Victory Elijah Christian College

MATH GRADE 8 MARCH – 4TH QUARTER TEST

Name: __________________________________________________ Score: ____________

I. Use rhombus CHAT to answer each question.

II.CASH is an isosceles trapezoid with median ME. Answer each question.

1. If CA = 8x + 18, HS = 4x + 14, and ME = 40, find CA and HS.

2. If CH = 14x + 10 and AS = 12x + 22, find CH and AS.

3. If CS = 5x – 7 and AH = 2x + 14, find CS and AH.

4. If CA + HS = 2x + 8 and ME = 3x – 12, find ME.

5. If CA = 5x + 7, HS = 2x + 5, and ME = 5x – 3, find CA, HS, and ME.

III. Find the mean, median and mode of each of the following sets of numbers

1. 12, 23, 34, 56, 78, 56, 67

2. 23, 45, 67, 78

3. 123, 466, 567

4. 345, 674, 342, 344, 789

5. 6, 0, 4, 6, 7, 3, 5, 8, 9, 3, 3

IV. Consider the given data then answer the questions below. Ms. Reyes
records the

top 5 scores in a quarter test given to 5 classes.

Class A: 88 88 89 90 88

Class B: 88 86 96 86 88

Class C: 89 88 93 93 90

Class D: 88 87 90 95 96

Class E 87 93 95 88 89

1. What is the mean score of each class?

2. Which class is unimodal?

3. What is the median of each class?

4. What is the mode of each class?

5. If all the scores are combined, what will be the mean, median and mode of
all the

scores from the 5 classes.

V. Find the range, lower quartile, median, upper quartile and interquartile
range for the

following set of data.

1. 2, 3, 5, 2, 5, 6

2. 3, 4, 5, 6, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 12, 4

3. 12, 13, 13 ,19, 10, 12, 5, 6

4. 21, 34, 23, 45, 43, 56, 34

5. 43, 32, 34, 56, 65, 56, 45, 56

VI. Construct a frequency distribution with a class interval = 6

The scores of 60 students in an achievement test in Math are given below.

68 75 62 76 93
77 84 81 97 73
60 88 71 82 79
85 79 97 59 76
74 75 95 68 59
78 65 79 55 90

VII. Below is the distribution of the daily salary of workers in ABC Co. Compute
the mean, median, mode, variance and standard deviation.

.
Salary F
100 – 119 2
120 – 139 12
140- 159 18
160 – 179 23
180 – 199 9
200 - 219 6
VIII. The table shows the age distribution of the contestants in a raffle draw
sponsored by a popular noon time game show. Compute the mean, median,
mode, variance and standard deviation.

Age f
25 – 29 15
30 – 34 45
35 – 39 21
40 – 44 32
45 – 49 10
50 – 54 17
55 - 59 7
IX. An experiment consists of rolling die. List the elements in each of the
following.

1. The sample space.

2. The event that an odd number shows up.

3. The event that greater than 3.

4. The event greater then 5

5. The event greater than 1 but less than 6

X. Answer each problem completely.

1. There are 30 multiple-choice questions in an examination paper. A question

is

chosen at random. Find the probability that the number of the question
chosen

a. is a two-digit number,

b. is divisible by 5,

c. is a perfect square,

d. is greater than 25,

e. is greater than 10 but less than 20.

2. The question on an examination paper are numbered from 1 to 40 inclusive.
A

question is chosen at random. Write down, giving your answer as a fraction,

the

probability that the number of the question chosen will

a. contain more than one digit

b. be a perfect square

c. contain at least one figure 3

d. not be divisible by 6 or 3.

3. If you draw a card from a pack of 30 identical cards numbered 1, 2, 3, …,

30, what is

the probability of drawing.

a. a prime number.

b. a non-prime number

c. a composite number

d. an even number
 Victory Elijah Christian College
FILIPINO GRADE 8 MARCH – 4TH QUARTER TEST

Name: __________________________________________________ Score: ____________

I. Bumuo ng mga salitang may klaster o kambal katinig batay sa tsart na nasa
ibaba. Ang klaster ay maaring matagpuan sa unahan, gitna o hulihan ng
salita.

