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Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
a) Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
b) Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
c) Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
d) Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the layer access
e) Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
QUESTION 2
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
has a low initial cost
provides low-to-medium BW
has medium-to-high latency and jitter
Which technology should the organization use?
a) DSL
b) X.25
c) ISDN
d) Wireless
e) Analog Modem
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
a) Extends the network to remote users
b) Allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
c) reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
d) Reduces the number of physical connections
e) Simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 4
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured:
http://www.gratisexam.com
a) #1
b) #2
c) #3
d) #4
e) #5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
a) Video streaming on the LAN
b) Security between departments
c) The segmenting of collision domains
d) The segmenting of broadcast domains
e) The use of multi vendor equipment
f) A limited corporate budget
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing
network? (Choose three.)
a) Staff input
b) Visual inventory
c) Network audit
d) Traffic analysis
e) Server statistics
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?
It is a sensor appliance
It searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic
It is a "purpose-built device"
It is installed passively
It introduces no delay or overhead
a) IKE
b) PIX
c) HIPS
d) NIDS
e) HMAC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
HIPS = Host based Intrusion Prevention System HMAC = Hashed Message Authentification Code IKE
= Internet Key Exchange
NIDS = Network based Intrusion Detection System PIX = Private Internet eXchange
QUESTION 8
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation
plan? (Choose three.) http://www.gratisexam.com
a) Step description
b) Design document references
c) Easy guidelines in case of failure
d) Estimated implementation time
e) Simple implementation guidelines
f) Estimated rollback time in case of failure
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanatio
QUESTION 9
A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:
Existing AAA Server
Cisco Catalyst switches
Minimal added investments
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?
a) NAC Appliance
b) Cisco IBNS
c) CSM
d) Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
CSM = Cisco Security Manager
IBNS = Identity Based Networking Services
Cisco MARS = (Cisco Security) Monitoring Analysis and Response System NAC = Network Admission
Control
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data
for billing network usage?
a) BGP
b) Cisco Discovery Protocol
c) QoS
d) RMON
e) NetFlow
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose
three.)
a) Use organizational input
b) Perform a traffic analysis
c) Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
d) Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
e) Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
f) Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) BGP
d) OSPF
e) EIGRP
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 13
What is the benefit of VLSM? http://www.gratisexam.com
a) Reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length
b) Reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
c) Reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
d) Allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
e) Secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 14
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large
number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
a) RMON
b) SNMPv3
c) NetFlow
d) Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
RMON = Remote network Monitoring
QUESTION 15
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional Campus
Network design?
a) Layer 3 service support at the Network Edge
b) The routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
c) The routing abilities of the host devices
d) The need to control the broadcast domains within the Campus Core
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Layer 3 ability at network edge should be available to leverage the benefits of routed network design.
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Access layer design?
a) The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers
b) With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer
c) A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN trunk between the two access switches to support the dual
IP addresses on the two servers links to two separate switches
d) The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Distribution (Aggregation) layer design?
a) With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed
by STP
b) The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent
of any other devices
c) A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal
d) In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core,
exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed
multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?
a) Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
b) Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
c) Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
d) Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
http://www.gratisexam.com
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the
designer have their own strengths. Which statement is an example of such a strength?
a) Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance
b) N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to
minimize intercontroller roaming events
c) N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of
the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center
d) N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the
same subnet for more efficiency
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters
apart, which two solutions can be utilized?
a) Multimode fiber
b) Fibre Channel
c) HVDC transmission lines
d) Single-mode fiber
e) Serial RS-232
f) Gigabit Ethernet 1000Base-CX
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
EMI = ElectroMagnetic Intererence HVDC = High Voltage Direct Current
QUESTION 21
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?
a) Monitor mode
b) Sniffer mode
c) Rogue detector mode
d) Local mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before
deployment? (Choose two.)
a) All areas need to connect back to area 0
b) The OSPF process number on each router should match
c) NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0
d) Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links
e) ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
ECMP = Equal Cost Multi-Path
QUESTION 23
Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?
a) RIPE
b) ARIN
c) IANA
d) IEEE
e) APNIC
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
APNIC = Asia-Pacific Network Information Center ARIN = American Registry for Internet Numbers
http://www.gratisexam.com
IANA = Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
IEEE = Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers RIPE = Réseaux IP Européens
RIR = Regional Internet Registry
QUESTION 24
An Enterprise Campus module is typically made up to four submodules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
a) DMZ
b) Entreprise branch
c) Building distribution
d) Server Farm / Data Center
e) MAN
QUESTION 26
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent
propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?
a) Stub
b) Totally stubby
c) Backbone
d) NSSA
e) Virtual link
QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
a) MGCP
b) RTP
c) SCCP
d) CDP
e) ICMP
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 28
http://www.gratisexam.com
a) Router 1
b) Router 2
c) Router 3
d) Router 4
e) Router 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)
a) NetFlow
b) FWSM
c) ISE
d) VRRP
e) sFLOW
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
a) IPSec VPN
b) AnyConnect VPN
c) SSL VPN
d) EasyConnect VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?
a) RFC 1918
b) RFC 2338
c) RFC 2460
d) RFC 2740
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
a) Service port
b) Management port
c) Controller port
d) Virtual port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?
a) Monitor mode
b) Promiscuous mode
c) Discovery mode http://www.gratisexam.com
d) Sniffer mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which HSRP parameters must match to ensure proper functionality?
a) Group parameters
b) Priority parameters
c) Preempt parameters
d) Tracking parameters
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
a) Existing documentation
b) New documentation
c) Existing network management software
d) New network management tools
e) Management personnel
f) Technical personnel
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)
a) Core layer
b) Distribution layer
c) Access layer
d) Aggregation layer
e) Network layer
f) Internet layer
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 38
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) GLBP
d) IGRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)
a) Consolidation
b) Virtualization
c) Automation
d) Standardization
e) Optimization
f) Modulation
QUESTION 40
Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?
a) Higher availability
b) Repeatable scalability
c) Increased security
d) Improved resiliency
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41 http://www.gratisexam.com
Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture models?
a) It divides the network into functional network modules
b) It divides the network into role-based network modules
c) It divides the network into regional network modules
d) It divides the network into operational network modules
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
a) Linear
b) Triangular
c) Rectangular
d) Circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model
in the data center?
a) It enables NIC teaming
b) It removes STP dependency
c) It increases scalability
d) It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:
Option 1 has a metric of 8123228
Option 2 has a metric of 2195467
Option 3 has a metric of 8803823
The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.
