Test Pattern

NEET(UG)
MOCK TEST
This Booklet contains 19 pages.

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take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

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5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this

6.
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Test Booklet with them.

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space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

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Form Number : in figures

A

: in words

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Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Facsimile signature stamp of

Centre Superintendent :

Page 1/19 Mock Test

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1. Position-time graph is given find average speed 4. A policeman on duty detects a drop of 10% in the
pitch of the horn of a moving car as it crosses
in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :- him. If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the speed
of the car will be
x
10
(1) 20 m/s (2) 17.3 m/s (3) 25 m/s (4) 27 m/s
5. Charge Q is spread uniformly over a circular ring
of radius R, which gives electrical potential V1 at
10 15
0
5 t
R
its centre. If an arc of length is removed from
2
the ring [as shown in figure (ii)] keeping the net
–10 charge Q on the remaining part constant.The
relation between new potential V2 at the centre
and V1 is
5 2
(1) 5 m/s (2) m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) m/s
3 3
2. Two marbles A & B roll along two horizontal track Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)
with same initial speed. A moves on the track
which has a dip and B moves on the track which
has a bump of the same shape. Which marble (1) V1 > V2 (2) V2 > V1

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wins? (Assume no marble leaves contact at any point.) (3) V1=V2 (4) can’t determined
A v 6. In the given figure if i1 = 3 sin t and
E i2 = 4 cos t, then i3 is
i1 i2
B v
(1) B i3
(2) A (1) 5 sin (t +53°)
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(3) Both will reach at the same time (2) 5 sin (t + 37°)
(4) None of these (3) 5 sin (t + 45°)
3. The moment of inertia of a uniform flat disc about (4) 5 cos (t + 53°)
its own axis is I. The radius of the disc is a. A 7. The diagram below represents shallow water
section ABCD of the disc (as shown in figure) is waves of wavelength passing through two small
cut off and separated. The moment of inertia of the openings, A and B, in a barrier.
remaining part of the disc about the same axis will be
A

B C
D
30°

How much longer is the length of path AP than

5 11 4 2
(1) I (2) I (3) I (4) I the length of path BP?
6 12 5 3 (1) 1  (2) 2  (3) 3  (4) 4 
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8. A wire PQRS carrying a current I runs along three 12. A glass wind screen whose inclination with the
edges of a cube of side l as shown. There exists vertical can be changed is mounted on a car. The
a uniform magnetic field of magnitude B along car moves horizontally with a speed of
one of the sides of the cube. The magnitude of the 2m/s. At what angle with the vertical should the
force acting on the wire is wind screen be placed so that the rain drops falling
S vertically downwards with 6 m/s strike the wind
R screen perpendicularly.

–1  1 –1
(1) tan   (2) tan (3)
3 
Q
P
I –1 –1  1
(3) cos (3) (4) sin  
3 
(1) 0 (2) IlB (3) 2 I lB (4) 2 I lB
13. A ball is projected upwards from the top of a
9. In a co-ordinate system 3 vectors are represented
tower with a velocity of 50 ms–1 making an angle
as follows :-
of 30º with the horizontal. The height of the
  
a  4iˆ – ˆj , b  –3iˆ  2 ˆj and c  – kˆ tower is 70 m. After how many seconds from the
instant of throwing will the ball reach the ground:-
Where ˆi, ˆj, kˆ are unit vectors along x, y and z axis

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(1) 2s (2) 5s
respectively. The unit vector r̂ along the resultant (3) 7s (4) 9s
of these vectors is :- 14. A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing.
If the exhaust speed be 1 km/s, how much gas per
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ second must be ejected to give the rocket an
(1) r̂ = (i + j – k) (2) r̂ = (i  j – k)

1
3
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(3) r̂ = (iˆ – ˆj  k)
ˆ (4) r̂ =
2

1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
(i  j  k)
upward acceleration of 20 ms–2 ?
(Take g = 10 m s–2)
(1) 45 kg/s (2) 90 kg/s
3 2 (3) 120 kg/s (4) 180 kg/s
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15. Three forces are acting on a particle of mass m
a  t2 initially in equilibrium. If the first two forces
10. In a equation P  , P is pressure, x is distance
bx (R1 and R2) are perpendicular to each other and
suddenly the third force (R3) is removed, then the
a
and t is time the dimension of will be :- magnitude acceleration of the particle is :-
b
R3
(1) [MT–2] (2) [M2LT–3] (1)
m
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(3) [ML3T–1] (4) [LT–1]

11. If a sphere has radius (5.3 ± 0.1) cm, then percentage R1  R 2
(2)
error in measurement of its volume will be m

100 1 100 R1  R 2
(1) 3 + 6.01× (2) × 0.01 × (3)
5.3 3 5.3 m

R1
 3  0.1  0.1 (4)
(3)    100 (4)  100 m
 5.3  5.3
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16. In an arrangement shown in figure, coefficient of 20. The velocity of the liquid, coming out of a small
friction between the two blocks is µ = 1/2. The hole of a large vessel, containing two different
force of friction acting between the two blocks is:- liquids of densities 4 and  as shown in figure.