Mga Klaster Salita

Hal; Kw Kwintas

1. ts

2. bl

3. br

4. dr

5. rt

6. tr

7. ts

8. dw

9. pl

10. rd

II. PANUTO: Punan ng kambal- katinig ang salitang bubuo sa diwa ng

pangungusap.

1. Magdadala si Joey ng _____eter dahil maginaw sa Amerika.

2. Huwag mong hahawakan ang ___antsa dahil ito ay mainit.

3. Basahin ang iyong ___aderno para sa pagsusulit bukas.

4. Inilagay ni Tanya ang mga bulaklak sa ___orera.

5. Nasugatan si Ben sa ___aso kanina.

6. Paborito ni Sam ang mga ___okolate .

7. Nilagyan ni Ana ng __ip ang kanyang buhok .

8. Ang malaking ___ak ay nasiraan sa kalye.

9. Pumunta si John sa ____inik dahil masakit ang kanyang tiyan.

10. Nakakita ang mga bata ng ___ago noong pumunta sila sa zoo

III. Sabihin kung ito’y Korido o Awit. Isulat ang tamangs agot sa papel.

1. Ang sukat ng bawat saknong ay lalabindalawahing pantig.

2. Mabagal ang pagbigkas o pag-awit nito kaya madamdamin.

3. Higit na makatotohanan dahil ang paksa ay malapit sa kasaysayan.

4. HIgit na buhay at masigla ang damdamin nito.

5. Ang sukat ng bawat linya sa isang sknong ay wawaluhing pantig.

6. Mabilis ang pag-awit o pagbigkas nito tulad sa mabilis na pagsasalaysay.

7. Ang paksa ay alamat at pantasya o may kapangyarihang supernatural ang

tauhan kung minsan.

8. May malalim na damdaming relihiyoso.

9. Halimbawa nito ay Ibong Adarna.

10. Halimbawa nito ay Florante at Laura.

IV. Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod na tauhan sa “Florante at Laura”

1. Tagapagligtas ng Albanya sa kamay ng mga kaaway.

2. Ang kagandahan ay itinulad kay Venus, babaing minahal ni Florante.

3. Isang Moro na nagligtas kay Florante sa mga leon.

4. Kababayan ni Florante, naging taksil sa Albanya kaagaw ni Florante kay

Laura.
5. Pinuno ng Albanya, ama ni Laura.

6. Uliran sa kabaitan, tagapayo ni Haring Linceo, butihing ama ni Florante.

7. Ama ni Adolfo

8. Anak ng Haring Krotona, ulirang ina ni Florante

9. Nagligtas kay Florante habang sanggol pa ito sa Kuko ng Buwitre.

10. Ama ni Aladin at umiibig din kay Flerida.

V. Suriin ang mga salita. Lagyan ng masayang mukha ang patlang kung ito ay
may diptonggo at ekis kung wala.

1. A. daloy B. Reyna

2. A. yoyo B. Ilaw

3. A. keyk B. Sayaw

4. A. araw B. Sweldo

5. A. buhok B. Okoy

6. A. kamay B. Sakyan

7. A. aruy B Baley

8. A. braso B. Trabaho

9. A. araw B. Sweldo

10. A. baboy ` B. Presyo

VI. Isulat sa iyong sagutang papel ang angkop na letra para magkaroon ng
klaster ang mga salita sa ibaba. Ibinigay ang kahulugan ng salita bilang clue.