How many active entries does Router A have in its routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)
a) Split horizon
b) Route summarization
c) Route poisoning
d) Tuned timers
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 46
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
a) RIP
b) OSPF
c) EIGRP
d) BGP
e) IS-IS
QUESTION 47
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)
a) Strict
http://www.gratisexam.com
b) Loose
c) VRF
d) Global
e) PIM
f) Local
a) Physical
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Application
a) Backbone
b) Core
c) Access
d) Distribution
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 51
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to
increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this
new requirement without adding new physical connections?
a) Enable spanning-tree portfast
b) Enable VSS at the distribution layer
c) Increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
d) Ensure the root bridge is equal on both distribution switches
QUESTION 52
Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse-mode has been enabled
on all VLANs. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on the access
layer switches?
a) IGMP snooping
b) Multicast boundary filter
c) PIM dense-mode
http://www.gratisexam.com
d) Dynamic ARP inspection
QUESTION 53
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
a) iSCSI
b) FCoE
c) SATA
d) Fiber Channel
e) AoE
QUESTION 54
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network
should these services be provisioned?
a) Core
b) Aggregation
c) Layer 3 access
d) Distribution
QUESTION 55
A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can
address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 56
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing
configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
a) Floating static entry
b) EIGRP variance
c) Bandwidth metric
d) OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
When designing a new Enterprise Campus Network, what topology should be used for maximum
scalability?
a) Flat
b) Three-layer
c) Star
d) Partial mesh
http://www.gratisexam.com
e) Full mesh
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 58
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution
block?
a) VDC
b) vPC
c) Rapid PVST+
d) VSS
e) Flex Links
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. What must be
considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?
a) Reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the
routing table
b) Centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
c) Reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
d) Performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment
QUESTION 60
A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the public
Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel?
a) Access list
b) IP security
c) Context based access
d) Intrusion prevention system
QUESTION 61
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
QUESTION 63
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two tools
http://www.gratisexam.com
can provide this information? (Choose two.)
a) NBAR
b) CiscoWorks
c) SNMP collector
d) NetFlow collector
e) Syslog
Explanation/Reference:
NBAR = network based application recognition
QUESTION 64
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing
network infrastructure?
a) Customer information
b) Existing documentation
c) Traffic analysis
d) External feedback
e) User feedback
QUESTION 65
A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet. What
solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages?
a) SNMP v3
b) NetFlow v9
c) Syslog traps
d) Secure Shell v2
e) SNMP v2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers with the
ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using network probes.
a) RMON
b) NetFlow
c) SNMP
d) Syslog
e) IP SLA
QUESTION 67
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Where are aggregation
switches found?
a) Enterprise Campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) SP Edge WAN
d) Remote Module
QUESTION 68
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose
two.)
QUESTION 69
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in
remote data centers?
a) Application Control Engine
b) Wide Area Application Services
c) Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
d) Cisco Prime Network Services Controller
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center over
a WAN connection?
a) Security
b) Bandwidth
c) Reliability
d) Management
QUESTION 71
What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. 19.22.37.1
B. 10.1.7.19
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.31.1.1
E. 239.15.12.1
Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 72
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries
in a routing table?
a) Filtering
b) Tunneling
c) Summarization
d) Translation
e) Supernetting
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 73
What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address?
http://www.gratisexam.com
a) IPv6 Prefix
b) 64-bit MAC address
c) 48-bit MAC address
d) IPv4 address
e) Link Local Suffix
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 74
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own
area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
a) Backbone area
b) Totally Stub area
c) Not so Stubby area
d) Stub area
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
a) Employees
b) Geography
c) Applications
d) Administration
e) Throughput
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 76
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology is the
distribution and access layer?
a) VDC
b) vPC
c) Rapid PVST+
d) VSS
e) Flex Links
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center?
a) Virtual storage-area network
b) Unified fabric
c) Unified computing system
d) Virtual switching system
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high
availability, and performance?
a) Partial mesh
b) Full mesh
c) Star
http://www.gratisexam.com
d) Ring
e) Bus
f) Point-to-point
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
a) Circuit bandwidth
b) Prioritization
c) Security
d) Operational expense
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a
Cisco environment. What protocol allows for this?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) RIP
d) BGP
e) IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 82
Which network layer is the best fit fro security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
a) Campus core
b) Enterprise edge
c) Campus distribution
d) Remote-access VPN
e) Enterprise data center
f) Campus access
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 83
Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network?
a) Core
b) Application
c) Distribution
d) Network
Correct Answer: B
http://www.gratisexam.com
QUESTION 84
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
B)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt http://www.gratisexam.com
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
C)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
D)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 85
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments.
What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
b) Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame
c) Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy
Ethernet in all campus networks
d) Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows
load balancing between redundant paths
e) Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 86
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical
connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures
that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
a) Optimized OSPF SPF timers
b) Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
c) Automatic protection switching
d) Optimized OSPF LSA timers
e) Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87 http://www.gratisexam.com
Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP?
a) The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response
b) The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response
c) The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously
d) Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56
kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer
checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit.
The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
QUESTION 89
Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism?
a) Weighted fair queuing
b) Policing
c) Payload compression
d) Header compression
QUESTION 90
Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?
a) VSS
b) VPN
c) VRF
d) VLAN
QUESTION 91
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
a) Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
b) Cisco FabricPath
c) Data center bridging
d) Cisco Unified Fabric
QUESTION 92
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability
to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design
should use existing WAN.
a) VPLS
b) L2TPv3
c) OTV
d) AToM
QUESTION 93
In which two places is redundancy recommended in an Enterprise Campus Network design? (Choose
two.)
a) Building distribution
b) Campus core
c) Building access
d) E-commerce
e) Internet connectivity
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 94
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation that
must be addressed?
a) Scalability
b) Serviceability
c) Redundancy
d) Resiliency
QUESTION 99
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Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized?
QUESTION 100
Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network?
a) Hello packets
b) Virtual links
c) Interface cost
d) Areas
QUESTION 101
Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform summarization with the current
network layout? (Choose three.)
a) Router 2
b) Router 3
c) Router 4
d) Router 5
e) Router 7
f) Router 8
QUESTION 102
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergencehttp://www.gratisexam.com
in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
In this suboptimal design of homogeneous Cisco network, which version of spanning tree provides the
fastest convergence?
a) PVST+
b) CST
c) RPVST
d) VSTP
e) PVST
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 105
http://www.gratisexam.com
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the
HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root
remains on the left distribution?
a) The STP root becomes the gateway
b) The interdistribution link is used for transit
c) The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
d) The interaccess link is used for transit
e) Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
http://www.gra
a) The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC
address are different. It takes four hours for the VLAN
interface to come up
b) The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different.
