SP SBMPTN 2015 Ipa

Super Intensive SBM-PTN SoalPengantar English
E1 - INTRODUCTION TO READING
COMPREHENSION
The following text is for number 1 to 5.
Green plants use light to transform carbon dioxide, absorbed from the atmosphere, and water into
organic compounds, with oxygen as a by-product. The process is called photosynthesis, and it enables
forests like Ulu Masen, Aceh Jaya, to play a critical role in regulating our climate.
Forests store an estimated 300 billion tons of carbon, or the equivalent of 40 times the world’s total
annual greenhouse-gas emissions – emission that cause global warming. Destroy the trees and you release
that carbon into the atmosphere, putting the great challenge of our age – averting catastrophic climate
change – beyond reach. Forest destruction accounts for 15 % of global emissions by human activity, far
outranking the total from vehicles and aircraft combined.
Forests are disappearing so fast in Indonesia that, incredibly, this developing country ranks third in
emissions behind industrial giants China and the U.S. Since 1950, estimates Greenpeace more than 182
million acres (740.000 sq km) of Indonesian forests, the equivalent of more than 95 Ulu Masen, have been
destroyed or degraded.
The good news is that protecting forests “is one of the easiest and cheapest ways to take a big bite
out of the apple when it comes to emissions,” says Greenpeace spokesman Daniel Kessler. Ulu Masen will be
one of the first forests to be protected under a pioneering U.N. program called REDD – Reducing Emissions
from Deforestation and Forest Degradation in Developing Country – that offers a powerful financial incentive
to keep forests intact.
(Sumber : SNMPTN 2012)
1. Inthe passage the author clearly tries to…

A. Show roles of forests in climate regulation.
B. Describe needs for forestation projects.
C. Argue for vast damage of Indonesian
forests.
D. Link forests and current changes of world
climate.
E. Explain the amount of greenhouse gas
emissions.
2. Which of the following best describes the link

between paragraph 3 and 4?
A. Cases-explain
B. Explanation-solution
C. Challenges-explanation
D. Problems-solution
E. Issues-example
3. What does the word ‘it’ in “… and it enables

forests like Ulu Masen to play a critical role …”
(paragraph 1 line 2) refer to?
A. Water
B. Oxygen
C. By-product
D. Carbon dioxide
E. Photosynthesis
BT/BS BIMAFIKA “WAHANA KAWULA MUDA MENITI CITA”

4. Which of the following can Indonesia do to

reduce carbon dioxide emissions?
A. Improving human settlement quality near
the forests
B. Programming a flora conservation project
like REDD
C. Integrating agricultural into forestations
programs
D. Adopting strategies used in greening Ulu
Masen
E. Minimizing degradation and deforestation
5. The author’s view regarding reducing

greenhouse-gas emissions is that…
A. awareness raising is necessary.
B. massive funding is unavoidable.
C. keeping forests green is a key.
D. fauna conservation is critical.
E. deforestation is vital.
Everyone likes to group things. Language students group words as verb, nouns and so on;
collections of words are classified as phrases, or clauses, or sentences, and these again are reclassified
according to their function. In the same way, botanists classify plants as algae, or fungi, or gymnosperms,
etc. Zoologists classify animals as vertebrates and invertebrates. The vertebrates can be further classified as
mammals, reptiles, birds, fish, etc. Classification enables us to keep hold of more information and, if it is
based on the right data, enables us to understand better the ideas we are studying.
Chemists are no exception. The chemical classification of materials, if it is based on a good system,
should enable us to understand better the many substances which exist in our world. What is to be the basis
of our classification? Perhaps the most obvious one is appearance. Materials could be classified as solid,
liquid or gas with some mixed types as, for example, mud being solid/liquid material and steam a liquid/gas
material. Appearance could enable us to subdivide our main classification groups a little further; solid may
be green, or black, powdery or crystalline; the liquid may be colored, oily, thick, or free flowing; the gas may
be colored. However, we soon realize that many probably quite different materials have the same
appearance. Both air and the deadly carbon-monoxide gas are colorless, odorless gases, but we would not
like to group them as the same thing. Many different liquids are colorless, water-like materials.
6. The examples provided in paragraph 2 clarify

that…
A. Many kinds of liquid should be grouped as
one.
B. Different kinds of gas can be colorless and
odorless.
C. Materials in chemistry should be classified
differently.
D. Chemistry materials have more complicated
classification.
E. Taxonomy can be made and applied further
to other areas.
7. Paragraph 2 exemplifies the idea about

classification that…
A. Chemical may be solid, liquid, and gaseous.

B. Appearance is not a useful basis in
chemistry.
C. The use of colors is better than that of
appearance.
D. Both colors and appearance should be
considered.
E. Colors should be included for identifying
appearance.
8. The sentences “Chemists are no exception”

(Paragraph 2 line 1) could possibly be restated
as…
A. Chemical materials can also be put into
classification.
B. Classification of chemical materials is
without exception.
C. Chemists may also classify materials using
certain criteria.
D. When appearance is the basis, chemists are
not involved.
E. In material classification, chemicals should
not be included.
9. The paragraph following the passage most

likely deals with the classification of…
A. Flora and fauna.
B. Human sounds.
C. Liquids and gases.
D. Human behaviors.
E. Words and phrases.
10. How does the author organize the ideas?

A. Putting the main idea with examples
B. Presenting causes followed by effects
C. Interpreting different ways of classification
D. Presenting the strengths of the main idea
E. Exposing supporting details chronologically
Passage A
Thomas Jefferson could do many things. As a young man, he was a farmer and a lawyer in Virginia.
He was also a scientist, an inventor, a philosopher, and an architect. He designed his own home, called
Monticello. He could communicate in French, Italian, Spanish, Latin, and Greek.
Many of Jefferson’s ideas became basic principles of the government of the United States. For
example, he believed that “all men are created equal”. That is we are born the same and should receive the
same treatment under the law. He also said that power must come from “the consent of the governed” (the
voters, not the leaders). He wanted free elections, a free press, and free speech.
Thomas Jefferson held many important government jobs. He was ambassador to France, Secretary
of State (under George Washington), Vice President (under John Adams), and the third President of the
United States, from 1801 to 1809. As President, Jefferson bought the huge Louisiana territory for the United
States from France. However, he was killed on April 1865 by a well-known actor and Confederate
sympathizer, John Wilkes Booth at Ford’s Theater in Washington D.C.

Passage B
John F. Kennedy was President for only three years, from 1961 to 1963, but his personality and
ideas changed America. He was both the first Roman Catholic and the youngest President in the history of
the country. He set clear goals for America. For example, he promised that the United States would land a
man on the moon before 1970.
Kennedy supported the ideas of Martin Luther King, Jr. and fought for civil rights, fair housing, and
program to stop poverty. He asked Congress for more money for education and medical care for elderly
people.
Kennedy was against Communism. For example, when the Soviet Union put missiles in Cuba, he
sent US ships to surround the island. But he believed that the best way to fight Communism was not by
sending armies but attacking poverty and injustice. He started the Peace Corps and sent Americans to over
sixty countries in Africa, Asia, and South America. These young volunteer worked and lived with the people,
built schools, and taught farmers more modern methods. Kennedy was a man for the future. He worked to
stop the testing of nuclear weapons. But on November 22, 1963, he was assassinated.
11. The topic discussed in both passage is…

A. Great deeds done by two presidents of
the US.
B. The two brilliant and charismatic US
presidents.
C. The risk of getting killed for being a US
president.
D. Intentions of two men to become the US
presidents.
E. Efforts of US presidents to fight against
Communism.
12. The statement about Jefferson and Kennedy

is true in that they both…
A. Had development program for their
country.
B. Both similar ideas on uniting their
country.
C. Tried hard to fight poverty in their
country.
D. Served short periods in their presidency.
E. Experienced a joyous end of their lives.
13. Both passages are similar in that they…

A. Show the struggles to become the US
presidents
B. Put forward arguments against human
inequality.
C. Present similar leadership of the two
presidents
D. Give an illustration of the life of a
president.
E. Describe two important leaders in the
US.
14. The best summary for both passages is that

Jefferson…
A. And Kennedy got similar job before going
to White Housing.
B. Was a man of the past; Kennedy was a
man of the future.

C. Sent a man on the moon; Kennedy
threatened Cuba
D. Promoted human right; Kennedy
attacked poverty.
E. And Kennedy came from an ordinary
family.
15. If Kennedy were still the US president today,

he would…
A. Attack countries like China, Russia and
Cuba.
B. Buy some territories like what Jefferson
did.
C. Develop the nuclear weapons more
rapidly.
D. Fight poverty in many parts of the
world.
E. To stop sent more army Communism.

E2 –DETAILED QUESTION
We have all seen how our weather patterns are changing everywhere. Severe droughts are
becoming the norm. It can be traced by the way we have changed our life-style. Let’s look at an example of
how our desire for the now famous American hamburger has affected the fish in the Arctic Ocean. It is hard
to conceive that they are related, but the following should point out how all 4.5 billion people on this planet
are being affected.
In North America, fast food chains are very popular. The rest of the world, unfortunately, is
following their example. Because the demand for hamburgers is so great, the American farmers cannot
produce enough animal to use for these hamburgers so a deal was struck with the farmers in Central and
South America to develop large ranches to graze cattle, slaughter them and export them back to North
America. In order to get the available land rain forests are being destroyed. Cattle ranchers are burning
nearly one million acres of forest per day. One thirds of Costa Rica has been turned over to cattle raising.
Rain forests are the lung of the planet. They supply valuable oxygen, prevent floods, and moderate climate.
They recycle and purify our water. Most important of all they are home to thousands of migratory
birds which return to these forests from North America and Canada to their winter home. Yet when they
arrive, their home is destroyed and they ultimately die. Every year approximately 1,000 of these species are
becoming extinct. These birds do not fly back to the United States and Canada to control the insects, thus
the balance of our ecosystem is upset. But the governments work on an alternate plan to control the insects.
They sanction and approve the production of more and more chemicals. And where do these chemicals go?
They go into the land and ultimately the water ways. Fish are being found in the Arctic and Antarctic Oceans
containing chemicals that have been used to control these insects. Fish are like magnets; they have an
innate ability to attract these chemicals.
1. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the text?