1. p _ asa liwasan

2. k _ edito utang

3. d _ ama dula

4. p _ eso bilanggo

5. t _ apo basahan

6. p _ enda sangla

7. p _ antsa pang-unat ng damit

8. p _ ito luto sa mantika

9. p _ ato pinggan

10. g _ asya biyaya

VII. Hanapin ang kasig kahulugan ng mga sumusunod

. 1. agaw buhay Malas na tao

2. anak dalita Naghihingalo

3. balitang kutsero Nakikitira

4. makapal ang bulsa maraming pera

5. mahina ang loob mahirap

6. Makapal ang palad mahilig sa gala

7. Maipis ang mukha madaldal

8. Maitim ang dugo kasalan

9. Makati ang paa malupit

10. Sampid bakod hindi toong balita

 11. Walang puso takot

12. Mahabang dulang duwag

13. Makati ang dila salbahe

14. Guryon mahiyain

15. Samaing palad masipag

VIII. Piliin ang mga salitang may klaster at itala ang mga ito sa iyong sagutang
papel. Salungguhitan ang mga klaster. (15 na salita)

Diskriminasyon sombrero suntok soltera praning

Trapo Preno sampal samba prestihiyo

edukasyon arte Letra klaster simple

kredito drama grasya Asosasyon tradisyon

parte tostado sandata kwento

IX. Piliin sa mga salita sa ibaba ang mga salitang diptonggo. Isulat ang mga
tamang sagot sa papel. (15 salita)

Tunay saysay kulay simoy tuloy

Suklay duklay saway halimaw baliw

Reyna mayroon magiliw bistay bilog

Suhayan pantigin maysakit bantayan biya

Kawayan pantayan aliwan buhayin

X. Ibuod ang mga Kabanata sa “FLORANTE AT LAURA”. Limang Puntos (5)
bawat bilang.

1. KABANATA 1-5

2. KABANATA 6 - 10

3. KABANATA 11-15

4. KABANATA 16 – 20
 Victory Elijah Christian College
ENGLISH GRADE 8 MARCH – 4TH QUARTER TEST

Name: __________________________________________________ Score: ____________

Completion: Directions: Read the following words below and write its positive,
negative, and question form including its proper responses.
[NOTE: Present Progressive, Present Perfect Tense, and Past Perfect Progressive
only]

Present Progressive
1. (compete) we 2. (reveal) I 3. (defile) she 4. (unveil) he 5. (condemn) they
Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:

Present Perfect Tense

1. (complete) we 2. (unleash) I 3. (anticipate) she 4. (aim) he 5. (strive) they
Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:

Past Perfect Progressive

1. (compete) we 2. (reveal) I 3. (defile) she 4. (unveil) he 5. (condemn) they
Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive: Positive:
Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative: Negative:
Question: Question: Question: Question: Question:
Y: Y: Y: Y: Y:
N: N: N: N: N:

Now, try to have other forms. The words that you’re going to use were shown
below.[NOTE: 3 Past Perfect Tense, 3 Future Progressive, and 3 Future Perfect
Progressive only]
unleash discombobulate bloom

vindicate concatenate incinerate

decimate vociferate enliven

 Victory Elijah Christian College
SCIENCE GRADE 8 MARCH – 4TH QUARTER TEST

Name: __________________________________________________ Score: ____________

True or False. Direction: Write T if the statement is TRUE and F if is FALSE.

1. Any force applied to rock is a stress.
2. Compression is the most common stress at convergent plates.
3. A syncline is a fold that arches upward.
4. Only transform plate boundaries have earthquakes.
5. Earthquakes at mid-ocean ridges tend to be small and shallow.
6. In earthquake zones, building materials should be strong and rigid.
7. Buildings should be constructed so they do not bend and sway in an
earthquake.
8. In earthquake zones, heavy furniture should be attached securely to walls.
9. A star cluster may contain one or more galaxies.
10. Galaxies are divided into types based on size.
11. Spiral galaxies are generally older than elliptical galaxies.
12. Our solar system is within one of the spiral arms of our galaxy.
13. Our solar system orbits the central disk of our galaxy.
14. As the distance between galaxies grows, the size of each galaxy shrinks.
15. In the first few moments after the Big Bang, the universe was very hot and
dense.
16. Most asteroids in the solar system are located between Mars and Earth.
17. Small asteroids sometimes collide with Earth.
18. Meteoroids are usually larger than asteroids.
19. When confining stress occurs, rock deforms.
20. Stress is the cause of joints in rock.
21. The energy released by an earthquake travels in seismic waves.
22. Earthquakes deep underground cause the most damage.
23. Seismic waves travel outward in all directions from their source.
24. If you are inside when an earthquake strikes, you should get beneath a
sturdy table or desk.
25. If you are outside when an earthquake strikes, you should run to an open
area away from buildings and power lines.
26. There are billions of galaxies in the universe.
27. Open star clusters contain more stars than globular star clusters.
28. Dwarf galaxies are often found near larger galaxies.
29. Some galaxies contain over a trillion stars.
30. From Earth, our galaxy looks like a giant spiral.
31. Edwin Hubble used powerful telescopes to discover other galaxies.
32. When the universe began, it was much larger than it is today.
33. The first matter to form in the universe consisted of protons, neutrons, and
electrons.
34. Asteroids formed after the rest of the solar system formed.
35. After a meteor hits Earth’s surface, it is called a meteorite.
36. A mantle is the region below the Moho consisting of two major regions the
upper 100 meters is rigid and the lower 250 meters is plastic-like