F1 = 2N
2kg
F2 = 20N smooth 4h
4 kg 

(1) 8 N (2) 10 N
(3) 6 N (4) 4 N
h 2
17. Four spheres of diameter 2a and mass M are
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placed with their centres on the four corners of a
square of side b. Then the moment of inertia of the (1) 2gh (2) 6gh (3) 8gh (4) 10gh
system about an axis along one of the sides of the 21. 64 small water drops of equal radii combine to
square is :- form a big drop. The ratio of final surface energy
to the total initial surface energy is :-
4 8 (1) 1: 64 (2) 1 : 256
(1) Ma 2  2Mb2 (2) Ma 2  2Mb2
5 5 (3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 4

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22. Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0ºC when
8 4 the atmospheric temperature is –10ºC. If the time
(3) Ma 2 (4) Ma 2  4Mb2
5 5 taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes,
the time taken for the thickness of the ice to change
18. A cubical block of side a is moving with velocity
from 1 cm to 2 cm will be :-
E
v on a horizontal smooth plane as shown. It hits
a ridge at point O. The angular speed of the block
after it hits O is :-
(1) 12 minute
(2) less than 12 minutes
(3) more than 12 minutes but less than 24 minute
a (4) more than 24 minutes
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23. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic
M v
o thermodynamical process through four steps. The
amounts of heat involved in these steps are;
(1) 3v / 4a (2) 3v / 2a Q 1 = 5960 J, Q 2 = –5585 J, Q 3 = –2980 J,
Q4 =3645 J respectively. The corresponding works
3v 3v involved are; W1 = 2200 J, W2 = –825 J,
(3) (4) W3=–1100 J and W4 respectively. The value of W4 is:-
2a 2a
A

(1) 1315 J (2) 275 J (3) 765 J (4) 675 J

19. A thin uniform rod mass m and length l is hinged  7
at the lower end to a level floor and stands 24. 5 moles of hydrogen     initially at STP are
 5
vertically. It is now allowed to fall, then its upper compressed adiabatically so that its temperature
end will strike the floor with a velocity :- becomes 400ºC. The increase in the internal
energy of the gas (in kilo–joule) is :
(1) 2gl (2) 3gl
(R = 8.30 J/mol–K)
(3) 5gl (4) mgl
(1) 21.55 (2) 41.50
(3) 65.55 (4) 80.55
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25. When the temperature of a black body increases, 30. Locate the image formed by refraction in the
it is observed that the wavelength corresponding situation shown in figure :-
to maxi mum energy changes f rom 0.26 m to
0.13 m. The ratio of the emissive powers of the
body at the respective temperatures is :- =1.0 =1.5
16 4 1 1 S
(1) (2) (3) (4) C
1 1 4 16
26. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm and two 25cm 20cm
litres of nitrogen at a pressure of 0.5 atm are
introduced into a vessel of volume 1 L. If there
is no change in temperature, the final pressure of
the mixture of gas (in atm) is :- (1) 100 cm left (2) infinity
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 1 cm to the right (4) 18 cm to the left
(3) 2 (4) 4 31. Magnification produced by astronomical telescope
27. In the circuit diagram shown below, the magnitude for normal adjustment is 10 and length of
and direction of the flow of current respectively telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification when the
would be : image is formed at least distance of distinct vision
10V 4V (D = 25 cm) is -
a b (1) 14 (2) 6 (3) 16 (4) 18
1 – + e + – 2 32. A thin prism P1 with angle 4º and made from glass

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3 of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
d c
thin prism P2 made from glass of refractive index
7 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The
(1) amp from a to b via e
3 E angle of prism P2 is :-
(1) 2.6º (2) 3º
7
(2) amp from b to a via e (3) 4º (4) 5.33º
3
33. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two
(3) 1.0 amp from b to a via e revolutions per second. The acceleration of the
(4) 1.0 amp from a to b via e particle in m/s2 is
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28. Three electric bulbs of 200 W, 200 W and 400 W (1)  2 (2) 8 2 (3) 4 2 (4) 2 2
are shown in figure. The resultant power of the 34. A 6.0 kg mass is moving to right at 10 m/s. A
combination is : 0.25 kg mass is thrown towards left as shown.
200W
What speed the smaller mass must have to
400W completely stop both masses after collision:-
10 m/s
6 kg v 0.25 kg
A

200W /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

(1) 4.2 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(3) 150 m/s (4) 240 m/s
(1) 800 W (2) 400 W (3) 200 W (4) 600 W 35. A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit which
29. A sample of ideal gas (=1.4) is heated at constant is illuminated with 6000 Å. If distance between
pressure. If an 100 J is supplied to gas, the work first and third minima in the diffraction pattern is
done by the gas is :- 3mm. What is the width of the slit ?
(1) 42.12 J (2) 56.28 J (1) 2 mm (2) 0.2 mm
(3) 28.57 J (4) 36.23 J (3) 2 cm (4) 2 m
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36. Two polaroid are oriented with their planes 42. Due to a small magnet, intensity at a distance x
perpendicular to incident light and transmission axis in the end on position is 9 gauss. What will be the
making an angle 30o with each other. What fraction x
intensity at a distance on broad side on
of incident unpolarised light is transmitted:- 2
(1) 37.5 % (2) 12.5 % (3) 25 % (4) 50 % position:-
37. A particle executing SHM of amplitude 4 cm and (1) 9 gauss (2) 4 gauss
T = 4s. The time taken by it to move from +2 cm (3) 36 gauss (4) 4.5 gauss
to +2 3 cm is :- 43. An electron enters the space between the plates of
a charged capacitor as shown. The charge density
3 on the plate is . Electric intensity in the space
(1) 1s (2) 1/3 s (3) 2/3 s (4) s
2 between the plates is E. A uniform magnetic field
38. Two pipes are each 50 cm in length. One of them B also exists in that space perpendicular to the
direction of E. The
 electron moves perpendicular
is closed at one end while the other is open at both
to both E and B without any change in direction.
ends. The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1. The
The time taken by the electron to travel a distance
frequency at which both the pipes can resonate is :-  is the space is :-
(1) 680 Hz (2) 510 Hz
(3) 85 Hz (4) None of these + + +
39. A light emitting diode (LED) has a voltage drop – × ×