A. To show that rain forest can purify our
water
B. To inform that fish can attract dangerous
chemicals
C. To describe the popularity of hamburger in
America
D. To give examples of the extinction of
certain animal species
E. To argue for the troubled ecosystem due to
food consumption
2. Paragraph 1 is related with paragraph 2 in that

the former deals with…
A. The change of forests for cattle raising,
the latter the balance of our ecosystem.
B. Production of more chemicals, the latter
fish ability to act like magnets.
C. Winter home of migratory birds, the latter
their ability to control insects.
D. The change of our life style; the latter its
impacts on weather patterns.
E. The development of food chain, the latter
the function of rain forests.
3. The word “they” in “They recycle and purify

our water.” (paragraph 3, line 1) refers to…
A. migratory birds

B. rain forests
C. chemicals
D. insects
E. floods
4. Which of the following statements relevant to

the information in paragraph 3?
A. Insects disturb the balance of ecosystem.
B. The home of migratory birds is recycled.
C. Human lifestyle affects the ecosystem.
D. Fish in the oceans can purify waters.
E. Many birds die in their winter home.
5. What is the tone of the text?

A. concerned
B. pessimistic
C. humorous
D. emotional
E. cynical

Passage A
Hot yoga refers to yoga practiced in a heated environment, with the room temperature generally
reaching 90 to 105 degrees. The theory behind it is that hot yoga helps the body to sweat out toxins while
allowing the practitioner to safely achieve deeper poses.
While the practice can offer health benefits and a sense of well-being, people practicing hot yoga,
especially beginners, should take certain precautions, according to Diana Zotos, a certified yoga instructor
and physical therapist in the Rehabilitation Department at Hospital for Special Surgery in Manhattan.
“Yoga of any type is physically challenging, and the heated environment of hot yoga makes the
practice especially demanding,” Zotos says “The heat makes people feel as if they can stretch deeper into
poses and can give them a false sense or flexibility. This can lead to muscle strains or damage to the joint,
including ligaments and cartilage.”
Passage B
Rose Parkes, a British Wheel of Yoga Teacher, is assessing the role of yoga in prisons as part of her
PhD at the University of Leicester Department of criminology. In her research, she discusses the way in
which spiritual activities can empower and motivate prisoners to survive their imprisonment. Rose is
investigating whether yoga enables individuals to adjust to the prison environment and post-prison life. She
believes that prisoners can benefit from yoga because it is a practice which helps to foster understanding,
self-acceptance, peace and wellbeing.
Working as a part-time Probation Officer, Rose witnessed the effectiveness of the technique at
forming positive relationships with other offenders, prompting the study to ascertain whether yoga can help
people cope with incarceration. She added: “Prisons are highly stressful environments and yoga may offer
prisoners a much needed physical and mental release of the tension of prison life, paradoxically turning
prison cells into places of retreat, where prisoners can develop self-discipline and concentration skills.”
6. Which of the following themes is mainly

discussed in both passages?
A. The dangers of yoga
B. The effect of yoga
C. Yoga certificates
D. Yoga in prisons
E. Hot yoga

7. Which of the following statements are true

according to both passages?
A. Yoga instructors must warn people to be
careful.
B. Prisoners enjoy practicing yoga regularly.
C. Yoga poses can lead to muscle injury.
D. Practicing yoga might be quite tiring.
E. Yoga helps people in various ways.
8. Unlike Passage B, Passage A…

A. Explains the need for a certified yoga
instructor.
B. Illustrates yoga as a gentle from of
exercise.
C. Shows the danger of yoga for beginners.
D. Reveals the impacts of practicing yoga.
E. Contradicts the benefits of hot yoga.
9. Which of the following statements is the best

summary of both passages?
A. People from various backgrounds can
practice yoga of all types
B. Yoga instructor need to socialite the power
of yoga to society
C. Hot yoga is highly recommended for
prisoners post prison-life
D. Precautions are necessary for yoga
beginner and prisoners
E. Yoga has numerous physical and
psychological benefits
10. It can be predicted that if yoga is…

A. Provided with a certified instructor, it will
be save for prisoners
B. Well socialized, it will become popular
among senior citizens
C. Practiced properly, people will live healthily
and peacefully
D. Allowed, levels of violence in prisons can
fully decrease
E. Practically simple, it will be attractive to
everyone
If you want to farm green, two decisions about how you grow your crops are likely to have the biggest
impact on achieving your goal - how much tillage you use and how well you manage nitrogen.
Although there probably are hundreds - or thousands – of other decisions, practices and technologies
that can contribute to a green farming system, these two factors alone can come close to eliminating your
cropping system’s global warming footprint. At the same time, you will also reduce your operation impact on
soil and water erosion, as well as surface and groundwater degradation from fertilizers and other agricultural
inputs. You may also be able to turn this environmental stewardship into extra cash by selling carbon credits
associated with no-till.
This surprising finding – that intensive crop production practices in use today can be nearly carbon
neutral – is emerging from research on both greenhouse gas production and greenhouse gas capture
associated with production of annual crops.

The research shows that basic crop management decisions to reduce tillage and use nitrogen more
efficiently can cut a farming operation’s impact on global warming gases by 90% or more. In a best-case
scenario, which would include no-till, these everyday practices come close to zeroing out a farming
operation’s greenhouse gas footprint.
11. Which of the following best expresses the

author’s intention in writing the passage?
A. Arguing of the importance of tillage and
nitrogen control
B. Informing the fact green farming and global
warming
C. Describing eco-friendly strategies of crops
production
D. Exposing the importance of a simple green
farming
E. Proposing an innovative approach to green
farming
12. What is the relation between paragraph 3 and

the previous paragraph?
A. Paragraph 1 and paragraph 2 support
strongly paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 3 provides academic support for
paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3 provides example for
paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 2 provides details for paragraph
3
E. Paragraph 2 provides facts for paragraph 3
13. The phrase “… these two factors …” in ‘…

these two factors alone can come …’
(paragraph 2 line 2) refers to…
A. Surface and groundwater.
B. Practices and technologies.
C. Fertilizers and agricultural input.
D. Use of tillage and nitrogen management.
E. Global warming footprint and farming
impact.
14. A farmer who understands the impact of

global warming caused by conventional
farming will do the following, except…
A. To avoid using groundwater chemical
pollutant.
B. To rely eco-friendly farming methods.
C. To rely on nitrogen-rich fertilizers.
D. To do green farming.
E. To decrease tillage.
15. The author believes that tillage use and

nitrogen management can help farmers…
A. Decrease operational cost.
B. Use fertilizers more effectively
C. Increase sharply financial benefits.

D. Release carbon to atmosphere.
E. Reduce greenhouse gas production.

E3 – TRANSITION QUESTION
The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater
earthquakes, you must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that the
lithosphere, or top layer of the Earth, is made up of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the
continents and seafloor. They rest on an underlying viscous layer called the asthenosphere.
Think of a pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot, sticky pie filling
underneath would be the asthenosphere. On the Earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along
each other at a speed of 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along
fault lines (where the pie is cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism, which,
when they occur at the bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis.
When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip
under a lighter one. This is called subduction. Underwater subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in
the form of deep ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor
connected to the lighter plate may “snap up” suddenly due to pressure from the sinking plate. This results in
an earthquake. The focus of the earthquake is the point within the Earth where the rupture first occurs,
rocks break and the first seismic waves are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly
above the focus.
When this piece of the plates snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force,
the energy of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea
level. This is the birth of a tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the
Indian Ocean was a 9.0 on the Richter --- one of the biggest in recorded history.
1. Which of the following best states the topic of

this text?
A. The birth of a tsunami
B. The magnitude of tsunamis
C. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean
D. Series of huge plates on earth
E. Lithosphere and asthenosphere
2. The main idea of this text is that …

A. Deep ocean trench is a result of an
earthquake
B. The energy of subduction can lead to
earthquakes
C. Plate tectonics lead to an earthquake and
volcanism
D. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean are the
biggest in the history
E. Strong movements of undersea fault lines
cause tsunamis
3. Implied in the text is that the earthquake will

never occur when …
A. The subduction is evidenced
B. Seismic waves are generated
C. No fault line of plate tectonics happens
D. Heavier plates and lighter ones break up
E. Ocean trenches lie along the seashore