Write the word of the correct answer.

1. The point on the Earth's surface that is directly above an earthquake is called
the:
• Epicenter
• Aftershock
• Focus
• Cone
• inner core
2. Energy released by an earthquake is in the form of:
• Rocks
• Magma
• Shakes
• seismic waves
• nuclear
3. A seismometer measures what?
• The damage caused by an earthquake
• The distance of an earthquake from the focus to the epicenter
• How big a volcano is
• The vibrations caused by an earthquake
3. The strength or magnitude of an earthquake is measured using what?
• Sonar equipment
• Richter scale
• Vanderlay chart
• Barometer
• Shakagraph
4. What is an aftershock?
• Aftershocks are the nightmares and other long-lasting effects that
earthquakes have on people who have experienced them
• Aftershock is the medical condition where earthquake victims always
imagine the earth is shaking, for years after a quake
• Aftershocks are the smaller earthquakes that follow the main earthquake
• Aftershocks are earthquakes that take place before the main earthquake
• An aftershock is the spot on the surface of the Earth's crust that is located
immediately above the epicentre of the earthquake
5. What is a primary effect of an earthquake?
• Impacts as a direct result of the ground shaking
• Effects on young children
• Effects nearest the epicenter
• Effects on the landscape
6. The elastic rebound theory
• explains folding of rocks.
• explains the behavior of seismic waves.
• explains the origins of earthquakes.
• none of these.
7. The point within the Earth where seismic waves originate is:
• the epicenter.
• the fault scarps.
• the origin.
• the focus.
8. P-waves are:
• transverse surface waves.
• compressional body waves.
• tensional surface waves.
• shearing body waves.
9. The minimum number of seismic stations needed to locate an earthquake is:
• 8
• 2
• 3
• 1
10. The Richter Scale is used to determine:
• intensity of earthquakes.
• the magnitude of earthquakes
• the damage from earthquakes.
• the number of casualties in an earthquake.
11. Benioff Zones are associated with:
• mid-ocean ridges
• ancient mountain chains
• subduction zones
• all of these.
12. Most earthquakes at divergent plate boundaries are:
• shallow focus
• intermediate focus
• deep focus
• all of these.
13. Most earthquakes at convergent boundaries are:
• shallow focus.
• intermediate focus.
• deep focus.
• all of these.
14. A zone of shallow earthquakes along normal faults is typical of
• divergent plate boundaries.
• convergent plate boundaries.
• transform plate boundaries.
• none of these.
15. A seismic gap is:
• the time between large earthquakes.
• a segment of an active fault where earthquakes have not occurred for
a long time.
• the center of a tectonic plate where earthquakes rarely occur.
• a large chasm opened by an earthquake.
16. Which of the following is characteristic of a tsunami?
• very long wavelength.
• very fast moving.
• very low amplitude in the open ocean.
• all of these.
17. The fastest seismic waves are:
• P-waves
• S-waves
• Love Waves
• Rayleigh Waves
18. The first seismic waves to arrive at a seismic station are:
• P-waves
• S-waves
• Love waves
• Rayleigh waves
19. The first motion of an earthquake detected at a seismic station is:
• always compressional.
• always dilatational.
• varies depending on the earthquake location relative to the seismic
station.
• meaningless in the analysis of earthquakes.
19. Analyses of earthquake first motions are useful for:
• determining the location of an earthquake.
• determining the magnitude of an earthquake.
• determining the style of faulting that caused an earthquake.
• determining the depth of an earthquake.
20. Analyses of seismograph records cannot provide information on:
• the magnitude of the earthquake.
• the location of the earthquake.
• the number of fatalities in an earthquake.
• the depth of the earthquake.
21. Which of the following states has a significant seismic hazard?
• California
• Tennessee
• Arkansas
• all of these.