It takes four hours for the SVI to come up
c) The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC
address are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache
to time out
d) The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP address are
different. It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come
up
e) The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address
are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time
out
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Correct Answer: BDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the
specific nature of an attack?
a) Network IPS
b) Netflow collector
c) Stateful firewall
d) Syslog server
QUESTION 110
Which location is the best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has
visibility into the most data center traffic?
(A) Inline before the firewall
(B) Inline after the firewall
(C) Passive off the firewall
(D) Passive off the internal switch
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Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 111
A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the
company network to access internal resources using a company
laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department.
Which VPN method is used for connectivity?
a) DMVPN
b) SSL VPN
c) IPsec VPN
d) GET VPN
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
QUESTION 113
Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support
OTV technology? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 114
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Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center
design to readily scale server virtualization?
QUESTION 115
Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization?
(Choose three.)
a) Virtual PortChannel
b) Virtual machine
c) Virtual Device Context
d) Virtual Switching System
e) Virtual device driver
QUESTION 116
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing
protocols, QoS, and security components?
a) Logical
b) Physical
c) Layered
d) Virtual
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 117
What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the
appropriateness of the design?
a) Operate
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b) Optimize
c) Design
d) Implement
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 118
what phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and
resolution of issues prior to moving the entire network to
production?
a) Optimize
b) Operate
c) Implement
d) Design
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 119
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 120
QUESTION 121
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QUESTION 122
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 123
Place Methodology in correct order
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Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 124
Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
Explanation/Reference:
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20,000 Hz, and
speech encompasses sounds from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the
telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400
Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers
to identify the party at the far end and sense their mood. Nyquist
decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher-
frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver.
Therefore, the highest frequency for voice is 4000 Hz. According
to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so
2x4kHz = 8kHz.
Note:
QUESTION 125
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Which three of these are components of the North American
Numbering Plan? (Choose three.)
a) Numbering Plan Area
b) Country Code
c) Prefix
d) Zone
e) Line Number
f) Trunk Channel
Correct Answer: ACE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 126
A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design
requirements:
at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth
network runs of up to 40km
no concern for transmission medium cost
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this
customer?
a) Shielded twisted pair
b) Unshielded twisted pair
c) Multimode fiber
d) Single-mode fiber
e) Wireless
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 127
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as
large?
a) Between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
b) Between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
c) Between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
d) Between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
e) Over 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 128
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Which layer is the distribution layer?
a) Layer A
b) Layer B
c) Layer C
d) Layer A & B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 129
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to
deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
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A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which
numbered box represents the distribution layer?
a) #1
b) #2
c) #3
d) #4
QUESTION 131
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each
step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose
three.)
a) Step description
b) Design document references
c) Easy guidelines in case of failure
d) Estimated implementation time
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e) Simple implementation guidelines
f) Estimated rollback time in case of failure
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Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 134
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QUESTION 135
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Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular
approach to network design? (Choose two.)
a) Improve flexibility
b) Facilitates implementation
c) Lowers implementation costs
d) Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 137
Data link switching is typically used in which Enterprise Campus
Module layer?
a) Server Farm
b) Campus Core
c) Building Access
d) Building Distribution
e) Internet Connectivity
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 138
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center
Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
a) Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP
address
b) Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access
layer
c) Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access
layer
d) Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access
layer
e) Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be
Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 139
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center
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Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two.)
a) it provides Layer 4-7 services
b) It should never support STP
c) It is the critical point for control and application services
d) It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data
center to the core
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which of the following is a modular component within the Cisco
Enterprise Campus module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
framework?
a) Teleworker
b) E-Commerce
c) Internet Connectivity
d) Building Distribution
e) WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 141
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for
exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third
ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise
network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related?
(Choose two.)
a) PSTN
b) E-Commerce
c) WAN/MAN
d) Edge Distribution
e) Internet Connectivity
f) Remote Access VPN
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a) Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise
Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch
b) Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise
Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise branch
c) Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core
layer and Remote Access/VPN module with the DNS server
in the Internet Connectivity module
d) Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus
Distribution layer with the DNS server in the Internet
Connectivity module
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which two modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional
area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
a) Teleworker
b) WAN/LAN
c) Server Farm
d) E-Commerce
e) Internet Connectivty
f) Remote Access/VPN
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 144
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two
Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two)
a) Interactive Services
b) Business Applications
c) Network Infrastructure
d) Collaboration Applications
e) WAN/Internet
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Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture?
(Choose three.)
a) Application
b) Physical Infrastructure
c) Presentation
d) Integrated Transport
e) Core Common Services
f) Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF
Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 146
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
QUESTION 147
At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a
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customer’s network in order to discover opportunities for network
improvement?
a) Plan
b) Prepare
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Design Assesment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the
PPDIOO process?
a) Order the equipment
b) Develop a high-level migration plan
c) Create a pilot or a prototype network
d) Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as
possible
e) Identify which network management protocol will be used
for which function
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 149
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main
benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design?
(Choose four.)
a) Faster ROI
b) Improved business agility
c) Increased network availability
d) Faster access to applications and services
e) Lower total cost of network ownership
f) Better implementation team engagement
Correct Answer: BCDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 150
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During which stage of the PPDIOO process are implementation
procedures prepared?
a) Prepare
b) Plan
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 151
Which two design methodology steps relate, at least in part, to the
implement phase of the PPDIOO process? (Choose two.)
a) Verifying the network
b) Testing design
c) Determining customer requirements
d) Characterizing the existing network
e) Establishing the organizational requirements
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 152
Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down
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network design process has over the bottom-up network design
process? (Choose two.)
a) Is able to provide the big picture
b) Utilizes previous experience
c) Takes less time to design a network
d) Identifies appropriate technologies first
e) Provides a design for current and future development
Correct Answer: AE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-
down network design plan?
a) Allow quick responses to design requests
b) Facilitates design based on previous experience
c) Incorporates customer organizational requirements
d) Is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
e) Provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 154
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an
existing data network? (Choose three.)
a) Use organizational input
b) Perform a traffic analysis
c) Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
d) Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service
guarantees
e) Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the
network
f) Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s
existing network
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 155
Which of the following Cisco router services performs network
traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing
network?
a) MRTG
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b) NetMon
c) NetFlow
d) SNMP MIB complier
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 156
You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and
need to obtain the following router information:
interfaces
running processes
IOS image being executed
Which command should you use?
a) show version
b) show tech-support
c) show starup-config
d) show running-config
e) show processes memory
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 157
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to
metering network traffic and providing data for billing network
usage?
a) BGP
b) Cisco Discovery Protocol
c) QoS
d) RMON
e) NetFlow
Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 158
Which network management protocol allows a network device to
have vendor-specific objects for management?