4. Which of the following natural disasters

happening in Indonesia related to the fault
movement of plate tectonic?
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. Soil erosion
C. Forest fires
D. Landslides
E. Floods
5. The following information is true about

tsunamis mentioned in the text, EXCEPT that
tsunamis are …
A. Predictable following any incidence of
earthquakes
B. Close to the rise of sea levels from the
sinking plate
C. Connected to deep ocean trenches along
sea floors
D. Related to strong movements of plate
tectonics
E. Highly linked to underwater earthquakes
A Spanish researcher and a Paraguayan scientist have presented the most complete and detailed
European study into the repertoire of sounds used by bottlenose dolphins (Tursiops truncates) to
communicate. The study reveals the complexity and our lack of understanding about the communication of
these marine mammals.
Until now, the scientific community had thought that whistles were the main sounds made by these
mammals, and were unaware of the importance and use of burst-pulsed sounds. Researchers from the
Bottlenose Dolphin Research Institute (BDRI), based in Sardinia (Italy) have now shown that these sounds
are vital to the animals’ social life and mirror their behavior.
“Burst-pulsed sounds are used in the life of bottlenose dolphins to socialize and maintain their position
in the social hierarchy in order to prevent physical conflict, and this also represents a significant energy
saving,” Bruno Diaz, lead author of the study and a researcher at the BDRI, which also manages, said.
According to the experts, the tonal whistle sounds (the most melodious ones) dolphins to stay in
contact with each other (above all mothers and offspring), and to coordinate hunting strategies. The burst-
pulsed sounds (which are more complex and varied than the whistles) are used “to avoid physical
aggression in situations of high excitement, such as when they are competing for the same piece of food, for
example,” explains Diaz. According to Diaz, bottlenose dolphins make longer burst-pulsed sounds when they
are hunting and at times of high aggression: “These are what can be heard best and over the longest period
of time,” and make it possible for each individual to maintain its position in the hierarchy.
The dolphins emit these strident sounds when in the presence of other individuals moving towards the
same prey. The “least dominant” one soon moves away in order to avoid confrontation. “The surprising
thing about these sounds is that they have a high level of uni-directionality, unlike human sounds. One
dolphin can send a sound to another that it sees as a competitor, and this one clearly knows it is being
addressed,” explains the Spanish scientist.
6. It can be inferred from the text that …

A. Producing burst-pulsed sounds requires a
lot of energy
B. Whistles are more complicated than burst-
pulsed sounds
C. Mother dolphins cannot make burst-pulsed

sounds
D. Bottlenose dolphins avoid physical frictions
E. Hierarchy is not vital for bottlenose dolphins
7. The word ‘these’ in “These are what can be

heard …” (paragraph 4 line 6) refers to …
A. Whistles
B. High aggressions
C. Hunting dolphins
D. Other individuals
E. Burst-pulsed sounds
8. The paragraph following the text most probably

discusses …
A. Dolphins’ most favorite preys
B. “Least dominant” dolphins’ eating habits
C. Another kind of sounds made by dolphins
D. The characteristics of burst-pulsed sounds
E. Hunting dolphins’ use of sounds to
communicate
9. In organizing ideas in the text the writer …

A. Lists reasons why scientists were unaware
of burst-pulsed sounds
B. Explains how different sounds are used by
bottlenose dolphins
C. Compares similarities between burst-pulsed
sounds with whistles
D. Describes the unique characteristics of
bottlenose dolphins
E. Presents examples of bottlenose dolphins’
sounds
10. Which of the following most likely restates the

gist of paragraph 2?
A. Bottlenose dolphins are effective
communicators
B. Burst-pulsed sounds are used by all kinds of
dolphins
C. Burst-pulsed sounds are vital for bottlenose
dolphins
D. Whistles and burst-pulsed sounds are
interchangeable
E. Whistles are vital for bottlenose dolphins to
communicate
Text A
Humans spend about a third of their lives asleep; hence, there must be a point to it. Scientists have
found that sleep helps consolidate memories, fixing them in the brain so we can retrieve them later. Now,
new research is showing that sleep also seems to reorganize memories, picking out the emotional details
and reconfiguring the memories to help you produce new and creative ideas.
“Sleep is making memories stronger,” says Jessica D. Payne of the University of Notre Dame, who co-
wrote the review with Elizabeth A. Kensinger of Boston College. “It also seems to be doing something which
I think is so much more interesting, and that is reorganizing and restructuring memories.”

Payne and Kensinger study what happens to memories during sleep, and they have found that a person
tends to hang on to the most emotional part of a memory. For example, if someone is shown a scene with
an emotional object, such as a wrecked car, in the foreground, they’re more likely to remember the
emotional object than, say, the palm trees in the background --- particularly if they’re tested after a night of
sleep. They have also measured brain activity during sleep and found that regions of the brain involved with
emotion and memory consolidation are active.
One of the first things to go in fast-paced society is sleep. That is based on a profound
misunderstanding that the sleeping brain isn’t doing anything. In fact, the brain is busy. It’s not just
consolidating memories. It’s organizing them and picking out the most salient information. Payne thinks this
is what makes it possible for people to come up with creative, new ideas.
Text B
Sleep not only protects memories from outside interferences, but also helps strengthen them, according
to research presented at the American Academy of Neurology’s 59 th Annual Meeting in Boston. The study
looked at memory recall with and without interference (competing information). Forty-eight people between
the ages of 18 and 30 took part in the study. All had normal, healthy sleep routines and were not taking any
medications. Participants were devided evenly into four groups --- a wake group without interference, a
wake group with interference and a sleep group interference. All groups were taught the same 20 pairs of
words in the initial training session.
The wake groups were taught the word pairings at 9 a.m. and then tested on them at 9 p.m. after 12
hours awake. The sleep groups were taught the word pairs at 9 p.m. and tested on them at 9 a.m. after a
night of sleep. Just prior to testing, the interference groups were given a second list of word pairs to
remember. The first word in each pair was the same on both list, but the second word was different, testing
the brain’s ability to handle competing information, known as interference. The interference groups were
then tested on both lists.
The study found that people who slept after learning the information performed best, successfully
recalling more words. Those in the sleep group without interference were able to recall 12 percent more
word pairings from the first list than the wake up group without interference. With interference, the recall
rate was 44 percent higher for the sleep group.
11. Which of the following statements represents a

fact that can be found in either text?
A. People who sleep sufficiently tend to be
more creative
B. Sleep helps enhance one's memories and
creativity
C. Sleep is highly needed in a busy and modern
society
D. Enough sleep is a vital factor for critical
E. The brain is not active when people are
sleeping
12. Which of the following can be best sum up both

texts?
A. Sleep patterns considerably affect one’s
creativity
B. Sleep leads recall abilities to a better
performance
C. The longer people sleep, the better they
memorize
D. Healthy people usually sleep without
interference
E. Memories and regular sleep patterns affect
each other
13. Based on the information in both texts,

sufficient sleep …

A. Is a sole key to memory consolidation
B. Optimally enhances brain functions
C. Will contribute to better learning
D. Implies absence of interference
E. Helps long-term memory retrieval
14. The best topic for both texts would be …

A. Research on memory
B. Experiments on sleep
C. Dangers of lack of sleep
D. Sleep and creative thinking
E. Impacts of sleep on memories
15. The focus of research in both texts differs, in

that text A is on …
A. Protection of healthy sleep routines; Text B
memory strengths on vocabulary
B. Consolidation of emotion and memory; Text
B protection of healthy sleep routines
C. Sleep patterns with interference; Text B the
role of sleep in memory recall
D. The role of sleep in memory and creativity;
Text B interferences and memory recall
E. On memory strengths on vocabulary; Text
B the role of sleep in memory recall

E4 - VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT
Although photography was made public in 1839, the theory behind the principles of the medium begins
with Aristotle’s description of how light waves behave when projected through a small aperture. This is
fundamentally the description of how a lens or camera’s aperture operates when it projects an image onto
the film at the back of a camera. In the Middle Ages, Alhazen and Francis Bacon extended the principle to
include a large, darkened room with a small opening in one wall. In the 15 th to 18th centuries this camera
obscure, as it came to be called, was reduced in size and made convenient for artist to use in tracing scenic
design and architectural perspective.
The chemical principles basic to photography were also describe well before photography was
“invented”, Johan Schulze, in 1727, demonstrated that silver salts turned dark when exposed to light. Carl
W. Scheele, in 1777, showed that ammonia retorted the effects of light, and he indicated a possible way of
stabilizing the photochemical process by the end of 18th century, the necessary equipments (the camera
obscure) were available at least to produce semi permanent photographic images.
The artistic style and aesthetics of Renaissance and post-Renaissance Europe placed a high value on a
naturalistic rendering of nature and thus legitimatized the use of machines like the camera obscure by artist.
By the mid-18th century, a public demand had made itself for realistic portrait, which was partially satisfied
by other machines for recording human likenesses, beginning in the 1970’s, Jacques Charles conducted
experiments in the automatic; if permanent recording of portrait silhouettes on photosensitive paper. Two
imperatives-the need for prospectively accurate landscape and architectural scenes and for objectively
truthful portraits-created a climate for certain types and style of pictures that, after 1839, would be achieved
easily by photography.
1. Which is most likely the topic of the paragraph

following the text?
A. Portraits of inanimate objects.
B. Process of publishing portraits.
C. Photographers’ status in society
D. More recent photography application.
E. Photography as an exclusive from of art.
2. What is the main idea of paragraph 1?

A. A lens projected images accurately-onto the
camera film.
B. Aristotle discovered the wonder of light
waves.
C. Alhazen and Francis Bacon were the dark
room inventors.
D. Camera obscure used to be enormous
before it was reduced in size.
E. The initial idea of photography came up long
before it was publicized.
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the

text?
A. Camera sizes became small due to the
fashion at that time.
B. A camera was the only toll to record human
likeness in the mid 18th century.
C. Before the mid 18th century the
photochemical processes were unstable.
D. The upper-class were the common portrait

objects in the Renaissance era.
E. It took some decades before society was
aware of the art of photography.
4. How is the information in the text presented?