22. The process of fluidizing water-saturated soil during an earthquake is
known as:
• liquefaction.
• quick sand.
• gelatinization.
• none of these.
23. Among the secondary effects of large earthquakes are:
• tsunamis.
• fires.
• landslides.
• all of these.
24. Which of the following areas is most likely to experience a large
magnitude earthquake?
• southern California
• Arctic Canada.
• eastern Brazil.
• southern Australia.
25. The elastic rebound theory:
• explains folding of rocks.
• explains the behavior of seismic waves.
• explains the origins of earthquakes.
• none of these.
26. The point within the Earth where seismic waves originate is:
• the epicenter.
• the fault scarp.
• the origin.
• the focus.
27. P-waves are:
• transverse surface waves.
• compressional body waves.
• tensional surface waves.
• shearing body waves.
28. The minimum number of seismic stations needed to locate an earthquake
is:
• 8
• 2
• 3
• 1
29. The Richter Scale is used to determine:
• intensity of earthquakes.
• the magnitude of earthquakes.
• the damage from earthquakes.
• the number of casualties in an earthquake.
30. Benioff Zones are associated with:
• mid-ocean ridges
• ancient mountain chains
• subduction zones
• all of these.
31. Most earthquakes at divergent plate boundaries are:
• shallow focus
• intermediate focus
• deep focus
• all of these.
32. Most earthquakes at convergent boundaries are:
• shallow focus.
• intermediate focus.
• deep focus.
• all of these.
33. A zone of shallow earthquakes along normal faults is typical of:
• divergent plate boundaries.
• convergent plate boundaries.
• transform plate boundaries.
• none of these.
34. A seismic gap is:
• the time between large earthquakes.
• a segment of an active fault where earthquakes have not occurred for
a long time.
• the center of a tectonic plate where earthquakes rarely occur.
• a large chasm opened by an earthquake.
35. Which of the following is characteristic of a tsunami?
• very long wavelength.
• very fast moving.
• very low amplitude in the open ocean.
• all of these.
36. The fastest seismic waves are
• P-waves
• S-waves
• Love Waves
• Rayleigh Waves
37. The first seismic waves to arrive at a seismic station are:
• P-waves
• S-waves
• Love waves
• Rayleigh waves
38. The first motion of an earthquake detected at a seismic station is:
• always compressional.
• always dilatational.
• varies depending on the earthquake location relative to the seismic
station.
• meaningless in the analysis of earthquakes.
39. Analyses of earthquake first motions are useful for:
• determining the location of an earthquake.
• determining the magnitude of an earthquake.
• determining the style of faulting that caused an earthquake.
• determining the depth of an earthquake.
40. Analyses of seismograph records cannot provide information on:
• the magnitude of the earthquake.
• the location of the earthquake.
• the number of fatalities in an earthquake.
• the depth of the earthquake.
41. The process of fluidizing water-saturated soil during an earthquake is
known as:
• liquefaction.
• quick sand.
• gelatinization.
• none of these.
42. Among the secondary effects of large earthquakes are:
• tsunamis.
• fires.
• landslides.
• all of these.
43. To come together from different directions; to meet
• Earthquake
• Earthquake focus
• Fault
• Coverage
44. The natural shaking of the earth due to the release as rocks move along a
fault
• Fault
• Frequency
• Earthquake
• Coverage
45. The point where an earthquake originates
• Epicenter
• Earthquake focus
• Earthquake
• MWAA
46. Earthquake focus
• of the earth's crust in combination with the rigid upper mantle
• Frequency
• Lithosphere
• Mantle
47. The boundary between the earth's crust and mantle that causes
earthquake waves to change speed.
• Moho
• Joists
• 1
48. The frequenct at which the least amount of energy is necessary to cause
a specific object to vibrate
• Plate
• Frequency
• Natural frequencies
• Earthquake

Multiple choices. Direction: Write the word of the correct answer.

1. Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
• Dip
• Epicenter
• Focus
• scarp
2. Point B is called the earthquake ________.
• Dip
• Epicenter
• Focus
• scarp
3. Point C is called the _________
• Epicenter
• fault scarp
• seismic wave
• dip of the earthquake
4. What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
• Normal
• Reverse
• Thrust
• abnormal
5. What causes the up-and-down wiggles on the seismogram show
above?
• variations in air pressure
• ground vibrations
• tsunami waves
• electromagnetic pulses
6. How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the
rock?
• back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
• perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
• in a rolling elliptical motion
• in a rolling circular motion
7. How do rock particles move during the passage of a S wave through the
rock?
• back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel
• perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
• in a rolling elliptical motion
• in a rolling circular motion
8. The moment magnitude of an earthquake depends on all of the following
except __.
• the area of the fault break
• the rigidity of the fault
• the slip on the fault
• the type of faulting
9. Which of the following measures an earthquake's intensity based on the
observed effects on people and structures?
• Richter scale
• Modified Mercalli scale
• the Centigrade scale
• the moment magnitude scale
10. Shallow earthquakes, less than 20 km deep, are associated with _______.
• convergent plate boundaries
• divergent plate boundaries
• transform plate boundaries
• all of these
11. What type of faulting would be most likely to occur along transform faults?
• normal faulting
• reverse faulting
• strike-slip faulting
• all of these
12. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point A?
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
• deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
13. What type of earthquakes would most likely occur at point B?
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by normal faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by strike-slip faulting
• shallow-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
• deep-focus earthquakes caused by thrust faulting
14. Which of the following can be triggered by an earthquake?
• Tsunami
• intense ground shaking
• a landslide
• all of these
15. Which of the following can trigger a tsunami?
• undersea earthquakes
• undersea landslides
• the eruption of an oceanic volcano
• all of these
16. Which of the following waves is the slowest?
• P waves
• S waves
• Surface waves
• tsunami
17. Which of the following statements is false?
• Most earthquakes occur at plate boundaries
• The time and location of most major earthquakes can be predicted
several days in
• advance
• Earthquakes can be caused by normal, reverse and strike-slip faulting
• P waves travel faster than both S waves and Surface waves
18. Which of the following observations may indicate a forthcoming
destructive earthquake?
• An increase in the frequency of smaller earthquakes in the region
• rapid tilting of the ground
• rapid changes in water levels in wells
• all of these
19. Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake
prediction?
• scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all
earthquakes
• scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50% of all
earthquakes
• scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but not
where
• scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but cannot yet
accurately predict
• most earthquakes
20. Asteroids do not have any of the following except
• Gravity.
• An atmosphere
• Internal heat.
• Geological activity
21. Which of the following statements is true about short-period comets?
• They have periods of 200 years or less.
• They come from the asteroid belt.
• The originate in the Oort cloud.
• none of the above
22. Which of the following is a dwarf planet?
• Ceres
• Makemake
• Haumea
• All of the above
23. Pluto was once called a planet. Now it has been reclassified as a dwarf
planet because
• Its gravity is too weak to clear its orbit.
• It does not have any moons.
• It consists only of gases.
• Its orbit is not elliptical.
24. The only dwarf planet located in the asteroid belt is
• Eris.
• Haumea
• Ceres.
• Makemake
25. Which dwarf planet is shaped more like an egg than a ball?
• Ceres
• Eris
• Haumea
• Pluto
26. The dwarf planet named Eris
• Is bigger than Pluto.
• Was discovered before pluto