a) SNMP v1
b) SNMP v2
c) SNMP v3
d) MIB
e) RMON 1
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f) RMON 2
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 159
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect
information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
a) Staff input
b) Visual inventory
c) Network audit
d) Traffic analysis
e) Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 160
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote
data centers, given that the two data centers are using Layer 3
routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this
requirement?
a) VRF
b) OTV
c) MPLS
d) STP
e) vPC
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 161
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice
and video applications?
a) 300 bytes
b) 1 sec
c) 150 msec
d) 500 msec
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a) Data link layer
b) Core layer
c) Distribution layer
d) Access layer
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver
100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
a) DSL
b) DWDM
c) ISDN
d) Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 164
Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat
detection and mitigation at the Enterprise Edge?
a) Cisco IOS Router
b) Cisco ASA
c) Cisco Catalyst FWSM
d) Cisco IPS
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 165
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure
IPsec VPN connection, which technology is recommended to
provide the underlying transport?
a) ISDN
b) Metro Ethernet
c) Frame Relay
d) ASDL
e) ATM
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber
optic connections over UTP?
a) Signal attenuation
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b) Required bandwidth
c) Required distance
d) Electromagnetic interference
e) Cost
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 167
A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of
the following? (Choose two.)
a) Route summarization
b) Faster convergence
c) Unequal cost load balancing
d) Redistribution
e) Virtual Links
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 168
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the
Service Provider Module? (Choose three.)
a) Ring
b) Star
c) Full mesh
d) Core/edge
e) Collapsed core
f) Partial mesh
Correct Answer: BCF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller
deployments? (Choose two.)
a) Automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs
b) LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
c) Automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
d) Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
e) Controller redundancy
f) Mobility groups
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Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an
environment for teleworkers? (Choose three.)
QUESTION 172
What design requirement is necessary for Campus Network
Access layer switching?
a) High cost per port
b) High availability
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c) High scalability
d) High performance
QUESTION 173
Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and
reliability? (Choose two.)
a) Hardware failures
b) Layer 1 link failures
c) Application failures
d) Core layer failures
e) Distribution layer failures
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 174
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which
effect do thery have on the routing table?
a) Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is
added
b) Only the route with the highest administrative distance is
added
c) Both routes are added
d) Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 175
Which two options are benefits of using a modular network
architecture? (Choose two.)
a) Facilitates troubleshooting
b) Accurate monitoring
c) Consistent documentation
d) Increased flexibility
e) Reduced cabling requirements
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 176
What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?
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a) Shorter addresses
b) Automatic summarization
c) Hierarchical global address space
d) Faster IGP convergence
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 177
For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most
efficient?
A. 10.0.0.1/8
B. 172.31.17.0/26
C. 192.168.1.0/25
D. 192.168.15.0/24
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 178
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
a) VRF instance
b) MIB database
c) GRE tunnel
d) Redundant hardware
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 179
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be
connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB
via redundant links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best
intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
a) Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB
using existing OSPF
b) Redistribute the routes on each link between your company
and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol
c) Use iBGP to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach VendorB
d) Use static routes to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach
VendorB
e) Use static routes to reach both VendorA and vendorB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 180
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Refer to the list of requirements. Which IP telephony design model
should you implement to fulfill these requirements?
Must be a single, large location with many remote sites
Must have multisite WAN connectivity
Requires SRST for call processing redundancy
a) Centralized
b) Distributed
c) Clustered
d) Decentralized
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 181
Which network access control technology is recommended to use
with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q B. 802.1x C. 802.3af D. 802.3q E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 182
Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable
roaming support?
a) WAP profiles
b) Roaming profiles
c) Mobility groups
d) Peer groups
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
a) Client Endpoints
b) Voice-enabled infrastructure
c) Cisco Unified Communications Manager
d) Cisco Unified Contact Center
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 184
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to
access enterprise data and systems?
a) ISE
b) BYOD
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c) SAN
d) IOE
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 185
What three customer supported details identifies network
requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose
three.)
a) Goals
b) Budget
c) User needs
d) Locations
e) Policies
f) Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 186
An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. What
command should be used to investigate the issue?
a) show processes cpu
b) show memory
c) show running-config
d) show version
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 187
What part of the network does a top-down network design focus
on for solution development?
a) Presentation
b) Hardware
c) Session
d) Application
e) Data link
f) Transport
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 188
An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a
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syslog server. What severity level are these messages?
a) Error
b) Warning
c) Debug
d) Informational
e) Notice
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 189
A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients
are to connect to various access layer devices, while remaining on
the same VLAN. What type of design would support this
requirement?
a) Routed
b) Switched
c) Tunneled
d) Virtual
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 190
When evaluating network design, what indicator demonstrates that
the modular approach was followed?
a) Ability to scale
b) Follows best practices
c) Redundant connectivity
d) Easy to deploy
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 191
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to
using a private VLAN?
a) Enterprise Campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) SP Edge Premise
d) Remote Module
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
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QUESTION 192
A network engineer is following the three tiered Network
Hierarchical Model. At which tier is route summarization
implemented?
a) Core
b) Distribution
c) Backbone
d) Access
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 193
A network engineer is using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
Model. In what module do network management servers reside?
a) Enterprise campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) Remote Modules
d) SP Edge WAN/Internet
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 194
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus
Core?
a) Low latency
b) Access control
c) Traffic filtering
d) High speed
e) Redundant links
f) QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 195
What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast
domain?
a) Router
b) Switch
c) IDS
d) IPS
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Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 196
To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare?
a) VSS
b) vPC
c) VLAN
d) VTP
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 197
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the
data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
a) VLANs
b) VPLS
c) VDC
d) VSS
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 198
During the design of a new campus network, the customer
requests the ability to route overlapping IP addresses. What
technology can be leveraged to meet this request?
a) VRF
b) VLANs
c) VSS
d) vPC
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 199
Which three are considered as technical constraints when
identifying network requirements? (Choose three.)
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f) Support for existing legacy equipment
g) Limited timeframe to implement
a) Top-of-rack
b) Middle-of-rack
c) Bottom-of-rack
d) Beginning-of-row
e) Middle-of-row
f) End-of-row
Correct Answer: AF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol
for an existing infrastructure that contains multiple vendors and
platforms?
a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) IGRP
d) OSPF
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 202
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) IS-IS
d) RSTP
e) BGP
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 203
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)
a) Looped Triangle
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b) Looped Square
c) Looped U
d) Loop-Free Triangle
e) Loop-Free Square
f) Loop-Free U
Correct Answer: ABF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-
sized LAN? (Choose two.)
a) Core
b) Distribution
c) Access
d) Backbone
e) Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 205
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
a) Fast transport
b) Security
c) Summarization
d) Redistribution
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 206
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to
all other enterprise modules?
a) Network management servers
b) DHCP servers
c) Active Directory servers
d) IP SLA servers
e) Web servers
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 207
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach
without a repeater?