A. Developments of photography are
explained.
B. Characteristic of photographers are outlined.
C. Types of photography objects are
contrasted.
D. The advantages of photography are
described.
E. The styles of photographers are compared.
5. The word ‘he’ in ‘’… and he indicated a possible

way of stabilizing …’’ (line 10) refers to …
A. Aristotle
B. Francis Brown
C. Johann Schulze
D. Carl W. Scheele
E. Jacques Charles

Text A
The tropical rain forest is a forest of tall trees in a region of year-round warmth. An average of 50 to 260
inches (125 to 660 cm.) of rain falls yearly.
Rainforests now cover less than 6% of Earth’s and surface. Scientists estimate that more than half of all
the world’s plant and animal species live in tropical rain forests. Tropical rainforests produce 40% of Earth’s
oxygen.
A tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world. Scientists have counted
about 100 to 300 species in one 2 1/2-acre (1-hectare) area in South America. Seventy percent of the plants
in the rainforest are trees.
About 1/4 all the medicines we use come from rain forest plants. Curare comes from a tropical vine, and
is used as an anesthetic and to relax muscles during surgery. Quinine, from the cinchona tress, is used to
treat malaria. A person with lymphocytic leukemia has a 99% chance that the disease will go into decrease
because of the rosy periwinkle. More than 1,400 varieties of tropical plants are thought to be potential cures
for cancer.
Each of the three largest rainforests—the American, the African, and the Asian—has a different group of
animal and plant species. Each rain forest has many species of monkeys, all of which differ from the species
of the other two rain forests. In addition, different areas of the same rain forest may have different species.
Many kinds of trees that grow in the mountains of the Amazon rain forest do not grow in lowlands of that
same forest.
Text B
Though dry forest occur in climates that are warm year-round, and may receive several hundred
centimeters of rain per year, they deal with long dry seasons which last several months and vary with
geographic location. These seasonal droughts have great impact on all living things in the forest.
Deciduous trees predominate these forests, and during the droughts a leafless period occurs, which
varies with species type. The newly bare trees open up the canopy layer, enabling sunlight to reach ground
level and facilitate the growth of thick underbrush. Though less biologically diverse than rain forests, tropical
dry forests are still home to a wide variety of wildlife including monkeys, large cats, parrots, various rodents,
and ground dwelling birds. Many of these species display extraordinary adaptations to the difficult climate.
The most diverse dry forests in the world occur in southern Mexico and in the Bolivian lowlands. The dry
forests of the Pacific Coast of the northwestern South America support a wealth of unique species due to
their isolation. The dry forests of central India and Indochina are notable for their diverse large vertebrate

faunas. Dry forests of Madagascar and New Caledonia are also highly distinctive (pronounced endemism and
a large number of relictual taxa) for a wide range of taxa and at higher taxonomic levels.
Species tend to have wider ranges than moist forest species, although in some regions many species do
display highly restricted ranges; most dry forest species are restricted to tropical dry forests, particularly in
plants; beta diversity and alpha diversity high but typically lower than adjacent most forests.
6. The theme that best represents the two texts

above would be…
A. Flora and fauna in different forests in wet
and dry lands.
B. Medical prospects of the flora from rain
and dry forests.
C. Tropical rain forests as a source of herbal
medications.
D. Biodiversity richness of tropical and dry
forests.
E. Differences of fauna types in rain and dry
forests.
7. The following statements reflect opinions in

both texts, EXCEPT…
A. About half of plant and animal species live
in rain forests.
B. Most trees in dry forests are bare during
the rainy season.
C. Rain forests have less animal species than
dry forests.
D. Plants from both forests can be used as
medicines.
E. Rain and dry forests grown in warm
regions.
8. The statement the best extracts the gist of the

two texts would be…
A. Forests can function well as a source of
herbal medications.
B. Planting more trees in forests is an
assurance for biodiversity.
C. Flora and fauna contribute to the shaping
of forest types.
D. Biodiversity can be most likely found in
tropical forests.
E. Dry forests are only found regions other
then wet areas.
9. Based on both texts it can be best speculate

that…
A. A rainfall rate of a forest can better predict
population density of the forest.
B. Less rainfalls in an area cause a less
chance for the area to be a forest.
C. For forests to act more as a source of
medicines, their flora should be varied.
D. The higher the rainfall of a dry forest, the
more unique species the forest has.

E. The denser the flora population of a forest
is, the richer in herbs the forest is.
10. Both texts differ in their focus, in that Text A

deals with…
A. Both flora and fauna; Text B fauna only.
B. Medical potentials; Text B species types.
C. Rain forests; Text B dry forests.
D. Areas of rain forests; Text B forests type.
E. Herb–based medications; Text B forest
types.
Text A
Soaring carbon emissions from a meat-hungry developing world could be cut back substantially by
improving animal breeds and feed, according to a study. It is estimated that livestock farming contributes
18-51 percent of the world’s green house gas emissions. Demand for livestock products is predicted to
double by 2050 as a result of growing populations, urbanization, and better income in the developing world,
which will cause emissions to rise.
The study, published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Science, suggest that 12
percent of total livestock-related emissions in 2030 could easily be shortened with simple improvements in
production. These include: switching to more nutritious pasture grasses; supplanting livestock diets based on
grass with small amounts of crop residues or grains; restoring degraded grazing lands; growing trees that
trap carbon while producing leaves that livestock could eat; and adopting more productive breeds.
“Organizations from the West, especially the World Watch Institute, have continued to blame
livestock-keeping for being one of the major polluters of the world, yet livestock keeping’s positives by far
outweigh the negative,” said Mario Herrero, co-author of the paper and a senior scientist at International
Livestock Research Institute.
Text B
Livestock farmers in developing countries have a relatively small environmental footprint and their
animals provide them with food, income and transport for their crops, said John Byron. “What these farmers
need are technological options and economic incentives that help them intensify their productions in
sustainable ways,” he added. Steinfeld, coordinator of the Livestock, Environment and Development
Initiative at the Food and Agriculture Organization, said: “If one were able to connect this to smallholder
development by making poor farmers benefit through the possibility of carbon offsets and carbon markets
that would indeed create a win-win situation where one would have socioeconomic benefits, targeting poor
people, while reducing the carbon ‘hoofprints’ i.e. the carbon footprint of livestock”.
Improving livestock production should be done to improve livehoods and not just for climate
reasons, said Kirtana Chandrasekaran, food campaigner for Friends of the Earth. She added that intensive
agriculture also contributes to biodiversity loss so it’s very dangerous just to look at lowering emissions when
there’s a whole host of other factor affecting improvement in livestock farming”.
11. The theme of these two texts would most likely

be …
A. Research for better livestock farming
B. Livestock farming and carbon emissions
C. Livestock as a top source of air pollution
D. Arguments for sustainable livestock
farming
E. Cutting carbon emissions in live stock
farming

12. The following ideas reflect opinions in two

texts, EXCEPTS …….
A. Better management in livestock farming
links to less gas emissions
B. Better life quality should also result from
improves livestock farming
C. Sustainable livestock farming potentially
leads to low carbon emissions
D. In spite of its carbon emissions, livestock
farming gives more advantages
E. Livestock industries have affected
greenhouse gas emissions significantly
13. It can be concluded from the two texts that

cattle productions are considered successful if
they ……
A. Contribute more to economic benefits for
the human livehoods
B. Address reduction of carbon emissions,
biodiversity and better quality of life
C. Result from provisions of appropriate
technology and economic motivations
D. Are controlled from the side of economic
and technological management
E. Consider both technology and natural
factors affecting livestock farming
14. Which of following statements can be

hypothecally figured out based on the
information in these two texts?
A. The increase in population, urbanization,
and earnings leads to the higher demand
for livestock consumptions, and thus the
higher carbon emissions
B. The significant increase in greenhouse gas
emissions in due to changes in people’s
lifestyle and activities, including the higher
demand for livestock products
C. Desirable livestock farming is parallel with
reduction of greenhouse gas emissions,
improvement of biodiversity, and better
socioeconomic quality of the poor
D. Whatever the technological attempts are
made to improve livestock production to
meet the people’s demand ,higher carbon
emission will constantly increase
E. Although it affects positively the poor’s
socioeconomic status, livestock farming
activities negatively influence biodiversity
as well as global climate condition
15. The argument for livestock farming in the first

text differs significantly from that in the second
text in that the first text deals with ….
A. Seven minor topics; the second three
minor ones
B. Three major topics; the second five major

ones
C. One general topic; the second two minor
ones
D. Two major topics; the second three major
E. Eight minor topics; the second six minor
ones

E5 – TAKING CONCLUSION
Over this decade, employment in jobs requiring education beyond a high school diploma will grow
more rapidly than employment in jobs that do not; of the 30 fastest growing occupations, more than half
require post secondary education. With the average earnings of college graduates at a level that is twice as
high as that of workers with only a high school diploma, higher education is now clearest (1) … into the
middle class.
In higher education, the U.S. has been outpaced internationally. While the United States ranks ninth
in the world in the proportion of young adults enrolled in college, we have fallen to 16 th in the world in our
share of certificates and degrees awarded to adults ages 25-34 – lagging behind Korea, Canada, Japan and
other nations. While more than half of college students graduate within six years, the (2) … for low-income
students are around 25 percent.
Acknowledging these factors early in his administration, President Obama challenged every
American commit to at least one year of higher education or post-secondary training. (3) … that America
would once again have the highest proportion of college graduates in the world 2020.
(www.whitehouse.go)
(Sumber: SBMPTN 2013)
1. The option that best completes (1) is ….