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× ×
of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA – – –
when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a
limiting resistor R. The value of R is :-  B 0 B  0
(1) 40 k (2) 6 k (3) 200  (4) 400  (1)  B (2)   (3) (4)
0 0  B
40.
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The forbidden energy gap in Ge is 0.72 eV. Given,
hc = 12400eV – Å. The maximum wavelength of
radiation the will generate electron electron hole
pair is :-
44. What is the net force on the rectangular coil :-

10 cm
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(1) 172220Å (2) 172.2Å 2A 1A 15 cm
(3) 17222Å (4) 1722Å
41. For the series LCR circuit shown in the figure what
is the resonance frequency and the amplitude of 2cm
the current at the resonating frequency :
(1) 25 × 10–7 N towards wire

(2) 25 × 10–7 N away from wire

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(3) 35 × 10–7 N towards wire

(4) 35 × 10–7 N away from wire

45. The angle of dip at a certain place on earth is 60°
and the magnitude of earth's horizontal component
(1) 2500 rad/sec, 5 2 A (2) 2500 rad/sec, 5A of magnetic field is 0.26 G. The magnetic field at
the place on earth is :-
5 (1) 0.13 G (2) 0.26 G
(3) 2500 rad/sec, A (4) 25 rad/sec, 5 2 A (3) 0.52 G (4) 0.65 G
2
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46. Which of the following compound has specific 51. C6H12O2 CH3–MgBr/H2O 2-methyl propan-2-ol
rotation () = +32° (P) Excess

OH (only one type product)

(1) Structure of 'P' is :-
OH
O
H Me (1) CH3 – CH – C – CH2 – CH3
(2)
Cl CH3 CH3
Cl

(3) CH3
(2) CH3 – C – O – C – CH3
O CH3
(4)
SH
47. For first order reaction ; O
(3)
1 O
N 2 O 5 (g)  2NO 2 (g) + O (g) rate is
2 2

N
O–CH3
2 × 10 –3 Ms –1 when concentration of N 2 O 5 is (4)
0.2 M then rate constant will be O
(1) 0.01 Ms–1 (2) 0.01 s–1
52. In SO3 there are three  bonds, one is p-p bond
(3) 0.01 M min–1 (4) 0.02 mol–1 L
48.
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Geometrical isomerism cannot be shown by?
(1) [Zn(NH3)2(Cl)2 ]
(2) [Pt(NH3)2 (CN)2 ]
& rest two are p – d bonds, the d-orbitals those
can take part in  bond formation would be :-
(1) dxy, dyz
(2) dyz, dz2
(3) [Cr(NH3)4 (Br)2] +
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(3) dx2–y 2, dz2
(4) [Pd(NO2)3(Cl)3]–2
(4) dxz, dx2 –y 2
49. In a sample of hydrogen atoms electron jump from 53. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of
fifth excited state to first excited state then number the hydrocarbon,
of possible lines in ultra violet region will be :-
(1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 0 CH3 CH3
50. For the given compound correct decreasing order CH3–C – CH=CH–CH–C CH
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
A

of reactivity of S N1 reaction CH3

is in the following sequence :-

(1) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2
(1) X > Y > Z (2) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3
(2) Z > Y > X
(3) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp
(3) Z > X > Y
(4) Y > X > Z (4) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3
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54. In which of the following compounds, then C-Cl 57. Predict the products in the given reaction.
bond ionisation shall give most stable carbonium ion?
CHO
H 50% KOH
H 3C CH – Cl 

C – Cl Cl
(1) H 3 C (2)
CH 3
—
(1) CH 2OH + COO
H H 3C
(3) CH – Cl (4) CH – Cl Cl Cl
O 2 NH 2C H 3C
—
55. Given :- CH 2OH COO
(2) +

CH 3 CH 3 OH OH
CH 3
CH 3 CH 3
CH 2OH CH2COO—
CH 3 (3) +
O O O
(I) (II) (III) Cl Cl

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Which of the given compounds can exhibit
CH 2OH OH
tautomerism? (4) +
(1) I and III (2) II and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II OH OH
56.

acid is :-
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Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is
3–Ethyl–2–hydroxy–4–methylhex–3–en–5–ynoic
58.
COOH
(i) B2H6
 A
DIBAL–H
B
CN (ii) H3O
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The product 'B' is :-
CO OH
(1)
CH2OH CH2OH
OH
(1) (2)
OH CHO CH2OH
CO OH
(2) CHO CHO
A

(3) (4)
CHO CH2OH
OH
CO OH 59. Which of the following molecule on reaction with
(3)  
CH 3CH 2 O Na gives aromatic species :-