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a) 1000Base-CX
b) 1000Base-LX
c) 1000Base-SX
d) 1000Base-T
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 208
which three options represents the components of the Teleworker
Solution? (Choose three.)
a) Cisco Unified IP Phone
b) Cisco 880 Series Router
c) Aironet Office Extend Access Point
d) Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
e) Cisco 2900 Series Router
f) MPLS Layer 3 VPN
g) Leased lines
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 209
What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by
GLBP?
A. 64 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 210
Which three services categories are supported by an ISR?
(Choose three.)
a) Voice
b) Security
c) Data
d) Internet
e) Storage
f) Satellite
Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
a) RIPv2
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b) RIPv1
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
e) IGRP
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 212
Which statement describes an unique feature of EIGRP?
a) It enables unequal-cost load balancing
b) It enables equal-cost load balancing
c) It enables source-based load balancing
d) It enables port-based load balancing
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 213
ACME corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at
its corporate headquarters. The interior gateway protocol that they
select must support these requirements: multivendor environment,
efficient subnetting, high scalability, and fast convergence.
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a) OSPFv3
b) EIGRP for IPv6
c) BGP
d) RIPng
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 216
When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the
Enterprise Edge, which solution would be the most appropriate
solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
a) ACLs in the Core layer
b) Cisco Security MARS
c) AAA
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a) ACE
b) VSS
c) VDC
d) VM
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 220
What two performance considerations must be taken into account
when designing a remote worker access solution? (Choose two.)
a) Simultaneous VPN connections
b) Port density
c) Throughput capacity
d) Packet size
e) Latency
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 221
In which network location should an external DNS server be
placed?
a) Campus data center
b) Enterprise branch
c) Internet
d) Remote access
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 222
What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module?
a) Enterprise WAN
b) Remote branch
c) Campus IPS
d) Building distribution
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 223
A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer
2 adjacency across remote offices for applications and services.
What solution should be selected?
a) DMVPN
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b) MPLS
c) VPLS
d) FR
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 224
A circuit has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80 km from
the carrier equipment. What type of SFP will be required?
a) TX
b) SX
c) ZX
d) LX
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 225
A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast.
What two VPN protocols meet these requirements?
a) Standard IPsec
b) P2P GRE over IPsec
c) DMVPN
d) AnyConnect
e) PPTP
f) Easy VPN
g) SSL/TLS
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 226
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates
ASA firewalls ?
a) Small
b) Medium
c) Large
d) Extra large
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 227
A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN
solution for a large number of remote offices that do not have on-
site IT support and communicate only with the home office.
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What type of VPN solution should be implemented?
a) VPLS
b) GRE
c) IPsec
d) EVPN
e) DMVPN
f) SSL client
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 228
A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1
Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy to
headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types
satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
a) Secondary T1 WAN circuit
b) ISDN BRI
c) IPsec tunnel over the Internet
d) DWDM
e) POTS Line T1 WAN
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failure?
a) Virtual Private Network
b) Shadow PVC
c) Dial-up ISDN
d) GRE tunnel
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 231
A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed
at multiple sites to a remote data center. What two design
requirements are unique to this scenario? (Choose two.)
a) Bandwidth
b) Security
c) Latency
d) Storage
e) Availability
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 232
What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of
addresses into subnets of different sizes?
a) VLSM
b) RIR
c) CIDR
d) NAT
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 233
An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to
IPv6 within the enterprise network and has requested clarification
on recommended migration strategies.
What three migration models would accomplish the organization's
goal? (Choose three.)
a) Dual Stack
b) Service Block
c) Top-Down
d) Hybrid
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e) Tunneled
f) Fork-Lift
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 234
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts.
How can the application communicate using IPv6?
a) Anycast
b) Unicast
c) Broadcast
d) Multicast
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 235
What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF?
a) Easy summarization
b) Shorter convergence time
c) Single area operation
d) Low processor utilization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 236
What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in
an enterprise network?
a) OSPF
b) EIGRP
c) BGP
d) IS-IS
e) RIP
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 237
What three considerations should be taken into account when
selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
a) Classful routing
b) Scalability
c) Default route origination
d) Multi vendor support
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e) Link load balancing
f) Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 238
By default, how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF?
a) Hops
b) Cost
c) Bandwidth
d) Delay
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 239
What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a
distance vector?
a) Creates a topological view of the entire network
b) Path calculation utilizes a more granular metric
c) Do not scale well for large networks
d) Constantly shares link states updates throughout the
topology
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 240
A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise
Network. Where should route summarization be implemented?
a) Distribution
b) Core
c) Access
d) Backbone
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 241
What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between
IGPs?
a) Route filters
b) Route reflectors
c) Auto summarization
d) Virtual links
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
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QUESTION 242
What is the first step when creating a network security policy?
a) Define what should be protected
b) Investigate how likely an attack is to occur
c) Implement measures to protect assets
d) Hire a security firm to perform penetration tests
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 243
A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan
all internet traffic, including remote workers. What solution meets
these requirements?
a) Cisco Cloud Web Security
b) Cisco Network Admission Control
c) Cisco Identity Service Engine
d) Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 244
A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. What two
products allow for posture assessment? (Choose two.)
a) ACS
b) NAC
c) ASA
d) ISE
e) WAAS
f) IDS
Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 245
What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two.)
a) CoS 1
b) CoS 2
c) CoS 3
d) CoS 4
e) CoS 5
Correct Answer: CE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
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QUESTION 246
A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a
multisite WAN environment. What two design considerations need
to be evaluated? (Choose two.)
a) Codecs supported by the video units
b) Buffer sizes on the routers
c) PoE capabilities of the switches
d) Number of current calls
e) Number of hops between sites
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 247
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network
audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of
interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal
impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you
use to meet these requirements?
a) RMON
b) SNMPv3
c) NetFlow
d) Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 248
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements
identified?
a) Design
b) Plan
c) Prepare
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 249
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
a) Obtain site contact information
b) Perform network audit
c) Identify customer requirements
d) Optimize
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 250
When designing the identity and access control portions for the
enterprise campus network, which of these solutions would be the
most appropriate solution to consider?