A. effort
B. position
C. pathway
D. advantage
E. beginning

A. Completion rate
B. Academic capacity
C. Logical understanding
D. Learning achievement
E. Intellectual development

A. American will deserve higher education
for their future
B. Middle class Americans are invited to
provide financial aids
C. American students are suggested to
take entrepreneurial skills
D. The government recommends
Americans for college education
E. The President has set up a new
educational goal for the country
Vast populations of microbes live between four and six miles above the Earth’s surface in an
atmospheric zone considered at best a pretty unpleasant location for life. They might be living at those
altitudes and feasting on carbon compounds that help warm the planet, or perhaps they were launched up
there by air currents, according to a new study.
Researchers found 17 different bacterial taxa. On average, 20 percent of the small particles in the
upper atmosphere are living bacterial cells. Bacteria greatly outnumber fungi in the atmosphere. The bugs in
the air seem to mirror the type of bugs on the surface. When the aircraft flew over the ocean, the filters

caught marine bacteria and when they were over land, they found terrestrial microbes. The bacteria likely
reach such great heights through the same processes that sand sea salt and dust into the air.
Some of the bacteria use carbon compounds in the atmosphere, suggesting they might be able to
survive there long-term. What is especially interesting about this is the potential impact microscopic
creatures may have on our weather. Clouds are collections of liquid or frozen droplets that condense around
a nucleus, usually a piece of dust or grain of salt. But nuclei could be made from bacteria, too. Some types
of bacteria promote the formation of ice droplets or of freezing.
(scienceseeker.org)
4. The sentence “The bacteria likely reach such

great heights through the same processes that
sand sea salt and dust into the air” (paragraph
2, lines 4-5) is most probably mean to …
A. Explain how light materials like bacteria and
dust can easily reach the space
B. Conclude the journey made by bacteria that
enables them to live in the sky
C. Emphasize the condition that bacteria and
dust can stay in the atmosphere
D. Show a similar method by bacteria and other
materials to stay in the air
E. Speculate the path taken by bacteria and
other materials to the sky.
5. The following pairs associated words are

relevant with the idea on how bacteria in the
air are linked to the formation of the ice
droplets described in the passage, except ….
A. Roots – deepening
B. Heat – expanding
C. Smoke – polluting air
D. Heavy rain – flooding
E. Low temperature – freezing
6. It is assumed that bacteria in the atmosphere

….
A. Affect the weather of an area
B. Determine the pollution level
C. Lead to the formation of clouds
D. Signal the bad quality of the air
E. Can be found in all places
7. The points mentioned in paragraph 3 of the

passage mainly explain that ….
A. Kinds of bacteria in the air are linked to the
local weather
B. Bacteria have long polluted the air more
than we think
C. Prevalence of bacteria in the air depends on
area types
D. Small particles flying in the air are
microorganisms
E. The atmosphere contains a varied form of
microbes

A.D. 830: A storm sends an Indonesian trading ship drastically off course. Months later, dozens of
ragged survivors make landfall on an island off the southeast coast of Africa, more than 3,000 miles from
home. Today, Murray Cox, a computational biologist at New Zealand’s Massey University, says a scenario
like this may describe the gloomy origins of the first permanent settlements on Madagascar, home to about
22 million people today.
Genetic and linguistic studies suggest the island’s native Malagasy people are mainly of Indonesian
descent. The idea of early Indonesians traveling 3,000 miles to the island intrigued Cox. “It’s a surprisingly
long distance to come,” he says. So he used computer modeling to parse the clues, running through 40
million settlement simulations. Cox soon pinpointed one that would explain the DNA patterns evident in
Madagascar today. Surprisingly, the current population descends primarily from just 30 or so Indonesian
women who arrived 12 centuries ago. His conclusion is supported by prior findings that about 30 percent of
Malagasy have the same ochondrial DNA, which is passed from mother to child – far less diversity than in
typical human populations, which share less than 2 percent. “this suggest rapid, recent growth from a very
small founder population,” Cox says.
It is unclear how Madagascar’s founding mothers (and the fathers who must have been with them)
arrived. Cox proposes seafaring merchants thrown off course, or refugees fleeing political strife; the latter
could explain why women, usually not found on trade ships, were on board. Now, Cox plans to explore
whether small founding groups, are characteristics of other early island settlements, including Hawaii. “there
may be general rules for settling islands,” he says.
(discovermagazine.com)
8. The passage implies that Indonesian settlers

in Madagascar most probably ….
A. Migrated due to political reasons
B. Were the first settlers on the island
C. Traveled to the island on purpose
D. Landed on the island by accident
E. Found it hard to live on the island
9. Which of the following is restatement of the

sentence “The idea of early Indonesians
traveling 3,000 miles to the island intrigued
Cox”.(paragraph 2, line 2)?
A. Cox proposed a theory of nomadic life of
Indonesian people
B. Cox investigated the intrigues behind the
migration of Indonesians.
C. Cox was eager to make a long journey
like Indonesians to the island.
D. Cox was curious so as to why
Indonesians had a long distance journey.
E. Cox’s ideas of Indonesian’s long journey
to the island are still in question.
10. The paragraph following the passage will

likely talk about ….
A. The life of Hawaiian people
B. Political aspects of the journey
C. Further similar studies on other islands
D. DNA analyses of the island’s population
E. The life in Madagascar compared to that
in Hawaii

11. In presenting the ideas, the author starts by

….
A. Introducing an expert
B. Describing the sea voyage
C. Presenting a historical fact
D. Theorizing the origin of Indonesians
E. Providing the result of a biologist’s study
Passage A
For those of you now eyeing your cell phones suspiciously, it is worth noting that both the National
Cancer Institute (NCI) and the World Health Organization (WHO) say there is no evidence to support the
assertion that cell phones are a public-health threat. But a number of scientist are worried that there has
been a dangerous rush to declare cell phones safe, using studies they feel are inadequate and too often
weighted toward the wireless industry’s interests. An analysis published by University of Washington
neurologist Henry Lai determined that far more independent studies than industry-funded studies have
found at least some type of biological effects from cell-phone exposure.
A strong link between mobiles and cancer could have major public-health implications. As cell
phones make and take calls, they emit low-level radio-frequency (RF) radiation. Stronger than FM radio
signals, these RF waves are still a billionth the intensity of known carcinogenic radiation like X-rays.
(www.time.com)
Passage B
A study published in the journal Bioelectromagnetics reported no statistically significant change in
the incidence of brain cancers in men and women in England between 1998 and 2007, a time when cell
phone use increased dramatically.
But now, new work published this week in the Journal of the American Medical Association says
there is an identifiable effect of cell phone use in the brain, but it is really too early to tell what, if anything,
that effect means health-wise.
There has been a lot of controversy of whether cell phones could increase the temperature of the
brain, which in turn could affect energy requirements.
Based on our study, we really cannot infer whether this is bad or could even have potentially good
applications so that our finding does not illuminate or enlighten that very important question of whether cell
phones exposure could have detrimental effects.
(www.npr.org)
12. The topic discussed in both passages above

is ….
A. The increase in the brain cancer
incidents by the mobile phone radiation.
B. Inconclusive empirical findings on the
impact of the use of mobile phones
C. Recent research findings on radiation by
mobile phones on brain damage.
D. Arguments against frequent uses of
mobile phones for health reasons.
E. Issues on the impact of using mobile
phones one one’s state of health
13. Both passages are similarly in content in

terms of addressing …
A. Relation between mobile phones and
health

B. Recent research evidence on cell phone
uses
C. Potential effect of mobile phone use on
users’ brain
D. Mobile phone use in triggering the brain
cancer
E. Findings of research on the use of mobile
phones
14. Which of the following reflects opinions

mention in both passages?
A. There was no increase of brain cancer
patients in men and women between
1998- 2007.
B. Statements by NCI and WHO on safe use
of cell phones have led to a dangerous
rush.
C. There some types of biological effects
from mobile phone exposure.
D. Radiation emitted by X-rays is
carcinogenic.
E. Mobile phones emit deadly radiation.
15. Information in both passages may lead to a

hypothesis that …
A. Uncontrolled use of mobile phones will
increase carcinogenic stuff in the users’
brain
B. Frequent use of mobile phones will
increase the radiation accumulation I the
brain
C. The increasing uses of mobile phones will
result in detrimental effects of their users
D. Careless use of mobile phones will
increase levels of brain energy
consumptions
E. Regular use of mobile phones will
increase biological defects not just in the
brain.

