocarditis is rarely seen in  ASD
 Sequence of development of Eisenmenger’s syndrome Left to right shunt - pulmonary hypertension-right
ventricular hypertrophy -right to left shunt
 In septum primum type of ASD over burden occurs in which chamber  RA+RV
 A neonate has central cyanosis and short systolic murmur in the 2nd day of birth. The diagnosis is  Transposition
of great vessels
 A patient of VSD in CCF develops clubbing with no cyanosis. Diagnosis is  Subacute bacterial endocarditi
 “Squatting attacks” and Polycythemia is a feature of  Cyanotic heart disease
 Pulmonary blood flow is decreased in  Tetralogy of fallot
 A patient present with LVH and pulmonary complications, ECG, show left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis
is Tricuspid atresia
 Pincer grasp is attained at  11 – 12 months
 A child is able to build blocks of 4 cubes developmental age is  18months
 A chid is able to say short sentences of 6 words  4years
 Best treatment for enuresis is  Bed alarm
 Early strict toilet training can result in Encopresis
 A 18 month old baby present with recurrent episodes of excessive crying followed by cyanosis, unconsciousness
and occasional seizures since 9months of age. The most likely diagnosis is  Breath holding spells
 Compared with cow’s milk, mother’s milk has more Lactose
 Hind milk is richer in  Fat
 Breast milk storage in refrigerator is upto  24hours
 Barrett’s esophagus is a  Metaplasia
 Enzymes that protect against free radical damage  Superoxide dismutase (SOD), catalase, glutathione
peroxidase
 Only solid organ where ischemic necrosis is liquefactive  Brain
 CD3  Pan T-Cell Marker
 CD2, CD3  Pre-T Cell Positive
 NK Cell  CD16, CD56 + ve
 CD19  Pan B Cell
 CD 45 Pan Lymphocyte Marker
 CD45RO  Memory Cell Marker
 Caseous necrosis is caused by  TB (most common), syphilis, fungus (Histoplasmosis, Coccidiodomycosis)
 CD 95 (FAS) is a marker of  Apoptosis (extrinsic pathway)
 In apoptosis Apaf-1 is activated by  Cytochrome-C
 Earliest response in acute inflammation  Transient vasoconstriction
 Hallmark of acute inflammation  Increased vascular permeability
 Major microcirculation involved in acute inflammation  Venules
 Cells primarily involved in acute inflammation  Neutrophils
 P- and L-selectin are involved in  Rolling
 E-selectin is involved in  Rolling and adhesion
 Major cells involved in chronic inflammation  Macrophages
 One of the hallmark of chronic inflammation  Tissue destruction
 Major basic protein is formed by  Eosinophils
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 Most important source of histamine  Mast cells
 Life span of neutrophils  4-8 hours (in blood) and 2-5 days (in tissues)
 Three most important proinflammatory cytokines  IL-1, TNT-α, IL-6
 Two most important anti-inflammatory cytokines  IL-10, TGF-β
 Complement responsible for causing bacterial lysis  C5-9 (MAC)
Acute inflammation pain is mediated by  Bradykinin
 Most abundant glycoprotein in basement membrane  Laminin
 Myofibroblasts are seen at  Wound margin
 “Strawberry cervix is seen in  Trachomoniasis”
 “Strawberry nose is seen in  Rhinosporidosis”
 “Strawberry skin and nasal mucosa is seen in  Sarcoidosis”
 Calots triangle  Is made superiorly by inferior border of liver, medially by common hepatic duct and inferiorly
by cystic duct”
 Contents of calots triangle  aAre lymph node of lund, right hepatic artery,cystic artery”
 “Billing method of contraception is a behavioural method”
 “Hasse’s rule is used for calculation of gestational age based on length of fetus”
 Fibrosis is due to  TGF-β
 Important functions of TGF-β  Proliferation of fibroblasts and endothelial cells; chemotoxis of fibroblasts,
neutrophils, macrophages
 True about TX-A2  Formed in platelets, vasoconstriction, promotes platelet aggregation (prothrombotic)
 Procoagulant proteins  Thrombin and other clotting factors
 Anticoagulant proteins  Antithrombin III, Protein C & S, thrombomodulin, α2-macroglobulin
 Pathway activated by contact with negatively charged surface:  Intrinsic pathway
 Intrinsic pathway is activated by  Factor XII (Hageman factor)
 Extrinsic pathway is activated by  Tissue factor (thromboplastin)
 “Coffee bean sign is seen in sigmoid volvulus”
 “Bamboo shaped spine in ankylosing spondylitis”
 “Salt and pepper skull in hyperparathyroidism”
 “Strawberry gingiva is seen in wagners granulomatosis”
 “Strawberry tongue is seen in scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome and kawasaki disease”
 Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen in  Disseminated cancer
 Mutation causing hypercoagulability due to abnormal factor V  Leiden mutation
 Leiden factor is  Mutated factor V
 Dense bodies (delta granules) of platelets contain: ADP, Ca+2, histamine, serotonin, epinephrine
 Organ most vulnerable to hypoxia/ischemia due to shock  Brain (neurons) followed by heart (myocardium)
 cANCA is directed against  Proteinase-3
 pANCA is directed against  Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
 cANCA is found in  Wegener’s granulomatosis
 pANCA is found in  Microscopic polyangitis, Churg-strauss syndrome, idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis,
Good-pasture syndrome, renal-limited vasculitis
 “Snow storm appearance is seen in hydatiform mole”
 “Camoleotes sign is seen in hydatid disease of liver”
 “Colon cutt off sign is seen in acute pancreatitis”
 “Saw tooth sign is seen in diverticulosis”
 “Egg in cup appearance is seen in renal papillary necrosis”

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 “Codmans traingle and sunray app is seen in osteosarcoma”
 Pathological feature of pyogenic granuloma  Granulation tissue
 Kaposi sarcoma arises from  Vascular tissue
 GIT involvement in Kaposi sarcoma  HIV (AIDS) associated
 Anemia with reticulocytosis( >2.5%)  Hemolytic anemia
 Increased red cell distribution width (RDW)  Macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia, iron deficiency anemia,
immune hemolytis anemia
 Characteristic of Hereditary spherocytosis :  MCHC
 Heinz bodies are seen in: G-6PD deficiency
 Enzyme deficiency in erythrocyte causing hemolytic anemia:  G-6PD, pyruvate kinase, aldolase hexokinase
 Thimble bladder is seen in TB bladder”
 Sand patches in bladder are seen in schistosomiasis”
 Chain of lakes is seen in chronic pancreatitis”
 Golfhole ureter is seen in TB ureter”
 Concentration of Hbs required for sickling:  ≥50%
 Death in Hb-Bart’s is due to:  Very high affinity of Hb for 02 (cannot release 02)
 Hair on end appearance on skull x-ray:  Thalassemia, SCA, HS, G6PD deficiency
 Autosplenectomy is seen in:  Sickle cell anemia
 Most important gene mutation in PNH:  Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)
 Mentzer index <13 :  Thalassemia minor
 Bilateral spider leg appearance is seen in polycystic kidneys”
 Air bronchograms are seen in consolidation”
 “String of kantor is seen in crohns disease”
 “Apple core sign is seen in left colon cancer”
 Most important cause of anemia in CRF  Decreased erythropoietin
 By definition, sideroblastic anemia is production of  Ringed sideroblasts
 Stain used for reticulocytes:  Supravital stains (methylene blue and Brilliant cresyl blue)
 Aplastic anemia can progeress to:  PNH, Myelodysplastic anemia, rarely acute leukemia
 Defect in intrinsic coagulation pathway  Prolonged aPTT and clotting time
 Defect in extrinsic coagulation pathway Prolonged prothrombin time (PT)
 Defect in common pathway of coagulation  Prolonged aPTT, PT, CT
 X-linked recessive disorder with coagulation defect:  Hemophilia A(fact 8 def ), Hemophilia B (Christmas
disease/fact 9 def )
 Flower vase sign is seen in Horse shoe kidney”
 Vertebra plana s seen in eosinophillic granuloma”
 Rat tail oesophagus s seen in oesophagal carcinoma”
 Cork screw oesopgagus is seen in diffuse oesophagal spasm”
 Best screening test for hemophilia(all types)  aPTT
 Triad of HUS  Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal failure and thrombocytopenia
 Pentad of TTP  Triad of HUS plus fever and neurological symptoms
 Most characteristic of DIC  Decreased coagulation factors
 Most common type of HD  Nodular sclerosis
 Soap bubble app is seen in osteoclastoma”
 Snowmans sign is seen in TAPVC”
 Boot shaped heart is seen in TOF”