1. 802.1x
2. ACL in the Core Layer
3. Cisco Security MARS
4. NetFlow
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 251
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?
a) Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached
devices
b) Generates a profile based on username and group
c) Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based
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on LAN traffic
d) A database used to map user VPN accounts
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 252
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the
802.1x protocol. Which other authentication solution is used hand-
in-hand with 802.1x to authenticate users for network access?
a) RADIUS
b) LEAP
c) IPsec
d) TACACS
e) ISAKMP
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 253
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a
particular application data flow across the network?
a) cRTP
b) IEEE 802.1P
c) RSVP
d) LFI
e) Auto QoS
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 254
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services
contain? (Choose four.)
a) Access services
b) Transport services
c) Storage services
d) Forwarding services
e) Session control services
f) Security services
g) Filtering services
h) Remote access services
Correct Answer: ABCE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
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QUESTION 255
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection
requests to the nearest content server?
a) Link-local
b) Site-local
c) Anycast
d) Multicast
e) Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 256
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all
Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
a) CST
b) RSPT
c) PVST
d) MISTP
e) Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 257
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
a) VSS: Virtual Switching System
b) VRF: Virtual Routing and Forwarding
c) VCI: Virtual Channel Identifier
d) VLSM: Variable Length Subnet Masking
e) VM: Virtual Machine
f) VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
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b) Medium branch design
c) Teleworker design
d) Small branch design
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 259
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose
two.)
a) Frame Relay
b) MPLS
c) Metro Ethernet
d) GPRS
e) Dial-up modem
f) 3G USB modems
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 260
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model
where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 261
Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need
to join networks with an acquisition's heterogeneous routers at 3
sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF.
Which describes the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
a) Apply OSPF throughout both networks
b) Apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
c) Apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
d) Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route
filter at only one location
e) Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route
filter at each location
f) Apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system
throughout both networks
Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 262
Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and
identity management solutions should be deployed in the
enterprise campus network?
a) Authentication validation should be deployed as close to
the data center as possible.
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b) Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that
each subject should have the privileges that are necessary
to perform their defined tasks, as well as all the tasks for
those roles below them.
c) Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources
and destinations, should be applied as close to the source
as possible.
d) For ease of management, practice defense in isolation -
security mechanisms should be in place one time, in one
place.
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 263
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the
enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the
most appropriate solution to consider?
a) 802.1x
b) ACL in the Core layer
c) Cisco Security MARS
d) Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 264
You have a campus network that consists of only Cisco devices.
You have been tasked to discover the device platforms, the IOS
versions, and an IP address of each device to map the network.
Which proprietary protocol will assist you with this task?
a) SNMP
b) TCP
c) CDP
d) ICMP
e) LLDP
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 265
Which three technologies are recommended to be used for WAN
connectivity in today's Enterprise Edge designs? (Choose three.)
a) DWDM
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b) Metro Ethernet
c) Frame relay
d) MPLS VPN
e) ISDN
f) DSL
g) Wireless
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 266
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?
a) Virtual interface
b) Dynamic interface
c) Management interface
d) AP manager interface
e) Service port interface
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 267
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer
requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated
requirement on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 268
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct
interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable
solution?
a) Prepare
b) Plan
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 269
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate
technology or protocol on the right.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 270
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle
approach on the left to their order on the right.
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QUESTION 271
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much
information about the network as possible. Which of these choices
describes the preferred order for the information-gathering
process?
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Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the
core layer in this design?
a) QoS should only be performed only in the core
b) Load balancing should never be implemented or used
c) Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet
manipulation
d) Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to
each device by multiple paths
e) Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to
enable prioritization and ensure the best performance for all
time-critical applications
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 273
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise
Edge Architecture? (Choose three.)
a) E-commerce module
b) Internet connectivity module
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c) Server farm module
d) Remote access and VPN module
e) PSTN services module
f) Enterprise branch module
g) Building distribution module
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 274
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the
left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Correct Answer:
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Section: Select and Place Explanation
QUESTION 275
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or
module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise
campus infrastructure on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 276
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network
management reside?
a) Enterprise data center module
b) Enterprise campus module
c) Enterprise edge module
d) Service Provider edge module
e) Service Provider data center module
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QUESTION 278
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network
Services? (Choose three.)
a) Wireless
b) Routing
c) TrustSec
d) MediaNet
e) Swicthing
f) EnergyWise
g) Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 279
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0
architecture component of virtualization. Which of the following is
not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data
Center?
a) Virtualized media access utilizing Fiber Channel over
Ethernet
b) VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide
for virtualized LAN and SAN connectivity, separating
physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
c) Virtual Machines that run an application within the client
operating system, which is further virtualized and running
on common hardware
d) Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network
devices are virtualized using device contexts
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 280
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the
enterprise network core layer, when designing a network based on
its switched hierarchical design?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
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d) Layer 4
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 281
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows
the network architect to create up to four separate control and data
plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
a) vPC (Virtual port-channel)
b) VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding)
c) VSS (Virtual Switching System)
d) VDC (Virtual Device Context)
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 282
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure
best-practice access layer design for the enterprise campus?
(Choose three.)
a) PortFast
b) UDLD
c) Root Guard
d) BPDU Guard
e) Flex Links
f) SPAN
g) EtherChannel
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 283
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a
key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the
name of the NX-OS technology
that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any
IP network?
a) Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV)
b) Virtual Private LAN Services (VPLS)
c) Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
d) Q-in-Q tunneling
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 284
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When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an
enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not
relevant?
a) Whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC
address is required
b) The number of shared media segments
c) Which infrastructure service capabilities are required
d) Whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 285
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices
when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus?
(Choose two.)
Explanation/Reference:
When designing the building access layer, you must consider the
number of users or ports required to size up the LAN switch.
Connectivity speed for each host should also be considered. Hosts
might be connected using various technologies such as Fast
Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, or port channels. The planned VLANs
enter into the design.
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and QoS features should be considered. The following are
recommended best practices for the building access layer:
Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most
deterministic and highly available topology.
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distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge
c) The campus core layer is optional
d) The core layer requires high performance to manage the
traffic policing across the backbone
Correct Answer:
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Explanation/Reference:
Network Virtualization:
VPC
VLAN
VRF
Device Virtualization:
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piece of hardware. The software creates virtual hardware that can
function just like the physical network device. Another form of
device virtualization entails using multiple physical devices to act
as one logical unit.
QUESTION 288
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building distribution layer
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 289
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
a) Network application characteristics
b) Routing protocol characteristics
c) Switching latency characteristics
d) Packet filtering characteristics
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 290
Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual
routers with its own individual routing tables on a physical router?
a) VSS
b) vPC
c) VRF
d) VLAN
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 291
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on
the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building
distribution layer.
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QUESTION 292
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the
campus design? (Choose three.)
a) Access layer aggregation
b) Route summarization
c) Network trust boundary
d) Next-hop redundancy
e) Layer-2 switching
f) Port security
g) Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 293
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise
campus network. In a fully redundant topology, which is likely to
provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
a) Redundant supervisors
b) Redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
(NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
c) Single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
d) Single supervisors
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 294
In the enterprise data center, which are the three main
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components? (Choose three.)
a) Network Infrastructure
b) Interactive services
c) Data Center Management
d) Internet services
e) WAN services
f) VPN and remote access
Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 295
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the
appropriate design requirement on the right.
QUESTION 296
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which
Enterprise Campus layer does the Remote Access and VPN
module establish its connection?
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a) Building Access
b) Campus Core
c) Enterprise Branch
d) Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 297
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate
category on the right.
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QUESTION 298
You need to connect to a remote branch office via an Internet
connection. The remote office does not use Cisco equipment. This
connection must be secure and must support OSPF.
Which of the following can be used to transport data to the branch
office?
a) GRE over IPsec
b) IPsec
c) GRE
d) IPsec VTI
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 299
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point?
(Choose two.)
a) Managed via a central wireless LAN controller
b) Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
c) CAPWAP tunnels
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d) Managed directly via CLI or web interface
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 300
Which one of these statements describes why, from a design
perspective, a managed VPN approach for enterprise teleworkers
is most effective?
a) A managed VPN solution uses a cost-effective, on-demand
VPN tunnel back to the enterprise
b) This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require
voice or video
c) This architecture provides centralized management where
the enterprise can apply security policies and push
configurations
d) It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a
wireless hotspot or a guest network at a hotel, in addition to
a home office
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 301
What are three key areas that need to be considered when
designing a remote data center? (Choose three.)
a) Power diversity
b) Active Directory services
c) Cisco IOS versions
d) Data storage
e) Applications
f) User access
g) Packet routing
Correct Answer: ADE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 302
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
a) Cisco 1900 Series
b) Cisco 1800 Series
c) Cisco 800 Series
d) Cisco 500 Series
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
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QUESTION 303
When designing a WAN backup for voice and video applications,
what three types of connections should be used? (Choose three.)
a) Private WAN
b) Internet
c) ISDN
d) MPLS
e) Dial-up
f) ATM
g) DSL
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 304
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical
requirements? (Choose two.)
a) Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
b) Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN
technologies
c) Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
d) Voice and IPsec VPN support
e) High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
f) Dual or multihoming to ISPs
Correct Answer: CD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 305
Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint
networks without the use of point-to-point sub interfaces? (Choose
two.)
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) IS-IS
d) EIGRP
e) OSPF
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 306
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Which three modules would typically utilize public IPv4
addressing? (Choose three.)
a) Access
b) Distribution
c) Core
d) Data Center
e) E-Commerce
f) Internet Connectivity
g) Remote Access/VPN
h) WAN/MAM
i) Branch
j) Branch Data Center
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Correct Answer: EFG Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 307
With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which
of these statements is it important to keep in mind?
a) IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast
addressing without any configuration requirements
b) IPv6 does not use multicast addressing
c) An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to
other links if the packet has either a link-local source or a
link-local destination address
d) Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 308
Which consideration is the most important for the network designer
when considering IP routing?
a) Convergence
b) Scalability
c) On-demand routing
d) Redistribution
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 309
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within
the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath
routing. Which should you choose?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) IS-IS
d) RIP
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 310
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required
between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
a) Community
b) Router reflectors
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c) Local preferences
d) Confederations
e) Atomic Aggregate
f) MED
Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 311
A company wants to use private IP addresses for all its internal
hosts. Which technology can the company use to provide access
to the Internet using a single public IP address?
a) Static NAT
b) Source routing
c) ACL
d) PAT
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 312
Which two link state routing protocols support IPv6 routing?
(Choose two.)
a) BGP4+
b) OSPF
c) RIPng
d) EIGRP
e) IS-IS
Correct Answer: BE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 313
What is the most compact representation of the following IPv6
address: 2001:db8:0000:0000:cafe:0000:0000:1234 ?
A. 2001:db8::cafe::1234
B. 2001:db8::cafe:0000:0000:1234 C. 2001:db8:0:0:cafe::1234
D. 2001:db8::cafe:0:1234
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 314
Which is usually used to connect to an upstream ISP?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
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c) BGP
d) IS-IS
e) RIPv2
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 315
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that
will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would satisfy this
requirement?
a) RIPv2
b) RIPng
c) OSPF
d) ARP
e) EGP
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 316
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment?
(Choose two.)
a) ABR provides automatic classful network boundary
summarization
b) ABR requires manual configuration for classful network
summarization
c) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from stub areas via ASBR
d) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
e) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 317
Which three items pertain to EIGRP? (Choose three.)
a) Can use multiple unequal paths
b) Routes are redistributed as type 2 by default
c) ASN and K values must match to form neighbors
d) Uses multicast address 224.0.0.9 for updates
e) Exchanges full routing table every 30 seconds
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f) Summary routes have AD of 90
g) External routes have AD of 170
Correct Answer: ACG Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 318
Which statement should the designer keep in mind when
considering the advanced routing features?
a) One-way route redistribution avoids the requirement for
static or default routes
b) Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often
applied between the campus core and enterprise edge
c) Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using
redistribution
d) Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer
e) The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the
requirement for routing traffic reduction using aggregation
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 319
When designing an EIGRP network, which two things should you
take into consideration? (Choose two.)
a) ASN and K values must match
b) The neighbor command can be used to enable unicast
communication
c) The neighbor diameter cannot exceed a 15-hops limit
d) NSSA areas can be used to redistribute external routes
e) Neighbor relationship can be established with non-Cisco
routers
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 320
You are asked to design a new branch office that will need to
support 25 users. These users will be using an ISP connection and
will need to connect to the main office for network services. Which
two Cisco devices are the most appropriate to fulfill all of these
requirements? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco IPS
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b) Cisco ISR G2
c) Cisco ASA
d) Cisco 2960
e) Cisco CRS-1
f) Cisco ACS
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a) MRTG
b) NetFlow
c) RRD
d) SNMP
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 324
Which subnet address and mask would you use for all Class D
multicast addresses to be matched within an access list?
A. 224.0.0.0/20
B. 224.0.0.0/4
C. 239.0.0.0/24
D. 239.0.0.0/8
E. 225.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 325
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure
enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)
a) IPS
b) NAC
c) ASA
d) ACS
e) WCS
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 326
Which three are security services offered through Cisco Router
Security? (Choose three.)
a) Trust and Identity
b) Integrated Threat Control
c) Unified Wireless Network Security Solution
d) Secure Connectivity
e) Voice-Messaging Security
f) Endpoint Security
g) Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
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QUESTION 327
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality
calls?
QUESTION 328
Which three are features of LWAPP? (Choose three.)
a) Firmware synchronization
b) Local management of APs
c) Configuration changes manually synced
d) Encryption of control channel
e) Configuration data only on the WLC
f) Wireless control free operation
g) Replaces 802.1x for authentication in wireless connections
Correct Answer: ADE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 329
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data
center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection. Network
utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What
technology can be implemented to increase capacity without
acquiring another circuit?
a) MPLS
b) DWDM
c) VPLS
d) DMVPN
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 330
What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key
Infrastructure?
a) EAP-TLS
b) PEAP
c) LEAP
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d) EAP-FAST
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 331
What two access point modes support the transmission of user
traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP tunnel? (Choose two.)
a) Local
b) H-REAP
c) Rogue detector
d) Monitor
e) Sniffer
f) Standalone
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 332
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN
controller in a wireless LAN design?
a) Roaming between APs
b) RADIUS user authentication
c) Radio resource management
d) accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 333
A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client.
What path will the packet take to reach the destination endpoint in
a lightweight wireless deployment?
a) Switch > controller > ap > client
b) Controller > ap > switch > client
c) AP > controller > switch > client
d) Switch > ap > controller > client
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 334
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
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192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network
addresses? A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3 C. 192.168.168.0/21 D. 192.168.175.0/3 E.
192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 335
Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?
a) Focuses on the needs of user communities
b) Includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
c) Facilitates a quick response to client requests
d) Produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 336
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier
should be free of physically connected hosts?
a) Core
b) Access
c) Aggregation
d) Distribution
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 337
An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a
collapsed core. What design issue is a primary concern per Cisco
best practices?
a) Services delineation
b) Port density
c) Feature availability
d) Resource utilization
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 338
What three design best practices are key functions of the
distribution layer? (Choose three.)
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a) Fault domain isolation
b) Admission control
c) Access switch aggregation
d) QoS tagging
e) Address summarization
f) End user and application isolation
Correct Answer: ACE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 339
A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large
existing production network. From the IOS CLI, what two protocols
can be used to build a topology map of the existing network?
(Choose two.)
a) SNMP
b) IP SLA
c) ICMP Echo
d) LLDP
e) Traceroute
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 340
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a
new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight
into the network and determine the components that require
optimization? (Choose two.)
a) CDP
b) NetFlow
c) ICMP Echo
d) NMAP
e) SNMP
Correct Answer: BE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 341
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme?
(Choose two.)
a) reduces routing table size
b) Provides increased security
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c) Allows for address translation to be performed
d) Improves manageability and troubleshooting
e) Increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 342
What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder
scalability? (Choose two.)
a) Routing table bloat
b) Inability to utilize automatic summarization
c) Insufficient IP addresses
d) Slowed packet forwarding
e) Delayed interface queuing
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 343
GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor
relationship between two routers, across the public Internet. Which
technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel?
a) Access lists
b) IPsec
c) CBAC
d) IPS
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 344
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
a) Provides information about directly connected Cisco
devices
b) Provides greater detail about collected data, including time
stamping
c) Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by
NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
d) Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 345
Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco
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WLC? (Choose three.)
a) Platinium
b) Bronze
c) Gold
d) Silver
e) Premier
f) Critical
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 346
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company-issued laptop, so which VPN method is used for
connectivity to the company email server?
a) DMVPN
b) SSL VPN
c) IPsec VPN
d) GET VPN
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 348
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You are designing routing between building distribution switches
and campus core switches. Assuming that all links have the same
speed, which statement about these designs is true?
a) Option A has more fault tolerance but slower convergence
than Option B
b) Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence
than Option B
c) Option B has more fault tolerance but slower convergence
than Option A
d) Option B has more fault tolerance and faster convergence
than Option A
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 350
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office
to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining
confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between
the two locations?
a) GRE over IPsec
b) IPsec
c) GRE
d) SSL VPN
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 351
A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-
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density RF design. Which two factors determine the cell size?
(Choose two.)
a) Antenna type
b) ClientLink support
c) TPC threshold setting
d) QoS setting
e) Free space path loss
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 352
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 353
Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an
LWAP can communicate with the Cisco WLC in a different subnet?
a) 7
b) 19
c) 43
d) 150
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 354
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose
two.)
a) ESX host
b) VM
c) Switches
d) Routers
e) Hyper-V host
Correct Answer: CD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 355
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
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QUESTION 356
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design
model on the right.
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QUESTION 357
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on
the right.
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Correct Answer:
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Section: Select and Place Explanation
QUESTION 358
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on
the right.
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QUESTION 360
What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design
Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
a) Migration
b) Deployement
c) Optimization
d) Design
e) Configuration
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 361
Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco
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Enterprise Architecture model?
a) Modular
b) Top-down
c) Bottom-up
d) Full-mesh
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 362
Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?
a) It reduces the size of the routing table
b) It causes routes to be updated more frequently
c) It lowers the cost metric
d) It enables neighbor discovery
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 363
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
a) Discarding
b) Learning
c) Blocking
d) Listening
e) Disabled
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 364
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
a) When remote-site APs are centrally managed
b) When each remote site has its own wireless controller
c) When each remote site runs VSS
d) When the remote sites use WAN optimization
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 365
In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances?
(Choose two.)
a) Inline
b) Promiscuous
c) VTP group
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d) Threat mitigation
e) Threat detection
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 366
According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you
apply to the strict priority queue?
a) Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity
b) Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps
c) Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-
time traffic should be permitted
d) The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100
ms
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 367
According to fundamental design principles, which location is best
for implementing Cisco QoS policies?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running
IOS software
d) WAN routers running IOS software
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 368
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
a) A VRF instance
b) A MIB database
c) A GRE tunnel
d) Redundant hardware
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 369
Which network virtualization technique can you implement without
disrupting the existing network design and infrastructure?
a) VRF-Lite
b) EVN
c) MPLS
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d) VNET tags
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 370
When designing a hierarchical network design, in which layer DAI
and DHCP snooping take place?
a) Core layer
b) Application
c) Distribution layer
d) Enterprise Edge
e) Access layer
f) Network layer
Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 371
What are two components of the Build phase in Cisco design life
cycle? (choose two)
a) Assessment
b) Validation
c) Deployment
d) Design
e) Analysis
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 372
A network engineer must connect two sites. Each sites has a
different autonomous number. Which method do you use to
exchange Routing information between the sites?
a) BGP
b) IGP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPFv3
e) Static Route
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
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