E6 – ORGANIZATION OF THE IDEA

Parents send their children to school with the best of intentions, believing that formal education is
what kids need to become productive, happy adults. Many parents do have qualms about how well schools
are performing, but the conventional wisdom is that these issues can be resolved with more money, better
teachers, more challenging curricula, or more rigorous tests. But what if the real problem is school itself?
The unfortunate fact is that one of our most cherished institutions is, by its very nature, failing our children
and our society.
Children are required to be in school, where their freedom is greatly restricted, far more than most
adults would tolerate in their workspaces. In recent decades, we have been compelling them to spend ever
more time in this kind of setting. and there is strong evidence that this is causing psychological damage to
many of them. And as scientists have investigated how children naturally learn, they have realized that kids
do so most deeply and fully, and with greatest enthusiasm, in conditions that are almost opposite to those of
school.
Compulsory education has been a fixture of our culture now for several generations. President
Obama and Secretary of Education Arne Duncan are so enamored of it that they want even longer school
days and years. Most people assume that the basic design of today’s schools emerged from scientific
evidence about how children learn. But nothing could be further from the truth.
Schools as we know them today are a product of history, not of research. The blueprint for them
was developed during the Protestant Reformation, when schools were created to teach children to read the
Bible, to believe Scripture without questioning it, and to obey authority figures without questioning them.
When schools were taken over by the state, made compulsory, and directed toward secular ends, the basic
structure and methods of teaching remained unchanged. Subsequent attempts at reform have failed
because they have not altered basic blueprint. The top down, teach-and-test method, in which learning is
motivated by a system of rewards and punishments rather than by curiosity or by any real desire to know, is
well designed for indoctrination and obedience training but not much else. It is no wonder that many of the
world’s greatest entrepreneurs and innovators either left school early (like Thomas Edison) or said they
hated school and learned despite it, not because of it (like Albert Einstein).
1. What is the topic of the text above?

A. Doubts on the effectiveness of American
School Systems
B. Parents’ expectation on reformation in
American school system
C. Restrictions on children’s freedom at the
US schools
D. Regulations for American children to stay
longer at schools
E. Absence of a research-based school system
in the USA
2. What is the purpose of the text?

A. To remind American parents that the
formal school s basically a product of
culture
B. To discuss if the American school system
is truly effective to educate children

C. To tell the readers that formal schools in
the USA have been constantly developed
for along time
D. To review how compulsory education in
the USA has met parents’ expectation
E. To describe how American children learn
at school and in real-life settings
3. Which of the following is closest in meaning

to the word “qualms” (line 2)?
A. Remarks
B. Requests
C. Doubts
D. Views
E. Beliefs
The MV Akademik Shokalskiy, a “highly ice-strengthened” Russian tour ship built in Finland in 1984 “for
polar and oceanographic research,” is stranded in Antarctica’s summer ice with 74 passengers and crew
members aboard. The group, which includes two Guardian journalists, is retracing the harrowing 1911
Antarctic expedition led by Sir Douglas Mawson, who lost many of his team members and nearly died
himself on the frigid continent a century ago.
The ship’s passengers include an Australian research team led by University of New South Wales
Professor Chris Turney. who said in November that the voluminous data collected by Mawson 100 years ago
is critical to understanding global warming. But Tumey reported that bizzard-like conditions and thick ocean
ice are preventing the latest expedition from leaving. “Unfortunately proceeding north we found our path
blocked by ice pushed in by an increasingly strong southeasterly wind. On Christmas Eve we realized we
could not get through, in spite of being just 2 nautical miles from open water,” Turney reported in his blog.
“According to reports nobody is in present danger and three nearby icebreakers are being sent to
assist”, said Expeditionsonline.com, which books polar expeditions. The ship is “stuck part-way through her
Australasian Antarctic Expedition towards Mawson’s Hut at Cape Denison,” located about 100 nautical miles
east of Dumont D’Urville, a French base on Antarctica, and 1500 nautical miles south of Hobart in Tasmania.
Three icebreakers-China’s Xue Long, Australia’s Aurora Australis, and France’s L’Astrolabe-have been
dispatched to the scene, according to the Australian Maritime Safety Authority (AMSA), which is coordinating
the international rescue after the Falmouth Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre in the United Kingdom
received a satellite distress call Christmas morning. However, it will take the icebreakers at least two days to
get to the stranded ship, which is experiencing very strong winds and limited visibility.” The closest rescue
ship is not expected to get to the scene until sometime Friday night.
“While it is early winter in the Arctic, it is early Summer in the Antartic. Continuing Patterns seen in
recent years, Antarctic sea ice extent remains unusually high, near or above previous daily maximum
values,” according to the National Snow and Ice Data Center (NSIDC).

4. What is the topic of the text above ?

A. The rescue of the stranded MV Akademik
Shokalskiy by the three icebreakers
B. A highly ice-strengthened Russian tour ship
built for polar and oceanographic research
C. A team of researchers having an Arctic
expedition tour on a Russian ship
D. A trapped Russian tour ship on the
Antarctica’s summer ice waiting for a rescue
E. A ship retracting a 1911 Antarctic expedition
stranded in South Pole’s summer ice
5. It is implied in the second paragraph that. . . .

A. Sir Douglas Mawson finally died when he
was collecting the data which are believed to
be very relevant to today’s global warming
B. the MV Akademik Shokalskiy was not able to
leave the south Pole ocean at due time in
November
C. Sir Douglas Mawson failed to collect enough
data which are important for polar and
oceanography research
D. the MV Akademik Shokalskiy got stranded in
Antarctic’s summer ice sometime on the 24th
of December
E. the crew and all the passengers of the MV
Akademik Shokalskiy were not able to
celebrate Christmas
6. Which of the following statement is NOT stated

in the text?
A. The MV Akademik Shokalskiy is a Russian
tour ship which is intended for polar and
oceanography research.
B. Three icebreakers – Xue Long, Aurora
Australis and L’Artrolabe – were
experiencing very strong winds and limited
visibility for two days in the sea.
C. Prof. Chris Turney is an Australian research
team leader, who reported that Mawson had
collected lots of detailed data related to
global warming.
D. Sir Douglas Mawson, who led an Antarctic
expedition in 1911, lost many of his team
members and nearly died himself on the
Antarctic.
E. It was the National Snow and Ice Data
Center which reported that the Antarctic sea
ice remained unusually high.
7. The Purpose of the text is to . . . .

A. Report about a stranded ship
B. Describe efforts to rescue a stranded ship
C. Report the loss of a Russian ship
D. Explain why the Russian ship was stranded
E. Discuss problem of rescuing a stranded ship

8. The phrase “The group” (line 3) refers to . . . .

A. Crew
B. Passengers
C. Passengers and crew
D. Members
E. Team Members
9. Which of the following is closest meaning to the

word “frigid” (line 5)?
A. Far away
B. Far isolated
C. Very remote
D. Extremely cold
E. Completely Frozen
Non-verbal communication is defined as communication between people by means other than speech.
Nonverbal communication (NVC) derives from the following major sources: (1) eye contact (amount of
looking at another person’s body and face): (2) mouth (especially smiling or grimacing in relation to eye
contact): (3) posture (for example. sitting forwards or backwards); (4) gesture (as with the use of arm
movements when talking). (5) orientation (of the body to the addressee): (6) body distance (as when we
stand too close or too far away from others; (7) smell (including perfumes): (8) skin (including
pigmentation, blushing and texture): (9) hair (including length texture and style), (10) clothes (with
particular reference to fashion).
Non-verbal communication is not quite the same as ‘body language’ because any claim about a
language must refer to an agreed and identifiable grammar and syntax. NVC is not always so precise or
advanced; the vocabulary of non-verbal signs is more limited than speech. Even so, it is a mistake to
consider NVC as isolated from speech. Instead, some complex interaction is envisaged between word and
body signal, and one that is not always complementary. Imagine yourself interviewing job applicants. You
might not offer employment to a candidate, who refuses to look at you, always frowns, hunches both
shoulders, sweats a tot, and has a Mohican haircut –despite the fact that he or she gives thoughtful and
interesting replies to your questions.
Eye contact is as an example for discussion. Mutual eye contact (where both people look into each
other’s eyes) can be a sign of liking but prolonged gaze leads to discomfort. The directed eye contact
violates a code of looking, where eye contact is frequently broken but returned to, and leads to
depersonalization of the victim because an aggressor deliberately breaks the rules which the victim adheres
to. Eye contact is often enhanced by size of pupils, eyebrow inflection and movement, and smiling.
10. It can be inferred from the text that non-verbal

communication . . . .
A. never match
B. use the same grammar
C. always support each other
D. need learning and practice
E. sometimes show striking contrast
11. The author organizes the ideas in the text by . .
A. classifying types of non verbal
communication
B. differentiating non verbal communication
from body language
C. defining non verbal communication and
giving examples
D. exposing problems in defining non verbal
communication
E. ordering sources of nor verbal
communication chronologically

12. According to the text, NVC . . . .

A. does not have established rules
B. has an identifiable grammar
C. may be derived from hair color
D. is isolated in language study
E. is more complicated than body language
13. The purpose of the text is to . . . .

A. present the result of research
B. define non-verbal communication
C. describe the real situation of job interview
D. provide examples of non-verbal
communication
E. explain the role of non-verbal communication
in communication
14. In which lines of the text does the author

mention that NVC is inseparable from speech?
A. 8-9
B. 10-11
C. 12-14
D. 15-16
E. 18-19
15. The word “code” (paragraph 3) is closest in

meaning to . . . .
A. Sign
B. Program
C. Symbol
D. Rule
E. Instruction

E7 – READING COMPREHENSION
This following text is for 1 to 5.
Passage A
Malaria is caused by a parasite called Plasmodium. This small single-cell organism invades the liver
and metamorphoses so that it can burrow into red blood cells. The parasite then multiplies until the red
blood cells burst, causing the host body (human or animal) to be assaulted by waves of fever as the body
attempts to destroy the parasite. In some cases, the infected red blood cells become stuck in the arteries
and veins of the head, leading to death.
In the early 20th century, a team of Italian scientists showed that human malaria was spread by
mosquitoes, paving the way for a series of simple measures to interrupt the transmission of the disease,
such as use of bed nets and insecticides. But because the malaria parasite metamorphoses as it moves from
the liver to the red blood cells, it has been difficult to develop a vaccine that will stimulate the host’s immune
system into recognizing the two different forms of the parasite.
Passage B
A common form of malaria that is endemic across south-east of Asia, and Central and South America
is Vivax malaria. Now a two-year study presented at the ASTMH meeting has found that Plasmodium vivax
was responsible for about a third of 66 malaria-related deaths at Karitas Hospital in eastern Indonesia. Kevin
Baird, authors of the study and director of the Eijkman-Oxford Clinical Research Unit in Indonesia suggested
that this is further proof that P. falciparum, the form of malaria common in Africa, is not the only one with
high death rates. “If P. vivax is causing death, as the data suggest, we need to look at areas where it is
endemic and rethink our malaria strategy.”
Although P. falciparum was more likely to cause severe symptoms, such as unconsciousness and
anemia, once the patient was ill enough to require intensive care P. vivax was just a likely to kill, the study
found. It also caused a higher proportion of deaths in adults.
1. The topic underlying the passages above is

about…
A. falciparum
B. mosquitoes
C. insecticide
D. malaria
E. anemia
2. Which of the following statements is true

according to both passages?
A. Plasmodium can make human’s red blood
cell exploded
B. P. falciparum was more likely to cause
severe symptoms
C. Malaria is a single-cell organism known as
plasmodium.
D. Plasmodium falciparum is type of malaria in
Africa
E. Plasmodium vivax is leading to death
3. Both passages are similar in term of the

information on…
A. Human immune system and proportion of
death.
B. Difficulty in developing a vaccine and its
solution.
C. The symptom of malaria and its treatment.
D. The nature of malaria and its type.
E. Malaria vaccine and its strategy.

4. The best summary of both passages is…

A. Plasmodium has an ability to nestle the red
blood cells.
B. It is difficult to find a vaccine to cure people
of malaria, especially P. Vivax
C. A vaccine to cure people of malaria is still
being developed.
D. Malaria is a common diseases, especially P.
Vivax
E. An accurate diagnosis still needs to be
further improved
5. It can be hypothesized from the two passages

above that if we can extract malaria vaccine, …
A. Massive production of the vaccine can assist
many patients.
B. Doctors or scientists will easily identify the
type of malaria.
C. Proportion of malaria-related deaths can be
minimized.
D. Malaria can no longer be seen as an
endemic disease.
E. Anti-malaria strategies no longer need
developing.
This following text is for 6 to 10.
In their latest paper, published in the journal Nature Climate Change, Prof. Philip Munday and
colleagues report world-first evidence that high CO 2 levels in sea water disrupts a key brain receptor in fish,
causing marked changes in their behavior and sensory ability. They began by studying how baby clown and
damsel fishes performed alongside their predators in CO 2-enriched water. They found that, while the
predators were somewhat affected, the baby fish suffered much higher rates of attrition.
“Our early work showed that the sense of smell of baby fish was harmed by higher CO2 in the water,
meaning they found it harder to locate a reef to settle on or detect the warning smell of a predator fish. But
we suspected there was much more to it than the loss of ability to smell,” says Prof. Munday. The team then
examined whether fishes’ sense of hearing which is used to locate and home in on reefs at night, and avoid
them during the day was affected. “The answer is, yes it was. They were confused and no longer avoided
reef sounds during the day. Being attracted to reefs during daylight would make them easy meat for
predators.”
Other work showed the fish also tended to lose their natural instinct to turn left or right which is an
important factor in schooling behavior which also makes them more vulnerable, as lone fish are easily eaten
by predators. Prof. Munday further explains, “All this led us to suspect it wasn’t simply damage to their
individual senses that was going on - but rather, that higher levels of carbon dioxide were affecting their
whole central nervous system.”
6. What is the writer’s purpose in writing the

passage?
A. To investigate the increase of carbon
dioxide level in sea water
B. To contrast the influence of carbon dioxide
on predators and fish
C. To predict the impacts of poor senses of
fishes on coral reefs
D. To inform the effects of high carbon
dioxide in sea water on fish
E. To argue over the agility of fish exposed to
high carbon dioxide

7. Paragraphs 2 and 3 are related in that the

first…
A. Argues for causes; the latter deals with
conclusion.
B. Describe loss of senses; the latter loss of
reactions.
C. Deals with causes; the latter presents
further evidence.
D. Theorizes the role of O2; the latter
describes the effects.
E. Lists the results of study; the latter
explains the results.
8. The word “them” in ‘… and avoid them during

the day …’ (paragraph 2 line 9) refers to…
A. CO2 levels.
B. predators.
C. baby fish.
D. the team.
E. reefs.
9. The following is relevant with the idea of the

role of the fish’s senses and instinct described
in the passage except…
A. Mice avoid poisons by smelling it.
B. Dogs sniff rubbles to identify disaster
victims.
C. People recognize others from their voices.
D. Babies learn to speak by imitating sounds.
E. Pigeons send letters to an address.
10. Regarding higher levels of carbon dioxide in

sea water is, the author seems to feel very…
A. concerned.
B. upset.
C. weary.
D. excited.
E. uncaring.
The following text is for 11 to 15.

Passage A
Secondhand smoke is the smoke that is exhaled or that comes from the burning end of the
cigarette, pipe, or cigar. Secondhand smoke can come in through cracks in the wall. It can hang around in
hallways and doorways where people have been smoking.
Breathing someone else’s smoke can be deadly, especially if you live or work in a place where
people smoke. That is why it is so important for smokers to go all the way outside if they want a cigarette.
When one person smokes inside, it can cause problem for someone else.
Children who are around tobacco smoke in their homes have more healthy problems like asthma
and ear infections. They are sicker and stay in bed more. They miss more school days than children whose
homes are smoke-free. Babies who live in homes with secondhand smoke are more likely to die as infants
than other babies.
Passage B
The first conclusive evidence on the danger of passive smoking came from Takeshi Hirayama’s study
in 1981 on lung cancer in non-smoking Japanese woman married to man who smoked. Although the tobacco
industry immediately launched a multimillion dollar campaign to discredit the evidence, dozens of further
studies have confirmed the link. Research then broadened into other areas and new scientific evidence
continues to accumulate.

The risk of lung cancer in nonsmokers exposed to passive smoking is increased by between 20 and
30 percent, and the excess risk of heart disease is 23 percent. Children are at particular risk from adult’s
smoking. Adverse health effects include pneumonia and bronchitis, coughing and wheezing, worsening of
asthma, middle ear diseases, and possibly neuro-behavioral impairment and cardiovascular disease in
adulthood. A pregnant woman’s exposure to other people’s smoking can harm her foetus. The effects are
compounded when the child is exposed to passive smoking after birth.
11. Which of the following themes is mainly

discussed in the passages?
A. The illness linked to passive smoking
B. The disadvantages of smoking
C. The danger of becoming smokers
D. The benefit of being a non smoker
E. The danger of being a passive smoker
12. Which of the following opinions is mentioned

in both passages?
A. Serious disease in smokers may result from
chain smoking.
B. Active smokers’ smoke endangers passive
smokers.
C. Smoking endangers smokers living with
nonsmokers.
D. Evidence on the danger of passive smoking
is conclusive.
E. Smoking affects the health of a baby of a
pregnant woman.
13. The idea of Passage A is similar to that of

Passage B, in that it is…
A. a chance to escape from several deadly
illnesses due to smoking.
B. a good decision for smokers to lives
without smoking habits.
C. a great benefit for pregnant women to live
without smoking.
D. an unfortunate for nonsmokers to live
without smoking habits.
E. a list of several health risks for nonsmokers
who live with smokers.
14. Both passages can be best summarized as

which of the following?
A. Smokers and non-smokers are likely to get
smoking-related diseases.
B. Children and pregnant women tend to get
various diseases.
C. Children of smoking pregnant women will
be likely to smoke.
D. Many smokers will not have serious health
problems in their life.
E. Non-smokers living with smokers are likely
to get health problems.

15. Based on the passages, it can be hypothesized

that…
A. By avoiding passive smoking, chances of
getting deadly illnesses are lesser.
B. More people will surely die in the
environment of smokers.
C. Home settings determine whether
somebody will smoke or not.
D. A baby born from a mother who smokes
will tend to be a smoker.
E. Evidence of lung cancer will be greater in
the baby of smoking mother.

E8 – TEXT ANALYZING
Every January, many people start working out, hoping to lose weight. But, as studies attest, exercise
often produces little or no weight loss – and even weight gain – and resolutions are soon abandoned. But
new science suggests that if you stick with the right kind of exercise, you may change how your body
interacts with food. It is more than a matter of burning calories; exercise also affects hormones.
A study in 2012 from university of Wyoming looked at a group of women who either ran or walked
and, on alternate days, sat quietly for an hour. After the running, walking, or sitting, researchers drew blood
to test for the levels of certain hormones and then directed the women to a room with a buffet. Human
appetite is complicated, driven by signals from the brain, gut, fat cells, glands, genes, and psyche. But
certain appetite - related hormones, in particular ghrelin, which stimulates hunger, are known to be
instrumental in determining how much we consume.
The study has shown that exercise typically increases the production of ghrelin. Workouts make
your hungry. In the Wyoming study, when the women ran, their ghrelin levels spiked, which should have
meant they would attack the buffet with gusto. But they did not. In fact, after running, these women
consumed several hundred of fewer calories than they burned.
1. Based on the information in paragraph 2, the

author implies that …
A. Women’s level of appetite is related to their
daily physical activity.
B. Women are sensitive in response to
treatments during an experiment
C. A particular hormone is responsible for the
sum of food consumption
D. Human’s appetite is a host of either
physical or psychological factors
E. Innovative research methods are employed
in a study of eating habits
2. Which of the following best restates the

sentence “ ….these women consumed several
hundred of fewer calories than they burned.”
(paragraph 3 line 3)?
A. Burning calories for the women was more
important than having calories.
B. Instead of burning less calories, the women
consumed more calories.
C. When consuming fewer calories, women
needed to burn more.
D. Rather than having more calories, the
women got rid of fewer calories.
E. The women’s calorie intake was less than
that of their calorie burning.
3. The paragraph following the passage will likely

…
A. Describe the implication of the research
findings
B. Deal with merits of weight loss
C. Show the worth of types of exercise
D. Explain the work of ghrelin
E. Discuss hormones pertinent to appetite

4. The author presents an effect of having
specific exercise followed by …
A. Explaining why ghrelin increase does not
affect appetite
B. Arguing for the importance of having
sufficient exercise
C. Discussing the relation between appetite
and exercise
D. Exemplifying reasons for the increase of
ghrelin
E. Demonstrating why hunger comes after
exercises
For Pacific bluefin tuna, sitting at the kids’ table surely is not paying off. The stock of the fish is at
the historically low levels and is being dangerously overfished, a new report shows. Fishery scientist estimate
that the Pacific bluefin population has declined from its unfished level by more than 96 percent. The report
warns that stock levels likely will not improve by extending the current fishing levels. All the world’s
scrombrids – a family that includes tunas and mackerels – are on endangered list.
One problem is that the majority of bluefins that fishermen are snagging are under a year old,
further hindering the species’ chance to procreate. But the extreme lack of supply is not deterring many
buyers. In anything, low supplies of the fish have caused it to become a premium commodity, worth buying
at the extreme prices. A Pacific bluefin was sold for $1.78 million at the auction in Tokyo.
The director of Pew Environment Group has said that “the most responsible course of action is to
immediately suspend the fishery until significant steps are taken to reverse this decline.” She called on the
main countries responsible for Pacific bluefin fishing – Japan, Mexico, South Korea, and the U.S. – to take
conservational action. So far, there has been one minor step forward: In June 2012, the Inter-American
Tropical Tuna Commission set a quota for the tuna catch in the eastern Pacific for the first time ever. Some
of the other actions were preventing fishing on bluefin spawning grounds in the northern Pacific and
creating size limits to reduce the number of juvenile bluefin caught.
5. Paragraph 2 is linked to paragraph 3 in that

the former …
A. Presents the policy of preventing bluefins
to become rare; the latter discusses the
laws for bluefin conservation
B. Discusses a problem and effect of catching
too young bluefins; the latter suggest
conservations
C. Gives a warning to the irresponsible
fishermen; the latter outlines rules for a
limited number of bluefins hunting
D. Talks about efforts to increase the
population of bluefins; the latter proposes
the need for free-zoning fishing
E. Mentions the possible regulations for
hunting bluefin; the latter presents an
issuance of bluefins tuna fishing ban
6. With the reference to the passage, an

environmentalist will most likely …
A. Agree that the Pacific bluefins should be
conserved
B. Suggest that the Pacific bluefins be the
most expensive food
C. Ban the catching of all bluefins completely

all over the world
D. Advise the fishermen not to do fishing
activities in the eastern Pacific
E. Suggest bluefins as a sacred fish to the
Inter- American Tropical Tuna Commission
7. What does the author assume regarding the

Pacific bluefin tuna?
A. The bluefin tunas show gradual annual
decrease in number.
B. The fish will well-sold over the world if
successfully promoted.
C. The family of bluefin tunas could be extinct
because of illegal fishing.
D. A greater number of fishermen have
caught the fish in the Pacific.
E. The fishery of bluefin has been suspended
from year to year.
8. The points provided in paragraph 1 of the

passage explain that …
A. Fish such as tunas and mackerels have
been badly endangered
B. Catching tunas and their species has been
interesting activities
C. Scientists think of the need to increase the
population of tunas
D. Stock levels of bluefins in fishery have
shown a radical decrease
E. Tunas and tuna-like species are mostly
found in the North Pacific

Passage A
The first sample of material ever taken from the inside of a rock on another planet has been
obtained by NASA’s Mars rover Curiosity. NASA just released new images showing the drilled material. The
sample material will give researchers a look into what Mars was like during the rock material’s formation.
Curiosity’s drill, located on one of many its robotic arms, obtained the sample powder as it made a
2.5 inch hole in the flat Martian bedrock on February 8th. The sample will now be put through a sieve, and
portions of it will be analyzed by the scientific instruments inside the rover.
The area where the sample was obtained is a “fine-grained”, veiny sedimentary rock called ‘John Klein’
named in memory of a Mars Science Laboratory deputy project manager who died in 2011. The rock was
selected for the first sample drilling because it may hold evidence of wet environmental conditions long ago.
The rover’s laboratory analysis of the powder may provide information about those conditions.
Passage B
A possible alien planet discovered by NASA’s Kepler space telescope is the most Earth-like world yet
detected beyond our solar system, scientist say. With a radius that is just 1.5 times that of the Earth, the
potential planet is so-called “super earth,” meaning it is just slightly larger than Earth. The candidate planet
orbits a star similar to the sun at a distance that falls within the “habitable zone” – the region where liquid
water could exist on the planet’s surface. Scientists say the planet, if confirmed, could be a prime candidate
to host alien life.
The object takes 242 days to orbit its star (compared to Earth’s 365 days) and is about three-
quarters of the Earth-sun distance from its parent. The Earth orbits 93 million miles (150 million kilometers)
from the sun on the average, a distance known as one astronomical unit.

9. Based on both passage, it can be
hypothesized that …
A. Human will travel around the universe
soon
B. Human needs spacecraft reaching the
speed of light
C. The closer planet to the sun, the higher
chance to live on
D. The more water exists in a planet, the
higher possibility of life is
E. Human will created advanced technology
to survive on other planets
10. The topic discussed in both passages is …

A. The future place to live
B. The identification of rock formation
C. The attempt to prove the existence of
aliens
D. The comparison of the planets with the
Earth
E. The search for the possibility of life in
other planets
11. Passage A differs from passage B in stating

that …
A. Aliens does not exist
B. The planet is more habitable
C. The planet is more closer to the star
D. The rock formation is more complicated
E. The researcher can use the real sample
from the planet
12. According to both passages, which of the

following statement is true about both
planets?
A. They have water.
B. They orbit the stars.
C. They are home of aliens.
D. They supported life in the past.
E. They have similar distance to the star.
This study’s finding are important because they a biological marker to show a direct link between
chronic stress and heart disease. Stressors, such as marital or financial troubles, have been linked to heart
disease, but doctors could only rely on questionnaires to determine people’s stress levels. This study looked
at a more objective, measureable sign – the level of cortisol, a hormone released during stress – that shows
up in the hair shaft.
Measuring cortisol levels in hair also can indicate how long a person has been stressed, says Gideon Koren,
one of the study’s authors and a toxicologist at the University of Western Ontario. Cortisol, which is secreted
by the adrenal glands, also shows up in urine and saliva, but that only shows stress at the moment of
measurement - not over long periods of time.
“Hair grows about one centimeter [a fraction of an inch] a month, so if we take a hair sample six
centimeters [2.6 inches] long, we can measure the cortisol level and determine stress levels for the past six
months,” Koren says. This is critical, he adds, “because what kills is chronic stress.”
In the study, researchers took 3 centimeter hair samples from 56 male heart attack patients admitted
to the Meir Medical Center in Israel. Hair samples were also taken from a control group, hospitalized for

reasons other than a heart attack. The two groups did not differ significantly in terms of diabetes, high blood
pressure, smoking, and family history of heart disease.
13. The author organizes his/her ideas in the

passage by …
A. presenting causes followed by its effect
B. interpreting different ways of classifying
C. presenting the strengths of the main idea
D. exposing supporting ideas chronologically
E. putting the central followed by examples
14. based on the passage, it can be inferred that …

A. only cortisol is more accurate in detecting
one’s stress
B. one’s temporary stress can be judged by
testing his urine
C. doctors tend to use two ways of
understanding one’s stress
D. one may learn stress levels through
measuring his own hair
E. multi-functions of saliva lead one to know
his gradual stress
15. Which of the following is the restatement of the

sentence “…doctors could only rely on
questionnaires to determine people’s stress
levels.” (Paragraph 1 line 3)
A. Although using questionnaires only, doctors
can discover people’s degree of stress.
B. Only questionnaires can inform doctors
more accurately about people’s scale of
stress.
C. People’s stress levels are dependent merely
on questionnaires for doctors to know.
D. Questionnaires for doctors are only means
of understanding people’s stress levels.
E. Questionnaires are only one of doctor’s
efforts to predict people’s stress degree.
16. The paragraph following the passage will likely

talk about …
A. smoking habits as some risk factors to lung
cancer
B. hair cortisol content as an influential factor
of diabetes
C. high blood pressure as a dominant factor
for sudden death
D. hair cortisol content as a stronger predictor
of heart attack
E. cholesterol levels as a significant indicator
of one’s health level

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