• Has more moons than Pluto.
• Is closer to the sun than pluto
27. Types of star clusters include
• Open clusters.
• Elliptical cluster
• Spiral clusters.
• All of the above
28. Elliptical galaxies contain
• a lot of gas and dust.
• Mostly red or yellow star
• mainly young stars.
• Two of the above
29. Types of galaxies include
• spiral galaxies.
• Circular galaxies
• cluster galaxies.
• Globular galaxies
30. The stars in an open cluster are mostly
• Old stars.
• Reddish stars
• Young stars.
• Two of the above
31. Galaxies that do not have a clearly defined shape are called
• Deformed galaxies.
• Dwarf galaxies
• Irregular galaxies.
• Open galaxies
32. Scientists estimate that the Milky Way Galaxy contains about
• 40,000 stars.
• 40 million stars
• 400,000 stars.
• 400 billion stars
33. Some astronomers think that at the center of our galaxy there is a
• Neutron star.
• Red supergiant
• Supernova.
• Black hole
34. From our point of view in the Milky Way Galaxy, all other galaxies in the
universe appear to be
• Crowding closer together.
• Getting dimmer
• Moving away from us.
• Growing larger
35. After the big bang occurred, the universe
• Shrank in size.
• Became hotter
• Became denser.
• Began to cool
36. Most scientists who study dark matter think that it is
• A mix of ordinary matter and matter we haven’t yet discovered.
• Matter that makes up black holes.
• Just a tiny fraction of all the matter that exists in the universe.
• none of the above
37. Scientists recently discovered that the universe
• Has started to contract in size.
• Is expanding even faster than before.
• Is no longer expanding or contracting.
• Will soon go through another big bang.
38. Scientists have introduced the concept of dark energy to explain the
• Rate of growth of the universe.
• Contraction of the universe.
• Origin of dark matter.
• all of the above
39. Much of the damage caused by earthquakes is done by
• Fires.
• landslides
• Tsunamis.
• All of the above
40. Earthquake-safe construction methods include
• making buildings out of stone.
• making buildings without foundations.
• anchoring buildings to bedrock.
• All of the above
41. The Great Alaska Earthquake occurred
• near the capital city of Juneau.
• At a subduction zone
• where many people lived.
• In 2004
42. Structures that reduce how much buildings sway during an earthquake
include
• Diagonal steel beams.
• Counter weights
• Heavy slate roofs.
• Two of the above
49. Steel is a good building material for earthquake zones because steel
• Bends without breaking.
• Resists shaking
• Is very light in weight.
• Is very rigid
50. If you live in a place where the risk of earthquakes is high, you should
• Keep heavy objects near the floor.
• Use fluorescent light bulbs.
• Prepare an emergency kit.
• All of the above
51. If you are in a car when an earthquake occurs, you should
• Run into the nearest building.
• Stay in the car and away from buildings.
• Get out of the car and drop to the ground.
• stays in the car and park under an overpass.
52. Tsunamis may be caused by
• Landslides.
• Nuclear explosions.
• Meteorites.
• All of the above
53. The moment magnitude of an earthquake is calculated from the
• Length of the fault.
• Amplitude of the seismic waves
• Distance the ground moves.
• Two of the above
54. What is the furthest planet from the sun?
• Earth
• Neptune
• Uranus
• Pluto
55. How many days does it take the earth to travel around the sun?
• 24 hours
• 1 month
• 365 days
56. what is the largest planet in the solar system?
• Jupiter
• Saturn
• Venus
• Neptune
57. The earth revolves around the
• Stars
• Sun
• Moon
58. What is the third planet form the sun?
• Venus
• Pluto
• Mercury
• Earth
43. What is the coldest planet in the solar system?
• Neptune
• Earth
• Pluto
• Venus
59. what planet is 70% covered by water?
• Neptune
• Pluto
• Earth
• Jupiter
60. What are the terrestrial planets?
• Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
• Earth, Jupiter, and Pluto
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
• Pluto, comets, Asteroids, Meteors
61. What are the Jovian or gas Planets?
• Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
• Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
• Earth, mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus, Pluto
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
62. Terrestrial planets are
• Rocky
• Close to the sun
• Small
• All of the above
65. What is the order of the planets from the sun?
• Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
• