STERILIZATION

1. Sterilization accuracy is assessed by using:

a. Clostridium perfringenes

E D E
M ON
b. Geobacillus stereothermophilus
c. Staphylococcus aureus

Z
d. Clostridium botulinum
e. Bacillus subtilis subsp. Niger

2. Best method of sera sterilization is

a. Filtration

NE
b. Autoclaving
c. Radiation
d. Heating
ZO
3. Which of the following is used to test the efficiency of sterilization in
an autoclave?
D

a. Clostridium tetani
ME

b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c. Bacillus pumilus
d. Bacillus cereus

4. Spore of which bacteria is used as sterilization control of Plasma

sterilization:
a. B. subtilis
b. B. pumilis
c. Cl. tetani
d. B. stearothermophilus

MED ZONE 2020

5. Condition required for autoclave is?
a. 121°C temperature for 20 min
b. 121°C temperature for 15 min
c. 100°C temperature for 60 min
d. 100°C temperature for 90 min

6. Which of the following is most resistant to sterilization?

a. Cysts
b. Prions
c. Spores
d. Viruses

7. Choose the correct ones for the decreasing order of resistance to

NE
sterilization:
a. Prions, Bacterial spores, Bacteria
b. Bacterial spores, Bacteria, Prions
ZO
c. Bacteria, Prions, Bacterial spores
d. Bacterial spores, Prions, Bacteria

 DISINFECTION
D
D

E E
ME

8. Low Level disinfectant is:

a. Benzalkonium chloride

M ON
b. Isopropyl alcohol
c. Glutaraldehyde

Z
d. Hydrogen peroxide

9. Heart lung machine is best sterilized by:

a. Cidex
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Isoprophyl alcohol
d. Formaldehyde

MED ZONE 2020

10. An upper GI endoscope was performed in a TB suspect. To
reuse the instrument it should be sterilized by:
a. 2% Glutaraldehyde
b. Hot air oven
c. Autoclave

11. Best disinfectant for endoscopes is:

a. Hypochlorite

E D E
M ON
b. Formaldehyde
c. Glutaraldehyde

Z
d. Chlorhexidine

12. Prions are best killed by:

NE
a. Autoclaving at 121°C
b. 5% formalin
c. Sodium hydroxide for 1 hr
ZO
d. Sodium hypochloride for 10 min

13. Sterilization of fiberoptic is done by:

a. Glutaraldehyde
D

b. Chlorine
ME

c. Autoclave
d. Phenol

14. According to Spaulding classification, laparoscope and

arthroscopic instruments are under:
a. Critical item
b. Semi critical item
c. Noncritical item

MED ZONE 2020

20. Savlon contains:
a. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine

D
b. Cetrimide + Butyl alcohol

E E
c. Cetrimide + Chlorhexidine + Butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon

21. Boiling of milk is an example for:

a. Concurrent disinfection
M ON
Z
b. Precurrent disinfection
c. Terminal disinfection
d. Sterilization

22. Which of the following are used for sterilization of surgical

NE
instrument:
a. Ethylene oxide
b. Gamma radiation
ZO
c. Autoclaving
d. Glutaraldehyde
e. Hot air oven
D

23. All of the following are the tests to check the efficiency of
ME

disinfectant Except:
a. Chick Martin test
b. Riedel Walker test
c. Hugh Leifson test
d. Kelsey Sykes test

MED ZONE 2020

 CULTURE MEDIA/METHODS

1. Antibiotic sensitivity testing is usually done on:

a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. Mueller Hinton agar

2. CLED medium is used in preference to MacConkey agar in relation to

culture of organism involved in urine infection. The reason is
a. It prevents swarming of Proteus
b. Differentiates LF and NLF
c. Promotes Staphylococcus, Streptococcus and Candida
d. Identifies Pseudomonas

NE
3. Which of following culture media combination is/are true except:
ZO
a. Thayer-Martin media: Gonorrhea
b. Chocolate agar: Enriched media
c. Lowenstein-Jensen medium: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Mueller-Hinton agar: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D

e. MacConkey’s agar: Nonlactose fermenters form colourless colonies

ME

D
4. TSI is:

E
a. Selective

E
b. Enrichment

M ON
c. Enriched
d. Composite

Z
5. Selective media for Shigella:
a. Wilson blair
b. TCBS
c. DCA
d. Blood agar

MED ZONE 2020

15. Which is false about spaulding classification?
a. Noncritical items also included in classification
b. Semicritical items— contact with mucus membrane
c. Semicritical items— needs low disinfectant
d. Cardiac catheter, e.g. of critical items

16. Phenol coefficient indicates:

a. Efficacy of a disinfectant
b. Dilution of a disinfectant
c. Quantity of a disinfectant
d. Purity of a disinfectant

17. Sputum can be disinfected by all except:

NE D
a. Autoclaving

E E
b. Boiling
c. Cresol

M ON
ZO
d. Chlorhexidine

Z
18. Surgical blade is sterilized by?
a. Autoclave
D

b. Gamma radiation
ME

c. Hot air oven

d. Steaming

19. Sporicidal agents are:

a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Ethylene oxide
c. Formaldehyde
d. Benzalkonium chloride
e. Chlorine

MED ZONE 2020

7. Agar conc. In nutrient agar is:
a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 1%
d. 3%

8. Robertson cooked meat broth is an example:

a. Enriched media

D
b. Enrichment media

E
c. Nutrient media

E
d. Anaerobic media

9. Blood agar is an example:

a. Enriched media

NE
M ON
Z
b. Enrichment media
c. Nutrient media
ZO
d. Special media

10. Which one of the following is true:

a. Agar has nutrient properties
D

b. Chocolate medium is selective medium

ME

c. Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called

enrichment media
d. Nutrient broth is basal medium

11. Smith Noguchi’s media is used for:

a. Salmonella
b. Klebsiella
c. Spirochetes
d. Bacillus

MED ZONE 2020

12. To prevent swarming the % agar in Nutrient agar has to be
increased at least to _
a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 8%

E D E
M ON
NE
Z
ZO
D
ME

MED ZONE 2020

BACTERIAL GENETICS 
1. Bacteria used in Griffith experiment is:
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Capsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. MRSA
e. Non-capsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae

2. Pick the true statement regarding Plasmids:

a. Nonself-replicative
b. Acts as Messenger RNA
c. Involved in Conjugational transfer between strains

NE
d. Involved in transformation
ZO
3. Nontoxigenic C. diphtheriae changes to toxigenic
C. diphtheriae by the help of bacteriophage... by which method this
conversion occur?
a. Transfection
D

b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
ME

d. Recombinant Technology

D
4. Movement of DNA from one bacteria to another connection tube or

E
pilus is called:

E
a. Transformation

M ON
b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
d. Lysogenic conversion

MED ZONE 2020

Z
 5. Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA:
a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Transduction
d. None

6. Phage mediate transfer of cDNA into host is known as:

a. Transduction
b. Transformation
c. Transmission
d. Conjugation

7. Horizontal transmission of ‘R’ factor is by:

NE
a. Transduction
b. Transformation
c. Conjugation
ZO
d. Fusion

ANTIMICROBIAL
RESISTANCE
D
ME

D
8. Most common method of bacteria responsible for drug resistance
a. Conjugation

E E
b. Transduction

M ON
c. Transformation
d. Enzyme inactivation
e. Mutation

Z
MED ZONE 2020
9. Not true about bacterial drug resistance mechanism:
a. Most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes
b. If resistance is plasmid mediated, it is always transferred
vertically
c. Alteration of target seen in pneumococcal resistance

ED
d. Complete removal of target is cause of resistance to Vancomycin

10. Multiple drug resistance is spread by:

a. Transformation
M NE
ZO
b. Transduction
c. Mutation
d. Conjugation

NE
11. A patient is kept on ceftriaxone and amikacin, ESBL Klebsiella
infection. What will you do next?
a. Continue with same antibiotic but in higher dose
ZO
b. Change ceftriaxone and add ceftazidime
c. Start imipenem in place of ceftriaxone
d. Remove Amikacin 12. Drug against ESBL producing
D

Pseudomonas:
ME

a. Ceftriaxone + Piperacillin
b. Ceftriaxone + Tazobactam
c. Piperacillin + Tazobactam
d. Ceftriaxone + Piperacillin + Tazobactam

13.MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration) can be calculated by all

of the following antibiotic sensitivity methods except:
a. E test
b. Agar dilution method
c. Kirby Bauer’s disk diffusion method
d. Broth dilution method

MED ZONE 2020

14. For antibiotic sensitivity test, the organism broth prepared should
match with:

ED
a. Mc Farland standard 0.5

M NE
b. Mc Farland standard 1
c. Mc Farland standard 2

ZO
d. Mc Farland standard 3

15. Beta lactamase is produced by:

a. E.coli
b. Gonococcus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. All of the above

16. Which of the following disease(s) is/are not toxin mediated:

NE
a. Diphtheria
b. Tetanus
ZO
c. Pertussis
d. Anthrax
e. Syphilis
D

17. A strain of E. coli isolated from urine is resistant to third

generation cephalosporins. The mechanism of development of
ME

resistance is:
a. Extended spectrum Beta-Lactamases
b. Decreased permeability
c. Active efflux of Beta-Lactam agents
d. Alteration of PBP

MED ZONE 2020

 D
Immunity
1. Toll like receptors: correct statement is:
a. Antigen specific
E
M NE
ZO
b. Acts by cytokine release
c. Part of adaptive immunity

2. Not true about innate immunity:

a. Not influenced by hormones
b. Dependent on genetic constitution
c. Identical twins have same degree of resistance
d. Not influenced by exposure to antigen

NE
3. All are true about innate immunity except:
a. Acts as first line of defense
b. Complements are examples
ZO
c. Nonspecific
d. Not effected by genetic influences

4. Transfer factor is an example of:

D

a. Artificial active immunity

ME

b. Natural active immunity

c. Adoptive immunity
d. Artificial passive immunity

5. Components of innate immunity:

a. T lymphocyte
b. B lymphocyte
c. Complements
d. NK cells
e. Integrins

MED ZONE 2020

6. Innate immunity is stimulated by which part of bacteria?
a. Carbohydrate sequence in the cell wall
b. Flagella
c. Bacterial cell membrane
d. Nucleus

7. Innate immunity active against viral cells:

a. NK cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. B cells
d. Memory B cell
8. All of the following are a part of the innate immunity except:
a. Complement

NE
b. NK cells
c. Macrophages
d. T cells
ZO
9. Active immunity can be induced by:
a. Toxoids
b. Subclinical infection

D
D

E
c. Antitoxin

M NE
ME

d. Immunoglobulins
e. Antigen exposure

ZO
11. Superantigen is produced by:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Pseudomonas
d. Clostridium

MED ZONE 2020

1. Smallest unit of antigenicity?
a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Complex hapten
d. Simple hapten

2. Superantigens are produced by all the following pathogens, except:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Enterococcus faecalis
c. Rabies virus
d. HIV

3. All of the following statements about carbohydrate antigen are true

NE
except:
a. It has lower immunogenicity

D
b. Memory response is seen

E
ZO
c. Cause polyclonal B-cell stimulation

M NE
d. Does not require stimulation by T-cells

ZO
4. Heterophile antibody is found in:
D

a. Weil-Felix test
ME

b. Widal test
c. Standard agglutination test
d. All

5. The main aim of an adjuvant is to increase:

a. Distribution
b. Absorption
c. Antigenicity
d. Metabolism

MED ZONE 2020

6. What is the percentage of immunoglobin in plasma protein?
a. 5 to 10%
b. 10 to 15%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 30%

7. Variable portion of an immunoglobulin:

a. Amino terminal
b. Carboxy terminal
c. Acid terminal
d. Amoxy terminal

8. Vaccination is based on the principle of:

NE
a. Agglutination
b. Phagocytosis

ED
c. Immunological memory
ZO
M NE
d. Clonal detection

9. Antibody diversity is due to:

ZO
a. Gene rearrangement
D

b. Gene translocation
ME

c. Antigenic variation
d. CD40 molecules
e. Mutation

11. In which of the following(s), the two allele are inherited together:
a. Idiotype
b. Genotype
c. Phenotype
d. Allotype
e. Isotype

MED ZONE 2020

12. When Papain cleaves IgG antibody, it produces:
a. 2 Fab and 1 Fc
b. 2 Fab and 2 Fc
c. 1 Fab and 1 Fc
d. 1 Fab and 2 Fc

ED
13. True about an immunoglobulin:

M NE
a. IgG has max conc. in serum
b. IgM has max conc. in serum
c. IgA has max conc. in serum

ZO
d. IgE has max conc. in serum
14. Ig that helps in Opsonization:
a. IgA
b. IgG

NE
c. IgD
d. IgE
ZO
15. The serum concentration of which of the following human
IgG subclass is maximum:
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
D

c. IgG3
ME

d. IgG4

16. Which IgG can cross placenta most efficiently?

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4

17. Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross

placenta?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD MED ZONE 2020
18. True about antibody:
a. IgM is produced in primary response
b. IgD protects mucosa
c. IgE is main antibody in secondary response
d. IgG is main antibody in secondary response
e. IgA protects body surface

19. Which antibody deficiency causes recurrent infection by organisms with

polysaccharide capsule?
a. IgA
b. IgG1
c. IgG2
d. IgM

NE
20. Which of the following antibodies shows anamnestic response?
a. IgA
ZO
b. IgM

ED
c. IgG

M NE
d. IgD
D

ZO
21. Of all the IgG subclasses smallest is:
ME

a. IgG 1
b. IgG 2
c. IgG 3
d. IgG 4

22. Which antibodies are found in Cryoglobulinemia?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgA

MED ZONE 2020

23. Cold antibody is:
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgM

ED
24. Activator of classical pathway of complement?

M NE
a. IgA
b. IgG

ZO
c. IgM
d. IgE

25. Pentameric antibody with a J chain is?

NE
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
ZO
d. IgE

26. Which immunoglobulin acts as receptor on B-cell?

a. IgG
D

b. IgA
ME

c. IgM
d. IgE

27. Inutero infection leads to raise of which immunoglobulin first?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgM Rheumatoid arthritis is best diagnosed by:
a. Anticitrulline antibody
b. IgG antibody
c. IgA antibody
d. IgM antibody
MED ZONE 2020
29. Which antibody is elevated in primary immune response?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

30. Which is the first antibody is elevated in fetal life?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

31. Synthesis of an immunoglobulin in membrane bound or secretory

NE
form is determined by:
a. One turn to two turn joining rule

D
b. Class switching

E
ZO
M NE
c. Differential RNA processing
d. Allelic exclusion

ZO
32. Immunoglobulin in Peyer’s patch is:
D

a. IgM
ME

b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgD

33. Immunoglobulin present in local secretions is:

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD

MED ZONE 2020

34. The Ig which activates alternate complement pathway:
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgM

35. Immunoglobulin that is inactive by heating is?

a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE

D
36. Immunoglobulin that is elevated in helminthic infection?

NE E
M NE
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
ZO
ZO
d. IgE

37. IgE is secreted by:

a. Mast cell
D

b. Basophil
ME

c. Eosinophils
d. Plasma cells
e. Neutrophils

38. Which precipitates at 50 to 60°C but redissolve on heating:

a. Bence Jones proteins
b. Heavy chain
c. Both light and heavy chains
39. Which one is the example of gel precipitation test?
a. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. VDRL c. WIDAL d. Coomb’s test e. Elek’s test

MED ZONE 2020

40. Overall strength of antigen with its antibody bond is referred to as?
a. Affinity
b. Avidity
c. Antigenicity

41. Rose waller test is:

a. Passive agglutination test for Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Active agglutination for rheumatoid arthritis
c. Done for syphilis

42. Type of Ag-Ab reaction seen in VDRL?

a. Agglutination
b. Passive agglutination

NE
c. Flocculation
d. Gel precipitation

D
ZO
E
43. Naegler reaction is example of:

M NE
a. Precipitation
b. CFT

ZO
c. Agglutination
D

d. Neutralization
ME

44. Wasserman test is:

a. Agglutination test
b. Precipitation test
c. Neutralization test
d. Complement fixation

45. All of the following interaction occurs between antigen antibody

reaction except:
a. Ionic bond
b. Covalent bond
c. Hydrogen bond
d. van der Waals forces
MED ZONE 2020
46. Paul Bunnel test is example of:
a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Neutralization
d. CFT

47. Which are example of agglutination test:

a. Widal test
b. VDRL test
c. Kahn test
d. Ascoli’s test

48. Which of the following acts as an opsonin?

NE
a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5a
ZO
d. LTB4

49. The following methods of diagnosis utilize labeled antibodies except:

a. ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
D

b. Hemagglutination inhibition test

ME

c. Radioimmunoassay
d. Immunofluorescence

ED
50. Heterophile agglutination is/are used in all test except:

M NE
a. Widal test
b. Weil-Felix reaction

ZO
c. Paulbunnel test
d. ELISA
e. Cold agglutination test

MED ZONE 2020

54. Complement which lead to killing of organism and protects us?
a. C2345
b. C56789
c. C34567
d. C3456

55. Powerful activator of classical complement pathway:

D
a. IgA

E
M NE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD

ZO
56. Complement formed in liver:

NE
a. C2, C4
b. C3, C6, C9
c. C5, C8
ZO
d. C1

57. Which of the following acts as a chemoattractant?

a. C3a
D

b. C3b
ME

c. C5b
d. LTB4

59. Which compliment binds with Fc portion of IgM in Classic pathway or

which of the following complement components attaches to the
crystallizable fragment of IgM?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4

MED ZONE 2020

1. All are peripheral lymphoid organ except:
a. LN
b. Spleen
c. MALT
d. Thymus
e. Bone marrow

2. T-cell dependent region in lymph node:

a. Cortex
b. Medulla
c. Paracortical area
d. Mantle layer

NE
3. Which is not an example of antigen presenting cells (APC)?
a. M cells
b. Thymocytes
ZO
c. Langerhan cells
d. Macrophages

5. Which of the following features is not shared between ‘T-cells’ and ‘B-
D

cells’?
ME

a. Positive selection during development

b. Class I MHC expression

D
c. Antigen specific receptors

E
M NE
d. All of the above

6. Cell mediated immunity is by virtue of:

ZO
a. Helper T-cell
b. Suppressor T-cells
c. Cytotoxic T-cells
d. All above

MED ZONE 2020

7. Common between B- and T-cells:
a. Origin from same cell lineage
b. Site differentiation
c. Antigenic marker
d. Perform Both humoral and cellular immunity
e. Further differentiation seen

8. Most potent stimulator of Naive T-cells:

a. Mature dendritic cells
b. Follicular dendritic cells
c. Macrophages
d. B-cells

NE
9. All of the following are functions of CD4 helper cells, except:
a. Immunogenic memory
b. Produce immunoglobulins
ZO
c. Activate macrophages
d. Activate cytotoxic cells

10. True statement regarding NK cells are all except:

D

a. Also called large granular lymphocyte

b. Can kill virus infected cell
ME

D
c. Forms first line of defence

E
d. Can kill tumour cell

M NE
e. No role in cell mediated immunity

ZO
13. Macrophages are major source of:
a. IL-1
b. IL-5
c. IL-7
d. IFN-Y

MED ZONE 2020

15. MHC molecules are coded by:
a. Chromosome-6
b. Chromosome-7
c. Chromosome-8
d. Chromosome-9

16. Gene coding for MHC-I include:

a. A, B, C
b. DR
c. DP
d. DQ

17. Peptide binding site on MHC-I for presenting processed antigen to

CD8 T-cells is formed by:

NE
a. Junction of proximal domains made-up of Alpha subunit
b. Junction of distal domains made-up of Alpha subunit
ZO
c. Junction of proximal domains made-up of beta subunit
d. Junction of distal Proximal domains made-up of beta subunit

18. MHC II are presented on:

ED
D

a. Macrophages

M NE
b. Dendritic cells
ME

c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils

ZO
e. Platelet

19. MHC III codes for:

a. Complements
b. Interleukin
c. Prostaglandins
d. Interferon

MED ZONE 2020

20. Which of the following is not pyrogenic in nature?

D
a. IL 1

E
M NE
b. IL 18
c. TNF alpha
d. Interferon alpha

ZO
21. IL–2 produced by:
a. T-cells
b. B-cells
c. Monocytes
d. Neutrophils

NE
22. Most important chemical mediators of gram negative septicemia:
a. IL-2B
ZO
b. TNF-α
c. TGB-β
d. IL-20
D

1. Asthma is due to which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Type 1
ME

b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4

2. Schultz dale phenomenon, the following is true statement

a. Anaphylaxis in vitro
b. Test to detect atopy
c. Type V hypersensitivity reaction
d. Test for allergic contact dermatitis
3. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following

ED
immunoglobulins?

M NE
a. IgA
b. IgG

ZO
c. IgM
d. IgE

4. Anaphylaxis is mediated by:

a. 5-hydroxytryptamine
b. Heparin
c. Prostaglandin
d. Anaphylotoxins from complement activation
e. Platelet activating factor

NE
5. Allergic rhinitis is an example of:
a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
ZO
b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
D

6. Lysis of red cells in autoimmune anemias and hemolytic disease of

ME

the newborn are examples of:

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

7. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction seen in:

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Good pasture syndrome
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Grave’s disease
e. Hyper acute graft rejection

MED ZONE 2020

9. Serum sickness is which type of reaction?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4

MED
10. Which of the following is an immune complex mediated disease?
a. SLE
b. Bronchial asthma

ZONE
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Good pasture
e. Tuberculin skin test

NE
11. Type II lepra reaction is an example hypersensitivity type:
a. I
b. II
ZO
c. III
d. IV

12. The hypersensitivity reaction involved in the hyper acute

D

rejection of renal transplant is:

ME

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

13. Which of the following is type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Arthus reaction
b. Serum sickness
c. Schwartzman reaction
d. Granulomatous disease

MED ZONE 2020