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 Tram track calcification is seen in sturge weber syndrome”
 Most common type of HD in India  Mixed cellularity
 Least common type of HD  Lymphocytic depletion
 Best prognosis of HD  Lymphocytic predominance
 Penicillin Resistance in Steph. Aureus is Transformed by  Transduction>conjugation
 M/C Method of typing of S.Aureus  Phage typing
 M/C/C/ of endocarditis in drug user  S. Aureus
 N. meningitidis ferment both glucose & Maltose
 M/C Strain of N. Meningitidis in India  Serogroup A
 Most Imp virilence factor for N. meningitidis is  Capsular polysaccharide
 Streptococcus pneumonia is M/C/C of Meningitis in Adults
 Specific stain for monoblasts  Non-specific esterase
 Sudan-Black stain  Myeloblast strong (+)ve (M1, M2, M3, M4); monoblast weak (+)ve (Ms)
 Sezary syndrome and Mycosis fungoides  Cutaneous T-cell leukemias
 Most common chromosome involved in cytogenetic abnormality of renal cell carcinoma  Chromosome-3
 Most common radiosensitive bone tumours are multiple myeloma and Ewings sarcoma”
 Most common radiosensitive brain tumor medulloblastoma”
 Most common radiosensitive renal tumor willms tumor”
 Thumbprint sign is seen in ischaemic colitis”
 Mercedes Benz sign is sign is seen in radiopaque gall stones”
 Chromphobe variant of RCC is associated with  Hypodiploidy or monosomy due to loss of multiple
chromosomes: 1,2,6,10,13,17,21, Y
 MichaelisGutmann bodies are seen in:  Malakoplakia
 Most common site of peptic ulcer:  1st part of duodenum
 Double bubble sign s seen in duodenal atresia single in pyloric and
 Multiple bubble sign is seen in ileal`jejanal atresia”
 Driven snow sign is seen in pindborgs tumor”
 Most common location of duodenal ulcer  Anterior wall of 1ST part of duodenum
 Most common benign tumor of liver  Cavernous hemangioma
 Most common primary malignant tumor of liver:  HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma
 Ash leaf macules are characteristic of  Bourneville’s disease (tuberous sclerosis)
 Tectal breaking is seen in Arnold chiary malformation
 Most common glial tumor  Astrocytoma
 “Most radiosensitive cell of body is lymphocyte”
 Most radiosensitive ovarian tumour or of wholebody is dysgerminoma”
 Most common radiosensitive lung tumor is small cell carcinoma of lung”
 Most common radiosensitive testicular tumor is seminoma”
 Most common tumor of lateral hemisphere (cerebral hemisphere) of brain  Astrocytoma
 Most common cause of asymptomatic hypercalcemia  Parathyroid adenoma
 Most common cause of clinically significant hypercalcemia:  Malignancy
 Bronze diabetes is due to  Iron (hemosiderin)
 Father of psychiatry  Dr. Sigmund Freud [1856-1939]
 Most common psychiatric Disorder is  Anxiety Spectrum Disorder>> Depression
 Most Common organic mental disorder  Delirium
 A patient sees a rope and misinterpreted it as snake; this is k/as  Illusion
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 “Investigation of choice for traumatic paraplegia is MRI”
 “Celiac sprue is malabsorption syndrome caused by gliadin protein in wheat
 “Antisaccaromyces antibodes are seen in CROHN’S disease”
 The awareness about the disease in mental status examination is  Insight
 Serial 100-7 subtractions are used to test  Working memory
How many Axis is there in DSM IV TR  5
 Term Schizophrenia was coined by  Eugene Bleuler
 Somatic passivity is associated with  Schizophrenia
 Delusion of Double is k/as  Capgrass Syndrome
 Which cause supersensitivity of Dopamine receptors  Tardive Dyskinesia
 Defect of Conation is seen in  Catatonia
 Neurotransmitter responsible in Schizophrenia  Dopamine
 Most Potent anti-psychotic  Haloperidol
 “Investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease and bronchectasis is HRCT”“
 “Investigation of choice for stable dissecting aneurysm is MRI”
 “Investigation of choice for dissecting aneurysm unstable is transoesophagal USG”
 Which anti-psychotic does not comes in Injectable/ Long acting preparation  Ziprasidone
 New weight neutral antipsychotic is  Lurasidone
 Antipsychotic causing metabolic syndrome  Olanzapine>>Clozapine
 Only available sublingual antipsychotic is  Asenapine
 “Inv of choice for acute cerebral hemorrhage CT”
 “Inv of choice for chronic cerebral hemorrhage is MRI”
 “Inv of choice for posterior med tumor, pancoasts tumor,posterior cranial fossa is MRI”
 Mood stabilizer with Anti-Suicidal property  Lithium
 Anti Psychotic with anti suicidal property  Clozapine
 Most common psychiatric disorder in post partum period is  Depression
 Anti depressant does not have addiction liability  SSRI’s i.e. Fluoxetine
 Evidence based psychological therapy of choice for depression is  C.B.T
 “Anti-mitochondrial in primary billiary cirrhosis”
 “Anti-histone in drug induced lupus”
 “Anti-smooth muscle in autoimmune hepatitis”
 “Biopsy finding in whipples syndrome is PAS positive macrophages in lamina propria”
 Prophylactic maintenance serum lithium level is 0.4-0.8 mEq/L
 Step Ladder pattern of memory loss/ dementia seen in  Multi-infarct dementia
 Drug of choice in dementia is - central acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors  Donepezil, Rivastigmine
 Acute deficiency of Thiamine causes  Wernicke’s encephalopathy
 Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by  Global confusion, Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia
 Maximum time person spend in which Stage of sleep  Stage II NREM
 Narcolepsy occurs due to disturbance/ abnormality in  Hypothalamus
 In Anorexia nervosa which is not seen  Loss of appetite
 “Investigation of choice for obstetric probs is USG”
 “Investigation of choice for PE is CECT>angiography>V/Q scan”
 Sleep Terror is also k/as- Pavor nocturnus
 Bruxism / teeth grinding is seen in  Stage II NREM
 EEG was discovered by  Hans
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 Classification of Atypical Mycobacteria  Ranyon Classification
 M. Bovis is Niacin & nitrate Negative
 M ulceron  Buruli ulcer
 M/C site for extrapulmonary T.B in GIT  caecum
 M smegmatis  Acid fast Not Alcohol fast
 La-Belle indifference is seen in  Conversion disorder
 Persistent preoccupation with serious illness with normal body function  Illness anxiety disorder
 Most Common symptom of alcohol withdrawal is  tremors
 Alcoholic paranoia is characterized by  fixed delusions
 Ethylene oxide is known as  Intermittent disinfectant
 Sporicidal agent  Ethyl oxide, formaldehyde, H2O2, halogen, hypochlorite, glutaraldehyde
 M/C media for anaerobic culture  Robertson cooked meat broath
 Enriched media  Loeffler serum, blood agar, dorset media, chocolate media
 Drug of choice for alcohol withdrawal/ alcohol withdrawal seizures  Benzodiazepines [especially-
Clordiazepoxide]
 Most Common substance use disorder in India  Nicotine
 Most common illicit drug abused in India  Cannabis
 Most common licit drug Abused in India  Alcohol
 Most Common psychoactive substance used worldwide is  Caffeine
 Cannabis intoxication causes  dry mouth, tachycardia, increased appetite and Conjunctival injection [red
eyes]
 Composition of Cytoplasmic Membrane of bacteria  Diaminopimelic Acid
 Antibody was discovered by  Von-Behring & Kitasato
 Twitching motility  T. vaginalis
 Fastest decolourizer in gram stain  Acetone
 Glutaraldehyde is used to sterilize  Cystoscope, bronchoscope
 ECT is not useful in- Acute Anxiety/ Dissociative disorder
 Fixation of Depression/Schizophrenia is in  Oral Phase
 Primary process thinking is  Illogical and bizarre
 Drug of choice of ADHD with Tourette’s syndrome  Atomoxetine
 Marchiafava Bignami syndrome in Alcoholics is characterized by  Demyelination of corpus callosum, optic
tract and cerebellar peduncles
 Duration for Mania  7 days
 False positive Mantoux test  BCG, Atypical Mycobacterial infection
 Phenoglycolipid act as a Virulence factor for M. leprae
 Medial popliteal Nerve never involved in Leprosy
 Lepromin test is a Prognostic marker
 Langhans giant cell not found in lepromatous leprosy
 M/c/c of travelers diarrhea  ETEC
 ICD code associated with Schizophrenia  F 20-29
 Inability to recognize or describe feeling is k/as- Alexithymia
 Phantom limb is an example of disorder in  Perception
 CYP3A4 is the enzyme present in maximum amount (30%) in liver and carries out metabolism of more than 50%
of drugs
 CYP2D6 is involved in maximum number of drug interactions and mainly metabolises basic drugs

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 M/c serotype for EHEC  O157:H7
 Dienes phenomenon  to know relation between different strains of proteus
 Most hard shigella  S.Sonnei
 Si. dysentriae  Indole positive
 All Salmonella are motile except  S. gallinarum Pullorum
 Isoniazid, acetaminophen, glucoronidation, oxazepam and lorazepam undergo phase II metabolism first
 Potency is determined by both affinity and efficacy and is reflected by EC50 value on dose response curve
 Efficacy is determined by coupling process (intrinsic activity) and affinity and is indicated by Emax
 M/C/C of gastroenteritis  S. typhimurium
 Yersinia Pestis has saftey Pin Appeareance in Methylene Blue stain
 A.V Leewenhoek  Ancient father of Microbiology
 Louis pasteur  Modern Father of Microbiology
 First Cancer by Virus  Human T-Cell Leukemia
 Main pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter in autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system is acetylcholine
 Acetylcholine is main post-ganglionic neurotransmitter in parasympathetic nervous system, somatic nervous
system and some sympathetic nerve fibres (sweat glands (eccrine), adrenal medulla (preganglionic)
 M1, M3 and M5 muscarinic receptors couple to Gq-PLC-Ca2+/G11 protein
 M2 and M4 couple to Gi/G0 proteins
 M2 is the predominant inhibitory autoreceptor and heteroreceptor
 Neostigmine has direct Nm stimulatory action in addition to being reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
 Tacrine (withdrawn due to hepatoxicity), galantamine, rivastigmine and donepezil are used for alzheimer’s
disease
 Edrophonium is shortest acting acetylcholinesterse inhibitor used for edrophonium (Tensilon test) in myasthenia
gravis patients
 Mannitol and acetazolamide are drug of choice for closed `angle glaucoma
 Latanoprost causes iris pigmentation and hypertrichosis as characteristic adverse effects
 Atropine and Hyoscine are natural alkaloids derived from atropa belladonna and hyoscymous niger respectively
Both are also present in datura stramonium
 Pirenzepine and telenzepine are M1 selective antagonists used for peptic ulcer
 Atropine causes flushing of vessels of face (atropine Blush) and thorax in children particularly
 Death in Diptheria is due to circulatory failure
 C. Parvum  Immunomodulator
 Selective media for B. Anthrax  PLET Media
 Anthrax is M/c agent of Bioterrorism
 Selective Media for B. cereus  MYPA Media
 Citron body and boat shaped gram Positive bacilli  Cl. Septicum
 Physostigmine is drug of choice for atropine poisoning but is used only sparingly due to high chances of
bradycardia and seizures
 Hypotension with tachycardia is the characteristic sign of ganglionic blockade
 Mecylamine is used for smoking cessation
 Varenicline, α4β2 nicotinic agonist is drug of choice for smoking cessation
 Trimethaphan is used as emergency antihypertensive in aortic dissection off adjunct to anesthesia hypotension
during surgery
 Prazosin and other selective α1 blockers have favorable effect on lipid profile i.e. increase HDL and decrease LDL
 Selective Media for Meningitidis  Thayer Martin
 N Gonorrhea is M/C/C of PID in world
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 T.B is M/C/C of PID in India
 Best Medium for detection carrier, Cases & Convatescent for diptheria  Potassium tellurite
 Park Williams 8 Store  Used for Production of DPT vaccine
 1st Muscle to involved in Diptheria  Palatopharynges
 Tamsulosin and silodosin are bladder selective α1A selective blockers used for urinary obstruction in BHP
patients
 All α blockers can lead to nasal stuffiness, sedation, depression and delayed ejaculation as adverse effect
 Alfuzosin (extended release) has lowest incidence of ejaculatory dysfunction while silodosin has highest
incidence of ejaculatory dysfunction chances
 Tamsulosin is associated with floppy iris syndrome
 H2 receptor stimulation leads to increased gastric acid secretion
 H3 receptors are mainly presynaptic auto and hetero-receptors. H3 receptor blockade leads to increased food
intake, obesity and insulin resistance
 First generation H1 receptor blockers lead to sedation and weight gain and anticholinergic side effects
 Second generation H1 blockers do not lead to sedation and have no anticholinergic side effects
 Serotonin is synthesized from tryptophan through rate limiting enzyme tryptophan hydroxylase
 Tryptophan hydroxylase is inhibited by p-chlorophenylalanine and p-chloroamphetamine
 Necrotising enteritis  also by beta toxin of cl.perfringens
 Cl.Botulism  Flaccid Paralysis
 Tetanospasmin block gaba and glycine Neuro transmitter presynaptically
 Infant botulism due to ingestion of sub Terminal spores; source – honey [cause- floppy child syndrome]
 M/C Antibiotics Associated with Pseudo Membranous colitis  Clindamycin
 5-HT1a and 5-HT 1b/1d are autoreceptors with highest concentrations in raphe nuclei,brainstem and basal
ganglia respectively
 5-HT2 receptors are located in blood vessels and platelets and lead to vasoconstriction and platelet aggregatio
 5-HT3 receptors are involved in Bezold Jarish reflex due to activation of vagal afferent
 Bumetanide is the most potent loop diuretic while torsemide has longest half-life (3.5 hrs
 Loop diuretics increase anticoagulant activity of warfarin, while thiazide diuretics decrease it
 Ethacrynic acid is the most ototoxic diuretic
 Thiazide diuretics are ineffective in renal failure except indapamide and metolozane (thiazide-like diuretics)
 Hyperosmolality and hypovolemia are stimulators of vasopressin secretion
 Desmopressin is the drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus while thiazide diuretics are drug of choice for
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
 Chlorpropamide, clofibrate and carbamazepine are alternatives for treatment of central diabetes insipidus only
 Indomethacin can also be used for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
 Amiloride is the drug of choice for lithium induced diabetes insipidus. It mainly acts by inhibiting lithium uptake
into renal tubules
 ACE inhibitors are associated with dry cough and angioedema due to increased bradykinin levels
 Icatibant is bradykinin receptor antagonist approved for treatment of cough and angioedema with ACE
inhibitors
 Ecalantide is kallikrein antagonist approved for hereditary angioedema
 Beta blockers are also the drug of choice for automatic atrial tachycardia induced by digoxin which are delayed
after depolarization (DAD) mediated
 Amiodarone has the broadest spectrum of anti-arrhythmic drugs. It blocks delayed rectifier K+channels, Na+
channels, Ca2+ channels and beta receptors
 Bacteria require cholesterol for their growth  Mycoplasma

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 Bacteria require factor 10 and 5 for growth  H. influenza
 Prions can be killed by exposure of NaOH for 1 hour
 Control used in Hot Air oven  CL. Tetani, spores of bacillus subtiles, brown tubes
 Coxiella burneti survived holder method but killed by flush methode of pasteurization
 Inspissation is also known as  Fractional sterilization
 Gamma rays is also known as  Cold sterilization
 Cadgut is sterilize by  Gamma rays
 I.V. H2 receptor antagonists are drug of choice for stress induced ulcers
 Prostaglandin analogues are the most specific drugs for NSAID induced ulcer
 Antacids such as combination of Al (OH)3 and Mg(OH)2 are the fastest acting drugs for relief of ulcer pain
 Misoprostol leads to diarrhea and spasmodic pain
 Rebamipide exerts a cytoprotective effect both by increasing prostaglandin generation in gastric mucosa and
by scavenging reactive oxygen species
 Ecabet increases the formation of PGE2 and PGI2, also is used for ulcer therapy
 I. V. deferoxamine is drug of choice for acute iron poisoning
 Vitamin B12 is absorbed mostly from terminal ileum while folic acid is mostly absorbed from jejunum
 Active form of vitamin B12 in body are methycobalamin and deoxyadenosylcobalamin while active form of folic
acid in body is methyltetrahydrofolic acid
 Most advanced methode of transfer of genetic material  Conjugation
 Bacteriophage encoded toxin  Cholera toxin, diptheria toxin , botulinum toxin C & D
 Plasmid mediated drug resistance transfer from both horizontal and vertical method
 Cocci arranged in ovoid shape Sarcina
 Thumb print app  Bordetella pertussis
 Generation time for E. coli  20 min
 Microaerophillic bacteria  H. pylori, campylobacteria, M. bovis
 Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia with neurological symptoms called as subacute combined
degeneration of spinal cord (SACD)
 Darbopoietin alpha has longer half-life than epoietin alpha
 LMW heparin and Fondaparinux are preferred over heparin for treatment of patients with unstable angina and
MI
 Heparin acts by activating antithrombin III which inhibits catalytic activity of factor X and factor II (thrombin)
 LMW heparin acts by causing conformational change in activity of antithrombin III which leads to inhibition of
factor X only
 Bivalirudin is also used for MI patients undergoing angioplasty
 Argatroban is hepatically metabolized and contraindicated in hepatic disease
 Drotecogin alpha is recombinant activated protein c that inactivates factor Va and VIIIa and used in patients of
sepsis within 48 hrs
 Octreotide and lanreotide act predominantly on SST2 receptor
 Pasireotide causes more hyperglycemia while octreotide leads to gall stones
 Liothyronine is only indicated for initial treatment of myxedema coma
 Propylthiouracil and methimazole are drug of choice for treatment of hyperthyroidism in young adults and
pregnant woman
 Propylthiouracil is preferred over methimazole for thyrotoxic crisis due to it’s property of inhibiting conversion
of T4 to T3
 Radioactive iodine (I131 isotope, t1/2: 8 days) is drug of choice for treatment of hyperthyroidism in elderly and
cardiac patients

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 Most common side effect of radioactive iodine is delayed hypothyroidism
 Aminoglutethimide inhibits CY11A1, ketoconazole inhibits CY17-α-hydroxylase, metyrapone and etomidate
inhibit CYP11B1 and mitotane destroys adrenal cortex
Methoxyflurane is most potent and has least MAC value (0.115)
 Methoxyflurane has highest blood gas partition coefficient and therefore is slowest acting
 Desflurane has lowest blood gas partition coefficient (0.45) and is fastest acting agent
 Compliment C5-C9 Deficiency  Neisseria
 Marker for Pro T Cell  CD7
 IL  2 Act as growth Factor for NK Cell
 Example of compliment Fixation Test  Wasserman test
 Ascoli Thermo perception Test  Anthrax
 M/c Source of Infection for staph Aureus  Pt. Own Colorizing Strain
 Flunitrazepam (rohypnol) is abused as date rape drug
 Z-drugs are zolpidem, zopiclone and zaleplon are used for short term treatment of insomnia
 Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
 Disulfiram is an inhibitor of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
 Procaine penicillin can lead to seizures
 Nafcillin can lead to neutropenia
 Oxacillin can lead to hepatitis
 Methicillin can lead to interstitial nephritis
 Carbenecillin can lead to hypoprothrombinemia and bleeding
 Cephalosporins act in similar manner to penicillins by inhibiting transpeptidase enzyme
 Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are other important adverse effects of Vancomycin
 Teicoplanin is another glycopeptide antibiotic, with similar use and mechanism as of Vancomycin
 Teicoplanin can be given i.m. also and it has lesser chances of red man syndrome and nephrotoxicity
 Oritavancin, telavancin and dalbavancin are lipoglycopeptides, cell wall synthesis inhibitors (like Vancomycin)
used for treatment of skin and skin-structure infections by MRSA
 Lincosamides such as clindamycin act in a manner similar to macrolides by binding to 50S ribosome
 Clindamycin is highly effective against B.fragilis and indicated for treatment of anaerobic infections
 Rifampicin has most effect on actively growing organisms in walls of cavities
 Rifampicin causes hepatotoxicity and flu like syndrome
 Dapsone is associated with hemolytic anemia, methmoglobinemia, hypersensitivity reactions
 V. Parahaemolyticus show Kanagawa Phenomenon on Wagatsuma agar
 Vector for Plague  Rat flea
 Knock postulates not followed by  M. Leprae, T. Pallodum
 Lister  Father of Antiseptic surgery
 Hanging drop method for motality discovered by  Robert knock
 Louis Pasteur discovered  Hot Air Oven, auto Clave, Stem Sterilizer
 Thalidomide or steroids are drug of choice for erythema nodosum leprosum
 Ketoconazole can lead to gynaecomastia, loss of libido and menstrual irregularities
 Ketoconazole is used in treatment of cushings disease and topically for head lice
 Itraconazole is also associated with hepatotoxicity, negative inotropic effect and can lead to CHF
 Zidovudine is associated with nail hyperpigmentation
 Stavudine is associated with maximum chances of peripheral neuropathy
 Enfuviritide is only anti-HIV drug that is given parenterally (s.c.)

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 Lymphadenopathy and pneumonia are side effects of enfuviritide
 Most common toxicity of bolus dose of 5-FU is bone marrow suppression
 Most common toxicity of infusional regimen of 5-FU is hand and foot syndrome (peripheral neuropathy)
 Synergohymenotropipc Toxin  Bicomponent Toxin and leucocidin
 Differential media  Mac-conkey, cystine lactose electrolyte deficient agar
 Negative acute phase reactant protein  histamine , albumin, transferrin
 Normal value of CRP  <0.2mg/dl
 Half life of CRP  18 days
 Capecitabine (Prodrug of 5-FU) causes more hand and foot syndrome
 Most serious adverse effect of bevacizumab is thrombotic events (stroke and MI)
 Main side effect of imatinib, dasatinib and erlotinib is gastrointestinal toxicity such as nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. Fluid retention, peripheral edema are common adverse effects
 Hepatotoxicity is another common side effect of above tyrosine kinase inhibitor drugs
 Bortezomib causes thrombocytopenia
 Protein nature of antigen has maximum antigenicity
 Cold agglutination test  Mycoplasma + Human O+ve Rbc
 Shigella sonnei classified by collisin typing into 26 type
 Cell necrosis and lysis done by Enterovirus
 Rounding of cell by  Picorna virus
 Von magnus phenomenon is  High haemagglutinin titre , low infectivity
 Tracheal ring organ used for cultivation of  Corona virus
 Persons per room--accepted standards are 
 1 room--2 persons
 2 room--3 persons
 3 rooms--5 persons
 >5 rooms--10 persons( addnl 2 fr each further room)
 Vascular anastomosis 
 Non-absorbable monofilament suture material should be used, e.g. polypropylene
 The suture must pass from within outwards on the downflow aspect of the anastomosis
 The following are daily requirements of electrolytes in adults: 
 Sodium: 50–90 mM/day
 Potassium: 50 mM/day
 calcium: 5 mM/day
 magnesium: 1 mM/day
 Necrotising fasciitis
 Caused by beta-haemolytic strep or is polymicrobial
 Also called Fournier’s or Meleney’s gangrene
 Progress is rapid and renal failure is an early complication
 Treat with radical surgical excision repeated every 24 hours
 Give oxygen and penicillin
 Legg–Calvé–Perthes’ disease
 Most common in boys aged 4–8 years
 AVN leads to femoral head collapse, healing occurs with the return of the blood supply
 Management aims to maintain femoral head sphericity
 Treatment may be non-surgical (to maximise range of movement) or surgical (for containment or ‘salvage’)
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 The prognosis is better in younger children who have more remodelling potential
 Condition - Affected bone
 Keinbock’s - disease
 Lunate Panner’s disease apitellum of the humerus
Freiberg’s disease metatarsal head
 Köhler’s diseasen navicular
 Operations for inguinal hernia
 Herniotomy
 Open suture repair - Bassini Shouldice Desarda
 Open flat mesh repair - Lichtenstein
 Open complex mesh repair - Plugs Hernia systems
 Open preperitoneal repair - Stoppa
 Laparoscopic repair - TEP TAPP
 Carcinoid syndrome
 Diarrhoea
 Bronchospasm
 Facial/upper chest flushing
 Palpitations
 Tricuspid regurgitation
 Four degrees of haemorrhoids
 First degree – bleed only, no prolapse
 Second degree – prolapse, but reduce spontaneously
 Third degree – prolapse and have to be manually reduced
 Fourth degree – permanently prolapsed
 Indications for surgical removal of a ureteric calculus
 Repeated attacks of pain and the stone is not moving
 Stone is enlarging
 Complete obstruction of the kidney
 Urine is infected
 Stone is too large to pass
 Stone is obstructing solitary kidney or there is bilateral obstruction
 Cause of surgical abdomen is acute appendicitis 
 Causes of appendix obstruction in the young is mesenteric lymphadenitis or lymphoid hyperplasia 
 Infective from of Leishmania  Promastigote
 Diagnostic from of Leishmania  Amastigote in Macrophage k/a LD Body
 Virulense factor for Kala Azar  1(gp-63, 2) lipophosphoglycan, 3) glycosyl phospho inositol
 Sample for Kala Agar  Spleen (most sensitive), M/C – BM
 Infective form of Trypanosoma cruzi  Trypomastigote
 Ramanas Sign Seen in  Acute Chagas disease
 Mott Cell Seen in  Trypanosoma bruci
 Causes of appendix obstruction in older patients is fecolith and foreign body 
 Tumor of the appendix is carcinoid 
 Benigntumor of the small bowel is leiomyoma 
 Primary tumor of the small bowel adenocarcinoma 
 Malignant tumors of the small bowel is adenocarcinoma, carcinoid, and lymphoma 
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 Small bowel malignancy of children is lymphoma 
 Surgical condition of the small bowel is obstruction secondary to adhesions 
 Anaerobe in the colon is Bacteriodes fragilis 
 Infective from of Malaria  Sporozoites
 Armed Tape worm  T. Solium, H.Nana, echinococcus
 Infective from of T.Saginata  Larva
 Man is dead End Host For. Echinococcus granulosus
 Casoni skin Test  E.granulosus
 Water lily Sign on USG E. Granulosus
 Largest Tapaworm in Human GIT Diphyllobothrum Latum
 Site for metastases from the colon is the liver 
 Location of colonic obstruction is the sigmoid colon 
 Cause of colonic obstruction is adenocarcinoma 
 Site of volvulus is the sigmoid colon 
 Site of bile duct carcinoma is the bifurcation of the common hepatic ducts 
 Causes of acute pancreatitis are alcohol consumption and biliary calculi 
 Causes of death in a patient with pancreatitis are respiratory distress, cardiovascular collapse, coagulopathy and
hemorrhage 
 Local complications of acute pancreatitis are paralytic ileus, sterile peripancreatic fluid collection, and pancreatic
abscess 
 Site of pancreatic cancer is the head of the pancreas 
 Refractive surgery is radial keratotomy 
 Cause of blindness in the developed world is proliferative diabetic retinopathy 
 Etiology of visual loss in patients with diabetes mellitus is macular edema 
 Cause of eye malposition is lagopthalmos secondary to eyelid retraction, proptosis, and CN VII palsy
 Cause of proptosis in children is periocular infection 
 Light Chain  Lambda = Chr . 2; Kappa = Chr. 22
 Papain Enzyme  2fab + 1 FC Segment
 Pepsin Enzyme one F (ab) 2
 2nd Most Abundant Ig  Ig A
 AB of ABO system  IGM
 Walden strom Macroglobinemia  IGM
 Marrack’s Hypothesis  Ag (50%) + AB (50%)
 Bond b/w Ag & AB  Hydrogen bond, lonic bond, Vanderwaal force
 Cause of proptosis in adults is Grave’s Disease 
 Cause of ocular venous occlusion is glaucoma
 Tissue transplant is corneal 
 Reason for corneal treatment: pseudophakic bullous keratopathy 
 Location of hip fracture is at the femoral neck and intertrochanter 
 Sprained ligament is the anterior talofibular ligament 
 Foci of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are the metaphases of long bones secondary to turbulent flow 
 Variety of osteoporosis is the involutional type, often seen in post-menopausal women 
 Musculoskeletal morbidity in the elderly is osteoarthritis 
 The most moveable joint is the genohumoral joint 
 The strongest bone segment is the femoral shaft 

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 Cause of otitis externa  Pseudomonas 
 Benign lesion of the ear is actinic keratosis
 Site of Ameboma- Recto  Sigmoid Region
 M/C site for amoebic liver absess  Post superior surface of Right lobe of liver
 Naegleria fowleri has neural spread  Olfactory nerve
 Largest protozoa  Balantidium coil
 Trophozoites and cyst of balantidium coli are Binucleated
 M/C/C of dysentery in adults- E. histolytica
 Lactate intolerance by  Giardia lamblia
 Trophozoites is infective form & Diagnostic stage of  Trichomonas Vaginalis
 M/c parasite causing STD & NGU  T. Vaginalis
 Congenital external ear malformation is lop ear (absence of cartilage) 
 Causative organisms of otitis media are H. influenzae and Strep. pneumoniae 
 Cause of trauma to the middle ear is foreign object insertion 
 Tumor is benign acoustic neuroma 
 Cause of vertigo is vestibular neuritis 
 Site of epistaxis is Kiesselbach’s plexus (in nasal septum)
 Location of epistaxis in children is anterior, often traumatic 
 M/C/C of Adult onset Epilepsy  Neurocysticercosis (NCC)
 M/C Manifestation of NCC  Seizure (70%)
 Del Brotto Criteria for  NCC
 All Trematodes need 3 host Except- schistosoma  2 host
 Wakana disease seen in  Ancylostoma
 Forssmann Antigen  Lipid – Cho Complex
 Location of epistaxis in adults is posterior, secondary to system causes such as hypertension and atherosclerosis 
 Tumor of the paranasal sinuses is osteoma 
 Non-infectious cause of rhinitis is allergic (about 20% of population) 
 Medical cause of rhinitis is decongestant abuse 
 Orbital infection is acute ethmoidal sinusitis 
 Fungal infection of the oral cavity is moniliasis 
 Paratenic Host  Ancylostoma duodenale, W. Bancrofti. E. vermicularis
 Only protozoa found in small intestine  Giardia lamblia
 Brain parasite  Acanthameba, balmuthia, Naegleria fowleri
 Largest liver fluke  Fasciola Hepatica
 Largest Trematode  Fasciolopsis Buski
 Largest Helminth  T. saginata
 Benign neoplasm of the oral cavity and pharynx is squamous papilloma 
 Malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity and pharynx is squamous cell carcinoma 
 Benign neoplasm of the parotid gland in children is hemangioma 
 Malignant neoplasm of the parotid gland is mucoepidermoid carcinoma 
 Malignant neoplasm of salivary glands (except parotid) is adenocystic carcinoma 
 Cause of infant stridor is laryngomalacia 
 Inflammatory condition of the larynx in adults is acute laryngitis 
 Ovoviviparous nematodes  strongyloides
 Unfertilized egg of ascaris do not flat on concentrated solution
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 Cystic stage is absent in Entamoeba gingivalis, dientamoeba fragilis
 Cystic stage of e.histolytica have 8 nuclei
 Infective stage of e.histolytica  cystic stage
 Diagnostic stage of e. histolutica  trophozoite
 M/C site for amoebic ulcer  ileo caecal Region
 Benign tumor of the larynx in children is squamous papilloma
 Malignant tumor of the larynx is squamous cell carcinoma 
 Etiologies of neck masses in children are congenital and inflammatory 
 Etiology of neck masses in adults is neoplasm 
 Benign neck tumors are lipoma and neurogenic tumors (schwannoma, neurofibroma) 
 Malignant lateral neck masses in children are lymphoma and rhabdomyosarcoma 
 The cricoarytenoid muscles are the only ones that ABduct the vocal cords 
 Cause of hypercalcemia in a surgical patient is primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism and metastatic
bone disease 
 Cause of hypermagnesimemia secondary to renal failure 
 NSAID that decreases platelet function is aspirin 
 Cause of hypovolemic shock is hemorrhage 
 Zygomycosis on SD Agar  Cotton wool colonies with salt pepper appearance A/Ka lid lifter
 Air Crescent sign on chest X-ray and Halo Sign a CT Scan seen in  Aspergillosis
 A. fumigatus  M/C/C of fungal keratitis
 A. flavas  M/C/C of Aflatoxin production cause CA liver
 A. niger  M/C/C otomycosis
 M/C/C of atypical pneumonia in HIV pt  Pneumocystis Jirovecil
 M/C/C of atypical pneumonia overall  Mycoplasma
 Cause of immediate death after an MVA or fall from height is aortic rupture 
 Injury to the thoracic cage is a rib fracture 
 Hernia in both sexes and all age groups is bilateral inguinal hernia 
 Causes of true aneurysm are acquired atherosclerosis, congenital fibromuscular dysplasia (Marfans) 
 In viral replication uncoating is not done for BACTERIOPHAGE
 Teratogenic virus  ParvoB19, Varicella, Rubella, CMV, Herpes
 Smallest Tapeworm  Hymenolepis nana
 Largest Nematodes  Ascaris
 Smallest nematode  Trichinella
 Unsegmented egg of Nematodes  Ascaris, Trichuris
 Cause of spontaneous, bloody unilateral nipple discharge is intraductal papilloma 
 Variety of thyroid carcinoma is papillary 
 Cause of hypercalcemia is hyperparathyroidism 
 Cause of presinusoidal portal hypertension is schistosomiasis 
 Appliance for compression of bleeding esophageal varicesais the Sengstaken-Blakemore tube 
 Cause of secondary hypersplenism is portal hypertension 
 Type of primary liver cancer is hepatoma 
 Benign liver tumor is a hemangioma 
 Indication for splenectomy is splenic injury 
 Cause of spontaneous splenic rupture is malaria (next most common is mononucleosis) 
 Only Hepatitis virus cultivable in vitro  Hepatitis A
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 Acute Hepatitis
 1st marker – HSB Ag +ve
 Diagnostic marker – Anti HBc Ag IgM
 Chronic Hepatitis is Associated with glomerulonephritis
 Child – MGN
 Adult – MPGN
 Best Epidemological marker for Hepatitis  Anti HBc IgG
 DOC for
 R- Rickettsia
 B- Brucella = Doxycycline
 C- Cholera
 Hemolyticanemia to respond to splenectomy is congenital hereditary spherocytosis 
 Indication for aortic/bifemoral bypass graft is for bilateral iliac obstruction 
 Cause of renovascular hypertension in children is fibromuscular dysplasia 
 Site of embolic occlusion is the femoral artery 
 Benign type of melanoma is superficial lentigo malignant melanoma 
 Single agent treatment of melanoma is DTIC 
 Doc for MAC infection  Clarithromycin
 Doc for Typhoid  Ciprofloxacin
 Only fungus with capsule  Cryptococcus
 Sphagetti & meat ball Appearance  tinea versicolor
 Scutula [Cup like crust an hair follicle] seen in  Tinea capitis [Favus]
 Blastomycosis Also K/o  Chicago disease/gilchrist disease
 Drugs for PCA are morphine sulfate and meperidine 
 Variant of Hodgkins disease is nodular sclerosing 
 The variant of Hodgkins Disease with the best prognosis is lymphocyte predominant 
 The variant of HodgkinsDiease with the worst prognosis is lymphocyte depleted
 M/C Risk factor for candida infection  DM
 Mickey Mouse/Pilot wheel appearance  Paracoccidiode
 Cryptococcus is M/C deep Mycosis in India
 Virulence factor for cryptococcus is 
 Poly Saccharide capsule
 Phenyloxidase erzyme
 Naked virus 
 PAP (DNA )– Parvo, Adeno, Parvo
 PARC (RNA) – Picorna, Astro virus, Reo , calcivirus
 Agglutination RXN is more sensitive than Precipitation RXn
 Tube Flocculation Test  Kahn Test
 Most Sensitive Test for Leptospirosis  Microscopic Agglutination test
 Paul Bunnel Test for  EBV
 Rose Water Test  Passive Agglutination Test
 Most important opsonin  IgG , C3b
 Compliment C3, C6, C9 Synthesize from  Liver
 Staph Aureus show black colony on  Telurite Media

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IMAGES  Which type of Encirclage is depicted in this picture
 Identify the vertebraC2 When it is applied and when it is removed  Cervical
circlage, 14-16 weeks, 37 weeks if ok

 The septum in a coronal view  Uterine septum,

Uterine septum removal found to improve fertility
and pregnancy outcome
 Oval window and round window are situated over
which wall of tympanic cavity  Medial wall

 Surgery …….. Technique  Uchida technique

 There are How many FOLDS OF DURAMATER  4

 T – shaped IUD on radiograph

 What is the name of the swelling on the head of this

baby after this procedure is completed successfully
 Cephalhematoma
 Cusco’s self retaining vaginal speculum

 Name the artery marked in blue External iliac

artery
 Late Decelerations

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 Mauriceau -Smelllie – Veit manouvre

 Fleischer ring at base of keratoconus

 Granular dystrophy ( Hyaline material deposition in
stroma)

Irregular keratometry (KC) at placido disc (L) and

Pentacam (R)
 Endothelial cell count by choosing fixed frame
method:

 Herpetic (DENDRITIC) keratitis

 Arcus senilis: MC peripheral degeneration, Lipid,

deposition in limbus:

 Acanthamoeba ulcer: Ring shaped, Perineural

keratitis

 Phenol red Thread test:

 Salmon Patch: Interstitial keratitis (bleeding in

stroma)  Staph aureus golden colour pin head shaped colony
on blood agar
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 Rhinosporidiosis on conjunctiva caused by
rhinosporidium seeberi:

 Flask shaped amoebic ulcer at caecum by

Ehistolytica

 Sustained spasm of facial muscle risus sardonicus

due to tetanospasmin toxin of cl. tetani

 Green nail syndrome caused by pseudomonas

aerugenosa

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 RADIOLOGY
1. The part shown in the photograph is used in 7. The ultrasound sign of the condition shown in the image is

Ans. X rays
2. Target in the imaging modality in photograph is made up of
Ans. Lung point sign, Barcode sign, Stratosphere sign

8. 35-year old with a history of asbestos exposure presents with chest

pain. X-ray shows a solitary pulmonary nodule in the left lower zone.
The most likely diagnosis is

Ans. Molybdenum
3. The monitoring of the equipment shown in the photograph is done
every
Ans. Round atelectasis

9. A 45 year old male presents with acute chest pain. The diagnosis is

Ans. Quarterly
4. The modality shown in the image is

Ans. Aortic dissection

10. A 75 year old female presents with shortness of breath and poor exer-
cise tolerance. The diagnosis is

Ans. Positron emission tomography

5. The cause of right white-out hemithorax in this patient is Ans. Left atrial enlargement

11. A neonate presents with cyanosis and dyspnea. Diagnosis is

Ans. Collapse of right lung

Ans. Supracaradiac TAPVC
6. The cause of acute breathlessness in this patient is
12. The sign shown in the image is seen in

Ans. Pulmonary edema

Ans. Pneumonia, Pulmonary, Edema, Alveolar proteinosis

57
 13. The most common location of the condition shown in image is 19. A 20 year old male presents with cough and fever. The diagnosis based
on the image is

Ans. Left posterolateral Ans. Hydatid cyst

14. Most sensitive chest x ray view for the condition shown in the image is 20. A 20 year old male presents with cough and fever.
The diagnosis based on the image is

Ans. Lung abscess

Ans. Left Lateral decubitus with horizontal beam
21. A 20 year old male presents with cough and fever. The diagnosis based
15. A 50 year old male presents with shortness of breath. Most likely diag-
on the image is
nosis is

Ans. Pericardial effusion

16. Best investigation for the condition shown in image is
Ans. Tuberculosis
22. The sign shown in the image is seen

Ans. Chest x ray

17. The anatomic part of the lung affected in the given image is
Ans. Carcinoma
23. Based on the image, the diagnosis is

Ans. Right middle lobe Ans. Hydropneumothorax

18. The sign shown in the chest X-ray is 24. A child presents with fever and cough. He is suffering from

Ans. Laryngotracheobronchitis

Ans. Air crescent sign

58
25. The cause of acute abdominal pain in this patient 31. The triad of vomiting , abdominal distension and the classical sign
shown in the image is diagnostic of

Ans. A ruptured gastric ulcer.

26. A 40 year old male patient presents with dysphagia and chest
discomfort. He is suffering from Ans. Small bowel obstruction
32. A 30 year old male presents with acute abdominal pain and vomiting.
Based on the radiograph, the diagnosis is

Ans. Acute pancreatitis

Ans. Achalasia 33. Most sensitive investigation for the condition shown in the image is
27. The first sign on barium enema of the condition shown in the image is

Ans. Mucosal granularity

Ans. ERCP
28. A 50 year old male presents with altered bowel habits and blood in
34. The characteristic sign in the image is seen in
stools. He is suffering from

Ans. Carcinoma colon Ans. Carcinoma pancreas

29. An infant presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Diagnosis based 35. A 50 year old female presents with abdominal pain. A CT scan was
on the abdominal radiograph is done which revealed mass in the pancreas. Based on the image, the
diagnosis is

Ans. Duodenal atresia Ans. Serous cystadenoma

30. Investigation of choice for the condition shown in the image is 36 The investigation of choice for the condition shown in the image is

Ans. USG b. USG

59
 37. The classical ultrasound image represents 43. Investigation of choice for the chronic state of condition shown in the
image is

Ans. Adenomyomatosis
Ans. MRI
38. The procedure carried out in the image is
44. The condition shown in the image leads to

Ans. ERCP
39. A 10 year old child present with acute abdominal pain Diagnosis is Ans. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
45. The imaging modality and the diagnosis shown in the image are re-
spectively

Ans. Intussusception
Ans. Ct- hemorrhage
40. The barium enema sign of the condition in the image is
46. The clinical presentation of this patent would have been

Ans. Right hemiplegia

Ans. Bird of prey sign
47. Most sensitive investigation for the condition shown in the image is
41. The cause of the condition shown in the image is

Ans. DWI-MRI
Ans. Rupture of aneurysm 48. The pathology shown in the image involves the vascular territory of
42. A 50 year old alcoholic male presents with headache. The image shows

Ans. Chronic SDH Ans. Left MCA

60
49. The pathology shown in the image is 55. A 2 year old boy with seizures has CT scan of the brain. The most likely
underlying diagnosis is

Ans. Chronic infarct Ans. Tuberous sclerosis

50. A 6 year old boy presents with headache and decreased visual acuity. 56. A 5 year old child presents with seizures. Most likely diagnosis is
Most probable diagnosis based on the CT image is

Ans. Sturge weber syndrome

Ans. Craniopharyngioma
57. A 5 year old child presents with seizures. Most likely diagnosis is
51. A 57 year old female presents with abnormal movements for 5 years.
Most likely diagnosis is

Ans. Neurocysticercosis

58. A female presents with dystonia and speech disturbance. The sign
Ans. Huntington’s disease shown in the image is
52. A 32 year old female, taking regular OC pills presents with severe
headache and convulsions. The most sensitive conventional MRI
sequence to diagnose this condition is

Ans. Eye of tiger sign

Ans. Gradient echo
59. A 6 year old child presents with fever and drowsiness. Most likely
53. A 10 year old oy presents with headache and meningeal irritation. diagnosis is
Based on the imaging findings , the diagnosis is

Ans. Brain abscess

Ans. Herpes simplex encephalitis
54. A 35 year old female presents with weakness and numbness. The
classical MRI findings are suggestive of 60. The classical pattern of calcification shown in the image is

Ans. Tumour Ans. Corpus callosum lipoma

61
 61. The dye earlier used for the procedure shown in the image was 68. A 30 year old female presents with a lump in the breast. Based on the
image the diagnosis is

Ans. Iophendylate
62. The procedure carried out in the image is
Ans. Fibroadenoma
69. The examination shown in the image is carried out at

Ans. Micturating cystourethrogram

63. Best investigation for the condition shown in the image is
Ans. 11-13 weeks

70. A 14 year old male patient with lower back pain, worse at night. CT
image provided below. What is the diagnosis?

Ans. NCCT
64. Bladder appearance shown in the image is seen in
Ans. Osteid osteoma
71. A 60 year old female presents with low back ache without history of
trauma. The diagnosis based on bone scan is

Ans. Neurogenic bladder

65. Investigation of choice for the condition shown in the image is

Ans. Sacral insufficiency fracture

72. A 20 year old female presents with low grade fever and joint pains. A
gallium scan was performed which confirms the diagnosis of
Ans. MCU
66. The image shows

Ans. Sarcoidosis
Ans. Horse-shoe kidney 73. A 30 year old female presents with palpitations, diaphoresis and weight
loss. Thyroid scintigraphy was done. Based on that, the diagnosis is
67. This classical appearance is seen in

Ans. Ureterocele Ans. Graves’ disease

62
 PATHOLOGY
1. The diagnosis of the renal biopsy shows. 7. 20-year-old football player collapsed on field while playing. He was
taken to the emergency department and was declared brought dead.
Autopsy showed the below. The diagnosis

Ans. Diabetic kidney

2. Name the pattern of staining in the below Immunofluorescence Ans. HOCM
testing
8. A 20 year old presented to the OPD with history of menorrhagia. Rou-
tine peripheral smear showed the following. The diagnosis ?

Ans. Speckled
Ans. APML
3. The cell describes
9. A cervical biopsy of a 28 year old female is as below. The diagnosis
is?

Ans. Human papillomavirus

Ans. SLE
10. Identify the stain used in the below pic (attempt the organ and probable
4. The diagnosis of the below picture of a lady presented with history of diagnosis)
pulsatile headache

Ans. Reticulin
11. A 50 year old came with complaints of weakness, routine CBC showed
Ans. TAO pancytopenia. Bone marrow biopsy is as below. The diagnosis
5. An image of Hematoxylin and Eosin stained section of infarcted
myocardium is shown below. Based on the findings, identify the age of
infarct

Ans. Aplastic Anaemia

Ans. 1-2 days 12. Diagnosis on the FNAC of thyroid

6. Name the anticoagulant in the vacutainer shown below

Ans. EDTA Ans. Follicular lesion

63
 13. Diagnosis of the below picture who presented with an abdominal mass 19. A 10 year old child presented to dermatology OPD with history
with history of hypertension of multiple small papules on face. Biopsy was done and sent for
histopathology. The diagnosis

Ans. Herpes simplex infection

Ans. Pheochromocytoma 20. The below birth defect caused by an error of morphogenesis that
occurred at which of the following stages of development
14. 20 year old mass in diaphysis of femur.

Ans. Ewings sarcoma

Ans. 20 to 40 days
15. 23year old female with bullous lesion on hand. Diagnosis.
21. The diagnosis in the H&E section given below is

Ans. CIN III

Ans. Pemphigus
22. The genetic abnormality in the tumour given below
16. Following finding on sputum seen in

Ans. Bronchial asthma Ans. t(8,14)

17. Following finding is seen in 23. 30 years old male with history of heartburn. Biopsy of lesion ( histopath
image given) shows?The special stain used and the diagnosis is

Ans. Asbestosis Ans. Barrets esophagus, mucin stain, dysplasia

18. The following finding is seen in 24. The cellular adaptation depicted below here is

Ans. Atrophy
Ans. Cystine stones

64
25. Identify the type of necrosis 31. Identify the following image shown below

Ans. Caseous
26. The below picture shows
Ans. Hbc Disease
32. 20 year old with history of chest pain and fever, post mortem showed
the following. The diagnosis is

Ans. Fat necrosis

27. A 35 year old who is an alcoholic came with complaints of fever and
vomiting, liver enzymes were elevated. The biopsy of liver showed the Ans. Acute chest syndrome
below finding. Diagnosis ?
33. The following is PAS staining of blast. The diagnosis is

Ans. Viral hepatitis

28. The following is used for estimation of

Ans. ALL
34. Following cell is seen in which type of hodgkins lymphoma

Ans. ESR
29. Based on the following histogram of a automated counter, The most
probable type of anaemia would be Ans. Nodular sclerosis
35. Diagnosis on the below smear

Ans. Microcytic anaemia

30. Identify the finding shown below Ans. ALL
36. The test depicted below is most commonly used in diagnosis of

Ans. Basophilic stipling Ans. AML

65
 37. The following is used for 43. Identify the type of leukemia from the following flow cytometry

Ans. Bone marrow aspiration

38. The following picture depicts

Ans. CLL
44. A 15-year-old presented with history of hematuria. On detailed history
taking she says she had skin infection 2 weeks back. Microscopic
picture of kidney is shown below

Ans. Robertsonian translocation

39. A patient diagnosed with down syndrome. His routine peripheral smear
examination showed the following. Diagnosis?
Ans .PIGN
45. A 50-year-old male with history of melena and microcytic anemia was
subjected to colonoscopy. Histopathology of which is shown below.
The most probable diagnosis is

Ans. ALL
40. The test depicted below is
Ans. Villous adenoma
46. 28-year-old women for routine PAP smear showed the below finding.
The cause of pathology is

Ans. Array CGH

41. The test depicted below Ans. Herpes infection
47. 10-year-old diagnosed with ALL was on maintenance chemotherapy.
He developed sudden fever and breathing difficulties and expired.
Postmortem lung biopsy is shown below.

Ans. SKY
Ans. Aspergillus
42. Diagnosis of a 5 year old ovarian mass
48. 55-year old person with history of generalized lymphadenopathy
underwent routine hematological assessment. His peripheral smear
showed the below finding. The diagnosis

Ans. Yolk sac tumor

Ans. CLL

66
49. Identify the test done below 55. A 50-year-old with history of hematuria and abdominal pain. On
examination there is a huge swelling measuring 12X12 cm. Surgery
was done and histopath is as below. The diagnosis is

Ans. Hb electrophoresis Ans. RCC

50. A young male presented with acute abdomen pain. Emergency surgery 56. 5-year-old with a suspected abdominal tumor. Histopathology picture
was done. Pathological report showed the below. The diagnosis is is given below. The diagnosis is

Ans. Aortic dissection

51. A person with history of cough with enlarged cervical lymph node. Bi-
opsy of lymph node showed the below. The diagnosis is Ans. Wilms tumor
57. 15-year old presented with history of headache. MRI showed a
intraventricular space occupying lesion. Picture is as below. The
diagnosis is

Ans. TB
52. 18-year old guy with acute abdomen and tenderness in the lower
abdomen was operated. Post operative pathological report showed the Ans. Ependymoma
below. The diagnosis is
58. 55-year-old with history of loss of weight appetite and persistent
headache. MRI showed a space occupying lesion. Postoperative
histopath showed the below. The diagnosis is

Ans. Enterobius
53. Young slum dweller with history of diarrhea. Duodenal biopsy showed
the below. The diagnosis is Ans. Glioblastoma
59. 50-year-old with history of breast lump. Biopsy shows below. What IHC
you will do to confirm the diagnosis

Ans. Giardia
Ans. Lobular carcinoma
54. 40-year-old male, chronic smoker presented with swelling in parotid
region. Histopathology is as shown below. The diagnosis is 60. A series of immunohistochemical stains were done on breast biopsy
specimen using DAB as chromogen. Below are the photographs of ER,
PR and Her2Neu.The prognosis of the patient is

Ans. Warthins tumour Ans. Poor prognosis

67
 61. A patient with SLE wit skin rashes. Biopsy from the patient showed the 66. 45 year old female patient on uterine leiomyoma excised and
following. Identify histopatholgy showed the below finding.

Ans. Fibrinoid necrosis Ans. Calcification

62. Post-bone marrow transplant, the patient developed jaundice and 67. 25 year old with right abdomen pain and jaundice. Laparoscopic
leukopenia. Liver enzymes were elevated. Biopsy is as shown below. cholecystectomy shows the below. The diagnosis is.
The diagnosis is

Ans. Cholesterosis
68. Identify the below gross picture.
Ans. CMV
63. A new born with reddish lesion in the face. Biopsy is shown below. The
diagnosis is

Ans. CVC liver

69. A 50-year-old alcoholic patient, post-mortem spleen shows the below

reveals
Ans. Cavernous hemangioma
64. 25-year-old with bone swelling close to knee joint. The diagnosis of the
Biopsy shows

Ans. Gamma gandy bodies

Ans. Giant cell tumor

65. 70 year old male presented to casualty with 200/140mm Hg with right
hemiplegia. Postmortem analysis kidney shows the following.

Ans. Malignant hypertension

68
 OBS & GYNAE
1. A 35 year old female presents with an adnexal mass. CA-125 is slightly 7. Identify the image
raised, CA-19-9 is normal and LDH is elevated. Tumour was resected
and gross & microscopic image were as given below. The likely
diagnosis is.

Ans. Mirena
9. Identify the contraceptive

Ans. Teratoma
2. A patient presenting with an adnexal mass was operated & the following
tumour was removed. The likely diagnosis is

Ans. Implanon
10. This contraceptive is

Ans. Mature teratoma

3. Identify the type of contraceptive

Ans. Norplant I
11. THe contraceptive is made of

Ans. Today
4. Identify the type of contraceptive ?
Ans. Diethyl-poly-siloxane
12. Identify the sterilization method

Ans. Femshield
5. This type of IUCD is freely available in India

Ans. Pomeroy`s tech

13. Identify the image

Ans. CuT 380A

6. Identify the type of CuT

Ans. CuT380A
Ans. Turner`s syndrome

69
 14. 25 year old presented with infertility HSG Image showing 20. 30 year old primigravida came to OPD with complaints of bleeding per
vaginum associated with pain. On examination abdomen is soft and
non-tender. Palpation-uterus is enlarged 12 week size, soft non-tender
and no cervical excitation. The USG is as shown below. The most
probable diagnosis is

Ans. Asherman syndrome

15. Patient presented with infertility and secondary amenorrhea,
hysteroscopy shows Ans. Hydatidiform mole

21. 35 year old female came with P2L2A1 came with H/o hemoptysis,
dyspnea, she had H/o H. Mole evacuation 4 months ago, now her chest
X-Ray was done shows, also Beta HCG is elevated. Diagnosis

Ans. Asherman syndrome

16. Young unmarried girl presents with secondary amenorrhea, USG done
shows

Ans. Choriocarcinoma
22. Identify this instrument is used for

Ans. PCOD
17. 30 year old patient presented with infertility HSA normal, Ovulation
study is normal HSG Image showing
Ans. Endometrial curettage
23. A patient presented with 6 months amenorrhea, pain in abdomen,
vaginal bleeding P/A examination shows prominent fetal parts,
laparotomy was done

Ans. Bilateral distal tubal block

18. This test is done in a woman being investigated for infertility. reveals

Ans. Secondary abdominal ectopic

24. Identify the type of tubal conservative surgery for unruptured ectopic
pregnancy

Ans. This HSG shows irregular uterine cavity & beaded fallopian tubes sug-
gesting TB
19. Identify
Ans. Salpingostomy
25. A patient presented with greenish colour vaginal discharge, wet
smear shows

Ans. Dermoid cyst Ans. Bacterial vaginosis

70
26. A pregnant lady presented with curdy white vaginal discharge, P/S 32. Image showing
examination shows

Ans. Nuchal translucency

Ans. Candidiasis
33. Identify the image
27. Colposcopic examination shows

Ans. Battledore placenta

34. What is this maneuver

Ans. Trichomoniais
28. Image showing

Ans. IPV
Ans. Early deceleration 35. Multiparous lady presented with 36 weeks pregnancy with pain
29. Image showing abdomen, bleeding per vaginaum & decreased fetal movements LSCS
was done per OP findings show

Ans. Late deceleration

30. 28 year old female presented with decreased fetal movements NST Ans. Couvelaire uterus
shows
36. Identify type of placenta, baby born to this patient is Placenta previa

Ans. Villamentous insertion of placenta

Ans. Non Reactive NST with deceleration 37. Identify type of placenta

31. Image showing

Ans. Reversal of diastolic blood flow Ans. Circumvellate placenta

71
 38. Capacity of Bakri balloon tamponade 45. Identify

Ans. Couvelaire uterus

Ans. 500cc 56. Identify
39. Baby born with swelling in scalp

Ans. Green armytage forceps

47. Identify

Ans. Caput succedaneum

40. Which diameter is measured

Ans. Babcock`s forceps

48. Identify

Ans. Diagonal conjugate

41. Identify the image showing

Ans. Doyen`s retractor

Ans. Encephalocele
49. Identify
42. Image showing

Ans. Leech Wilkinson`s cannula

50. Which is this sign of pregnancy
Ans. Thoracoomphalopagus
43. Image showing

Ans. Spalding sign

Ans. Hegar
44. Identify
51. Identify the instrument

Ans. Hysterectomy clamps

Ans. Bicornuate uterus

72
52. Identify the defect 58. Identify baby born to diabetic mother

Ans. Macrosomia
Ans. Omphalocele
59. Identify maneuver in breech
53. Identify

Ans. Uterine hook

54. Identify
Ans. Pinard’s

60. Identify

Ans. Ovum forceps

55. Infertility patient Biopsy of uterus is taken. Identify the instrument

Ans. Maurice Ville Viet tech

61. Identify

Ans. EB curette
56. Name the forceps used for after coming head of breech

Ans. Cordocentesis
Ans. Piper`s forceps 62. Identify
57. Primigravida 36 weeks of pregnancy, no complications identify
maneuver

Ans. Interlocking

Ans. ECV

73
 OPHTHALMOLOGY
1. The picture shows anomaly of 8. Scarring in sulcus subtarsalis is seen in

Ans. Typical coloboma

2. The laser mechanism used for this procedure
Ans. Trachoma
9. Identify the corneal disorder

Ans. Photodisruption
3. The morphology of lens opacity is seen in
Ans. Phyectenular keratoconjuctivitis
10. The condition lead to

Ans. Blunt trauma Ans. Neuroparalytic keratitis

4. A 56 year old patient presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with 11. The stain used for demarketing the ulcer is
a history of increasing pain and diminution of vision after an initial
improvement. The most likely cause would be

Ans. Fluorescein
Ans. Endopthalmitis
12. The nerve involved in this pathology is
5. A young child was brought by his mother with complaints of intense
itching since a month every year. The treatment of choice is

Ans. Loteprednol Ans. Mandibular

6. Characteristic ulcer of 13. The stain used to diagnose the corneal defect is

Ans. Vernal keratoconjuctivitis Ans. Masson trichome

7. This picture is suggestive of
14. The instrument used for diagnosing is

Ans. Horner tranta spot Ans. Keratoconus

74
15. A female developed pain decrease vision and redness after penetrating 22. Pattern shown in FFA picture is
keratoplasty . On examination a line was observed in the endothelium.
The line seen here is

Ans. Ink blot pattern in CSCR

Ans. Khodadoust line 23. The Fundus picture shown here is
16. The fundus picture shows

Ans. Brushfire pattern in CMV retinitis

24. The type of optic atrophy disorder is
Ans. Myopic degeneration
17. A 45 year old female presented with sudden decrease in vision and
she cannot see upper part of the objects. She is a diabetic and
hypertensive . The pupils are normal. The diagnosis.

Ans. Primary
25. A young man with blurred vision RE followed by LE after 3 months,
showing disc hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia with
normal pupillary response with centrocecal scotoma on perimetry. The
most likely to be the cause is
Ans. AION
18. A 25 year old young myopic perceives flashes and floater since many
days and now he complains of curtain in front of his eyes. USG B- scan
shows

Ans. Leber’s neuropathy

26. A 35 year old female complaints with sudden blurred vision left eye and
weakness in body since few days. On examination RAPD is present .
MRI picture shows

Ans. RRD
19. A 65 year old man presents with sudden blurred vision since morning.
His fundus picture shows such appearance of the vessel. The cause of
pathology is

Ans. Papilledema should be checked

27. The first line of mangement for this condition
Ans. CRAO
20. The fundus picture, of the arrow marked here shows

Ans. Trabeculotomy and trabeculectomy

28. The type of tonometer shown here is

Ans. Cilioretinal artery occlusion

21. The FFA picture (white arrow) shows

Ans. Flower pattern Ans Contact, indentation

75
 29. The advantage of this instrument is 36. The test performed in this picture

Ans. Transpalpebral
30. The 1st line management for this condition is

Ans. Hertel’s test

37. The lesion of the child’s eyelid shows

Ans. i/v mannitol

31. The picture (Arrow ) suggests which surgery

Ans. Capillary hemangioma

38. S shaped deformity is seen in

Ans. Express shunt

32. The image Used in surgery of

Ans. Dacryoadenitis
39. A child presents to you with complains of diplopia while reading . On
examination his pictures were shown like this. The diagnosis reveals.

Ans. Glaucoma surgery

33. 45 year old man complains of seeing blur associated with pain in right
eye since a day.The next line of management is

Ans. Start on topical steroids Ans. Left superior oblique palsy

34. Picture shows 40. This test used for detecting

Ans. Binocularity
Ans. Busacca’s nodules
41. The instrumentation used to test
35. Picture shows (white arrow)

Ans. Colour Vision

Ans. Keratic precipitates

76
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Rank - 3070 Rank - 3075 Rank - 3177 Rank - 3179 Rank - 3199 Rank - 3220 Rank - 3255 Rank - 3339 Rank - 3360 Rank - 3431 Rank - 3501 Rank - 3508 Rank - 3693 Rank - 3787

Dr. Rodda Alekhya Dr. Jitesh Midha Dr. Gundu Roja Dr. Palavalasa Dr. Abhishek Jha Dr. Amar Pratap Dr. Pankaj Prasad Dr. Bollu Priyanka Dr. Vijay Vavadiya Dr. Shyam Sunder Dr. Sai Ramya Dr. Abhishek Halder Dr. Manish Agrawal Dr. Sohini Anand
Rank - 3789 Rank - 3790 Rank - 3842 Rank - 3843 Rank - 3884 Rank - 3976 Rank - 3997 Rank - 4107 Rank - 4501 Rank - 4505 Rank - 4607 Rank - 4704 Rank - 5000 Rank - 6029

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