OH
CO OH
(4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

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60. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave 63. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4
a product D. Identify the product D (1) SCl4 (2) SO4 2–
(3) ClO4 – (4) BF 4 –
COOH 64. Which of the following will give a pair of
SO Cl2 NH 3 NaOH
enantiomorphs :
B  C Br2 D (1) [Pt(NH3 )4 ][PtCl 6 ]
Br
A (2) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2]NO2
(3) [Cr(NH3 )6][Co(CN)6 ]
(4) [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl
SO 2 NH 2
(1) (en = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2 )
65. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the
Br following triatomic species is:-

(1) NO 2  NO 2  NO 2 (2) NO 2  NO 2  NO 2
COOH
(2) (3) NO 2  NO 2  NO 2 (4) NO 2  NO 2  NO 2

NH 2 66. Four diatomic species are listed below in different

sequences. Which of these presents the correct
order of their increasing bond order ?

N
NH 2
(3) (1) C 22   He 2  NO  O 2

Br E (2) He 2  O 2  NO  C 22 

CO NH 2 (3) O 2  NO  C 22   He 2
(4)
(4) NO  C 22   O 2  He 2
Br
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67. Which one of the following compounds is a
61. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by peroxide?
the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main (1) NO2 (2) CrO3
reason for this is :- (3) BaO2 (4) MnO2
(1) More energy difference between 5f and 6d 68. Which one of the following ions has electronic
orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals configuration [Ar]3d6 ?
(2) Lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d (1) Co3+ (2) Ni3+
orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals (3) Mn3+ (4) Fe3+
A

(3) Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids (At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
than that of the corresponding actinoids 69. Which of the following pairs has the same size ?
(4) More active nature of the actinoids (1) Zn2+, Hƒ4+ (2) Fe2+, Ni2+
62. In which of the following pairs are both the ions 4+
(3) Zr , Ti 4+
(4) Zr4+, Hƒ4+
coloured in aqueous solution :- 70. Among the following which one has the highest
(1) Ni2+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Ti3+ cation to anion size ratio :-
(3) Sc3+, Co2+ (4) Ni2+, Zn+2 (1) CsF (2) LiF
(At.no. : Sc=21, Ti=22, Ni=28, Cu=29, Co=27) (3) NaF (4) CsI

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71. What products are formed when the following 77. Limiting conductances of Ca+2 and Cl– ions are
compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of FeBr3? 119 and 76.3 Scm2 eq–1 respectively. The limiting
CH 3 molar conductivity of CaCl 2 is :-
(1) 390.6 Scm2 mol–1 (2) 271.6 Scm2 mol–1
(3) 42.7 Scm2 mol–1 (4) 195.3 Scm2 mol–1
CH 3
78. In a container 96g O2 and 2g-atom He is present.
CH 3 CH 3 If total pressure of gaseous mixture is 25 atm, then
Br
(1) and what will be partial pressure of He?
CH 3 CH 3 (1) 10 atm (2) 15 atm
Br (3) 21.43 atm (4) 3.57 atm
CH 3 CH 3 79. Which one of the following orders correctly represents
Br Br
the increasing acid strengths of the given acids ?
(2) and
CH 3 CH 3 (1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl
CH 3 CH 3 (2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
Br
(3) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(3) and
CH 3 (4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
CH 3
Br 80. Two gases A and B having the same volume
CH 3 CH 3

N
diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and
10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of
(4) and
Br CH 3 A is 49u. Molecular mass of B will be :-
CH 3
Br (1) 50.00 u (2) 12.25 u
72. Which of the following is least likely to behave
(3) 6.50 u (4) 25.00 u
as Lewis base ?
(1) H2 O
(3) BF 3
E (2) NH3
(4) OH–
81. When 20 litres of H 2 (g) is mixed with
11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P., the moles of
HCl (g) formed is equal to :-
73. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+
(1) 1 mol of HCl (g) (2) 2 mol of HCl (g)
LL
if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV :-
(1) +6.1 eV (2) –5.1 eV (3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
(3) –10.2 eV (4) +2.55 eV 82. How many stereoisomers does this molecule have
74. In which of the following molecule the central CH3CH=CHCH2CH(Br)CH3
3
atom does not have sp hybridization :- (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) SO3 (2) PCl4+ 83. For first order reaction t80% is 60 min. Calculate
(3) NH4+ (4) CH4 t1/2 :-
75. 2+
Be is isoelectronic with which of the following (1) 25.7 min (2) 22 min
A

ions ? (3) 20 min (4) 257 min

(1) H+ (2) Li+
84. 1 g of a protein polymer having molar mass
(3) Na+ (4) Mg2+
104 is present in 800 ml solution at 300K then
76. Which one is most reactive towards SN1reaction?
osmotic pressure is
(1) C6H5CH2Br
(2) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br [R = 0.080 L-atm/mol–K]:-
(3) C6H5CH(CH3)Br (1) 0.4 atm (2) 3 × 10–3 mm Hg
(4) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br (3) 2 × 10–4 atm (4) 3 × 10–3 atm
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 
85. Find concentration of [H +] after mixing of 91. Find out the value of w, s and p for a flaccid
15 mL, 0.1M H2 SO4 and 15ml 0.1M NaOH:- cell, if its OP is 10 bars :-
(1) 5 × 10–2 N (2) 10–7 N (1) w = zero, s = zero, p = zero
(3) 1 × 10–2 N (4) 2 × 10–2 N (2) w = –10, s = –10,p = zero
86. What will be the value of Ecell for reaction (3) w = –10, s = –5,w = 10
(4) w = –10, s = –10,p = –10
Mg(s)  2Ag   Mg 2  2Ag(s) 92. How many ATP, proton and electrons are respectively
(10 3 M) (0.02N)
required for the synthesis of ammonia by Rhizobium?
(1) 16, 4 and 4 (2) 32, 16 and 16
Given E 0cell is 3.17 V (3) 8, 4 and 4 (4) 8, 16 and 16
(1) 2.67 (2) 2.13 93. For thirty six molecules of acetyl CoA entering
the aerobic respiratory pathway, how many ATP
(3) 3.27 (4) 3.05
molecules are produced by substrate level
87. For the gas phase reaction, phosphorylation ?

PCl5(g)  PCl3(g)+Cl2(g) (1) 36 × 1 (2) 36 × 9
(3) 36 × 11 (4) 36 × 12
Which of the following conditions are correct ?
94. If egg of an organism has 20 pg of DNA in its

N
(1)H < 0 and S < 0 nucleus. How much DNA would a cell of same
(2) H > 0 and S < 0 organism have in diplotene (X), anaphase-II(Y)
and cytokinesis-II (Z) ?
(3) H = 0 and S < 0
(1) X = 40 pg, Y = 40 pg, Z = 20 pg

88.
ethanol
E
(4) H > 0 and S > 0
Consider the following reaction,
Re d P Br 2
 X alc. KOH
Y

(2) X = 80 pg,
(3) X = 20 pg,
(4) X = 80 pg,
Y = 40 pg, Z = 20 pg
Y = 80 pg, Z = 40 pg
Y = 80 pg, Z = 40 pg
 i H 2 SO 4 room temperature
  Z; 95. Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp in nucleoid and
LL
 ii H2 O, heat
the DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops
the product Z is :-
held by proteins. How many nucleosome are
(1) CH3CH2OH
present in nucleoid of E. coli.
(2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 (1) 2.3 × 104 (2) 4.6 × 103
(4) CH3 – CH2 – O – SO3H (3) 100 (4) Zero
89. Calculate the degree of ionization of 0.04 M HOCl 96. A wheat plant has two kinds of varieties one is
solution having ionization constant 0.25 × 10–4 :-
A

winter and other is spring variety. When a winter

(1) 0.025 (2) 0.25 variety is planted in spring would normally fail to
flower or produce mature grain within a span of a
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.055 flowering season it can be flowers due to:-
90. In a crystalline solid, X atoms occupy hcp and half (1) Varnalisation
of tetrahedral voids are occupied by Y atoms. Then (2) Photoperiodism
the empirical formula of crystalline solid is :-
(3) Dedifferentiation
(1) X 2 Y (2) XY2 (3) X4 Y (4) XY
(4) Stratification
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 
97. Read the following statements carefully and find
correct option ?
(A) Potato spindle tuber disease caused by
nematode
(B) Englenoids are photosynthetic in presence of
sunlight when deprived of sunlight they
behave like heterotrophs.
(C) Cladonia is used for making litmus paper ?
(D) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents
a rank or catagory.
(1) A, B, C and D are correct
(2) C, B and D are correct
(3) Only B and D are correct
(4) Only A is correct
98. All given process are involved in global warming
controlling except :-
N
(1) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel
(2) Improving efficiency of energy usage.
(3) Increased deforestation
(4) Slowing growth of human population
99.
E
Which one is an example of commensalism
(1) Fungi & Roots of higher plants
(2) Penicillium & Staphylococcus
LL
(3) Cattle egret & grazing cattle
(4) Hermit crab & sea Anaemone
100. If the base sequence in m-RNA is
AUGCACAUUGCU, then what would be the
sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA :-
(1) UCG UUA CAC GUA
(2) ATG CAC ATT GCT
A
(3) GCT ATT CAC ATG
(4) TAC GTG TAA CGA
101. An athlete stroke volume permanently increases
upto 100 ml. During resting stage in this athlete
the heart beat rate is (per minute)
(1) 72 (2) 100
(3) 70 (4) 50
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102. A tissue is receiving 1000 ml oxygenated blood
per minute under normal physilogical condition
how much O 2 delivered to the tissue and how
much CO2 released into blood from tissue.
(1) 50 ml O2 , 50 ml CO2
(2) 50 ml O2 and 40 ml CO2
(3) 40 ml O2 and 50 ml CO2
(4) 150 ml O2 and 40 ml CO2
103. Calculate the value of filtration fraction if kidney
are receiving 1000 ml blood per minute and 100
ml filtrate is formed (per minute)
(1) 10.2% (2) 15.5%
(3) 18.18% (4) 20.2%
104. The total number of polypeptide chains and
paratopes in single molecule of IgM is/are
(1) 10 and 10 respectively
(2) 20 and 10 respectively
(3) 21 and 10 respectively
(4) 20 and 20 respectively
105. Total number of monophyodont teeth present in
a 6 year old boy is :-
(1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) Zero
106. Enzymes, catalysing the transfer of hydrogen,
are classified under which of the following
classes?
(1) Transferases
(2) Lyases
(3) Ligases
(4) Oxidoreductases
107. Enzyme, which catalyze the breakdown of
hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, contains
which of the following cofactors ?
(1) Haem as a prosthetic group
(2) Niacin as a coenzyme
(3) Zinc as a metal ion
(4) Haem as a coenzyme
Mock Test
 
108. Both the transport methods of which of the 115. Choose the incorrect match from following :-
following sets show highly selective nature ? (1) Phycomycetes – Albugo
(1) Simple diffusion and osmosis (2) Ascomycetes – Agaricus
(2) Facilitated transport and active transport
(3) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago
(3) Active transport and simple diffusion
(4) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderma
(4) Simple diffusion and facilitated transport
116. Red algae differ from the green algae in having:-
109. Which of the following micronutrients is essential
for the water splitting reaction in photosynthesis (1) Chlorophyll 'a'
and also helps in anion-cation balance in cells ? (2) Haemoglobin with in their cells
(1) Molybdenum (2) Manganese (3) Aquatic nature
(3) Chlorine (4) Magnesium (4) No motile stage present in their life cycle
110. In Hatch and Slack pathway primary CO2 acceptor 117. Panthera leo, Panthera pardus and Panthera tigris
and primary CO2 fixation product have how many represent :-
carbons respectively ? (1) They all are member of same species
(1) Five and four (2) Four and three (2) They all are species of different genus
(3) Three and four (4) Four and five
(3) They all are species of same genus
111. In tricarboxylic acid cycle isomerisation of citrate
(4) Panthera is a name of species while leo, pardus

N
is followed by how many decarboxylation(s)
and tigris represent variety
for the formation of -ketoglutaric acid ?
118. Which is used as packing material for trans-
(1) Two (2) Three
shipment of living material :-
(3) Four (4) One
(1) Salaginella (2) Funaria
E
112. Which of the following plant growth regulators
increases the yield in cucumbers ?
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene
(3) Sphagnum (4) Cycas
119. Both the words in a biological name when handwritten
are underlined, or printed in italics to indicate :-
(3) Gibberellin (4) Cytokinin (1) The are endangered
LL
113. Which of the following option is correct about (2) They are living
bacterial pili :- (3) Their latin origin
(1) They play an important role in movement (4) Now they are extinct
(2) They made up of protein which are contractile 120. Which of the following is correctly matched in
in nature given table :-
(3) They help in protection Variety Crop Resistance to
(4) They help in genetic recombination disease
114. Read the following pairs.
A

(1) Pusa shubhra Cow pea White rust

(A) Diatoms - haploid body
(B) Dinoflagellatus - cause water bloom
(2) Pusa Chilli Tobacco
(C) Slime mould - decomposer nature
sadabahar mosaic virus
(D) Euglenoids - some time behave like predator
(E) Protozoans - unicellular prokaryotes. (3) Pusa komal Brassica Bacterial
Choose the correct pair :- blight
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E (4) Pusa swarnim Cauliflower Curl blight
(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D, E black rot
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 
121. Consider the following four (a-d) and select the 124. Which of the following is correctly matched in the
option which includes all the incorrect ones only:- given table :-
(a) Scientists have succeeded in culturing virus
free banana, sugarcane and potato through
embryo culture
(b) The capacity to generate a whole plant from
Microbes Product Application
any cell is called totipotency
(c) Single cell protein is an alternate sources of (1) Monascus Cyclosporin Immuno
proteins for animal and human nutrition but its purpurea A supressive drug
utilisation increases environmental pollution (2) Saccharomyces Ethanol Production of
(d) The method of producing thousands of plants cerevisiae whisky, brandy
through tissue culture is called vegetative and rum
propagation
(3) Methano Biogas Reduces BOD
Options :- bacterium of effluent
(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Statement (b) only (4) Aspergillus Acetic acid Lowering of
niger blood cholesterol
(3) Statement (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
122. A type of structure of protein which is an assembly

N
of more than one polypeptide or subunits and 125. Which of the following is wrong about
these subunits are arranged with respect to each
Bt-cotton?
other in the form of a cube or plate-
(1) The Bt-toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins
(1) Secondary structure (2) Primary structure
but once as insect ingest the inactive toxin, it
E
(3) Tertiary structure (4) Quaternary structure
123. Which one of the following structural formulae of
two organic compounds is correctly identified
along with its related function ?
is converted into an active form of toxin due
to the alkaline pH of the gut

(2) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac

LL
O and cry II Ab control the corn borer
O
HO–P–OCH 2 O Adenine O CH2–O–C–R (3) Bt-toxin gene expressed in Bt-cotton plants to
R 2–C–O–CH O provide resistance to insects without the need
OH
CH2 –O–P–O–CH2–CH2 for insecticides
OH N+
OH OH CH3 CH3 (4) It is a genetically modified organism
(A) CH3
(B)
A

126. Select the correct match :-

(1) B : Cephalin - form bimolecular layer in cell (1) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty - Vicia faba
membrane
(2) A : Adenylic acid - a component of genetic (2) Meselson and Stahl - E.coli
material (3) Hershey and Chase - Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(3) B : Glycolipid - sensory receptor for, smell,
taste and hormone (4) Nirenberg, Matthaei and Khorana -
(4) A : Serine - semi-essential amino acid Streptococcus pneumoniae
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127. Choose correct one :-
(1) A  Nucleosome,
C  Histone octamer
(2) A  DNA,
C  Histone octamer
(3) A  H1 histone,
C  DNA
(4) A  Histone octamer, B  DNA,
C  Nucleosome
128. All of the following are part of a transcription unit

130. Which one of the following scientist was not
included in the list of rediscoverer of Mendelism
in 1900 :-
A
(1) Correns (2) Von Tschermak
B (3) Sutton (4) de Vries
131. How many trubreeding varieties were selected
C finally by Mendel in Pisum sativum for the
hybridisation experiment :-
(1) Thirty two (2) Twenty two
(3) Fourteen (4) Seven
B  H1 histone,
132. Find the incorrect match related to mouth parts of
cockroach :-
B  H1 histone, (1) Mandibles  1 pair
(2) Maxillae  1 pair
B  Histone octamer, (3) Labrum  single
(4) Labium  1 pair
133. Match the following columns and choose the
correct answer :-

N
except :-
(1) Promoter (2) Terminator Column-I Column-II
(3) Operator (4) Coding strand
(A) Mule (i) Out-crossing
129. Match the items given in column I with those in

Column-I
E
column II and select the correct option given below:-

Column-II
(B)

(C)
Hisardale

To overcome
(ii)

(iii)
Cross breed

Interspecific
inbreeding depression hybrid
LL
(a) Monohybrid (i) Phenotypic ratio of F2
cross generation is 1:2:1 (D) Apiculture (iv) Apis indica

(b) Reciprocal (ii) Phenotypic ratio of F2

cross generation is 3:1 (1) A-iii, B - i, C-ii, D-iv
(c) Test cross (iii) Change in result of (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
cytoplasmic (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
inheritance (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, C-iv
A

(d) Incomplete (iv) A cross help to find 134. Find the odd one related to viviparity :-
dominance out the genotype of (1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Camelus
dominant trait of a (3) Canis (4) Equus
character 135. Agnatha is represented by the which class ?
(1) Cyclostomata (2) Amphibia
(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (3) Aves (4) Reptilia
(2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(ii) 136. All of the following reptiles are poisonous except-
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) (1) Naja (2) Vipera
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (3) Bangarus (4) Hemidactylus
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 
137. Find the incorrect match :- 145. Which of the following are structural features of
(1) Gorgonia - Sea fan ecosystem ?
(2) Fasciola - Liver fluke (1) Productivity, decomposition
(3) Balanoglossus  Tusk shell (2) Energy flow, nutrient recycling
(4) Pterophyllum  Angel fish (3) Productivity, energy flow
138. Alternate and opposite type of phyllotaxy is (4) Species composition, stratification
respectively present in :- 146. In aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem which food chain
(1) China rose, Calotropis is major conduit for energy flow respectively ?
(2) Guava, Alstonia (1) GFC, DFC (2) DFC, GFC
(3) Mustard, Sunflower (3) GFC, PFC (4) PFC, DFC
147. Which of the following has greater species diversity?
(4) Calotropis, Guava
(1) Insects (2) Fungi
139. Bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, bilocular,
(3) Fishes (4) Angiosperms
placenta swollen with many ovules is a character of:-
148. Which of the following is not used as a catalyst
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
in catalytic converter ?
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Fabaceae
(1) Platinum (2) Palladium
140. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo (3) Radon (4) Rhodium
is represented by :- 149. Which is the most effective solution for treatment
(1) Coleorhiza (2) Coleoptile of e-wastes ?

N
(3) Scutellum (4) Epiblast (1) Recycling (2) Incineration
141. In which type of ovule, embryosac becomes horse (3) Sanitary land fills (4) All of these
shoe shape ? 150. Which of the following illustrates an example of
(1) Orthotropous (2) Amphitropous inter kingdom interaction ?
(3) Anatropous (4) Circinotropous (1) An actinomycetes secreting antibiotic that kills
E
142. Which of the monocot character, shown by
flowers of Liliaceae ?
(1) Ovary inferior
nearby bacteria
(2) An epiphyte growing on branch of tree
(3) Lichen
(2) Unisexual flower (4) Hermit crab carrying sea anemone to distant
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(3) Trimerous flower locations
(4) Zygomorphic 151. High dose of .............. causes inflammation of
143. Which of the following is absent in most of cornea and snow blindness :-
monocots ? (1) UV-A (2) UV-B
(1) Sieve tube (3) UV-C (4) X-rays
(2) Companion cell 152. Kazhiranga national park is famous for which
(3) Phloem parenchyma species :-
(1) Elephant (2) Rhinoceros
A

(4) Phloem fibre

(3) Great indian bustard(4) White tiger
144. Which statement is incorrect regarding function of
153. Choose the property which not found in unicellular
predator :-
organisms :-
(1) Predators act as conduits for energy transfer
(1) Cellular respiration (2) Cellular digestion
across trophic level (3) Locomotion (4) Differentiation
(2) Predators over exploit their prey 154. Which one structure is not found in cytoplasm of
(3) Predators keep prey population under control onion cell :-
(4) Predators maintain species diversity in a (1) Nucleus (2) Vacuole
community (3) Peroxysome (4) ds-circular DNA
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 
155. Which one option is incorrect for M-phase:- 161. Human kidneys produce urine which is how much
(1) Cell metabolicaly active times concentrated than the initial filtrate:-
(2) Cell dividing (1) Two times (2) Four times
(3) Amount of DNA in chromosomes double but (3) 10 times (4) 15 times
not controll the cellular activities 162. Blood proteins primarly involved in defense
(4) Nuclear envelope reform mechanisms of the body and help in osmotic
balance are :-
156. Nucleoplasm contains ....A.... and ....B.... .
(1) Prothrombin and heparin
Choose the correct option for A and B :-
(2) Heparin and globulin
(1) A-nucleolus, B-70s ribosomes (3) Globulin and fibrinogen
(2) A-nucleolus, B-ds circular DNA (4) Globulin and albumin
(3) A-site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis, 163. Match the following columns :-
B-decondensed form of chromosome
Column-I Column-II
(4) A-chromatin, B-70 s ribosome
157. Find the odd one related to function of estrogen a Single circuit circulation i Amphibians
in female :-
(1) Mammary gland development b Double circuit circulation ii Fishes
(2) Development and maintenance of secondary

N
sex characters c Incomplete double circuit iii Birds
(3) Female sexual behaviour circulation
(4) Elongation and thickening of vocal cord fibres (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
158. Nissl's granules present in :- (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
164. Each molecule has four polypeptide chains, two small
(1) Cell body only
(2) Axon only
(3) Dendrites only
E called light chains and two longer called heavy chains
(represented as H2L2). Which of the following is not
directly related to above described molecule :-
(4) Cell body and dendrites both
(1) Antibody mediated immunity (AMI)
LL
159. Hind brain includes :- (2) Army of proteins produced by B-cell
(1) Pons and corpora quadrigemina (3) It gives antigenic stimulation
(2) Pons and cerebellum only (4) Present in blood
(3) Cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata 165. Drug can be used to prevent the graft rejection is
(4) Cerebrum, pons and medulla oblongata obtained from :-
160. Match following organisms with their excretory (1) Papaver somniferum
structures :- (2) Trichophyton
A

(3) Claviceps purpuria

a Neries i Flame cells (4) Trichoderma polysporum
b Cockroach ii Antennal glands 166. How many statements are correct for spleen :-
(a) Large bean shaped organ
c Prawn iii Malpighian tubules (b) Acts as a filter of bile
d Planaria iv Nephridia (c) It contains macrophage and lymphocyte
(d) Primary lymphoid organ
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (1) One (2) Two
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (3) Three (4) Four
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 
172. Which contraceptive technique does not make
uterus unsuitable for implantation :-
(1) IUD (2) SAHELI
(3) Femidom (4) All of the above
167. 173. Ejaculatory ducts open into :-
(1) Prostatic urethra (2) Membranous urethra
(3) Urinary bladder (4) Penile urethra
(A) (B) 174. Find the incorrect related to Java man :-
Choose the correct option about given above (1) Fossils discovered in Java in 1891
diagram :- (2) Cranial capacity was around 900 cc
(A) (B) (3) Homo erectus is scientific name
(1) Datura Morphine (4) Java man essentially ate fruit
(2) Morphine Datura 175. Mammals evolved from :-
(3) Hallucinogen Depressant (1) Sauropsids reptile (2) Synapsids reptile
(4) Morphine Opium poppy (3) Anapsids reptile (4) Diapsids reptile
168. Trypsinogen is activated by :- 176. First amphibians evolved from :-
(1) Enterokinase (2) HCl (1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Lobefins
(3) Bile (4) Cl – ions (3) Pteranodon (4) Triceratops

N
169. In which disorder, alveolar walls are damaged due 177. During muscle contraction in humans the :-
to which respiratory surface is decreased? (1) Actin filaments shorten
(1) Asthma (2) Sarcomere does not shorten
(2) Bronchitis (3) A-band does not retain length
(3) Emphysema (4) H and I bands shorten
E
(4) Occupational respiratory disease
170. Which of the following is the correct match of
respiratory capacities :-
178. Match the following columns :-
Column-A
(i) Cervical
Column-B
(a) 1
(ii) Thoracic (b) 5
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a IC i ERV + RV (iii) Lumbar (c) 12
(iv) Sacral (d) 7
b EC ii ERV +TV
(v) Coccygeal
a b c d
c FRC iii ERV+TV+IRV
(1) iv, v iii ii i
(2) i ii iii iv, v
d VC iv TV + IRV
(3) iv, v ii iii i
A

Options :- (4) iv, v iii i ii

(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 179. Which of the following tissue are present beneath
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii the skin ?
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (1) Areolar and tendon (2) Adipose and tendons
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (3) Areolar and ligaments(4) Areolar and adipose
171. Which hormone is absent in pre-ovulatory phase 180. In which part of the mammalian ear, the nerve
in human female ? impulse for hearing starts ?
(1) Estrogen (2) Inhibin (1) Eardrum (2) Ear ossicles
(3) FSH (4) Progesterone (3) Cochlea (4) Auditory nerve
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 

Read carefully the following instructions :    

: 
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. 
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. 
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. 
 
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 
3. The candidates should not leave the 
3. 
Examination Hall without handing over their 
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is 4.     
prohibited. 
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5.    
Regulations of the examination with regard to 
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per

Rules and Regulations of this examination. 

N
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. 
shall be detached under any circumstances.  
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. 

and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer 
Sheet.
E
LL
A

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.


Correction 
Paper code  
Form No.  
2
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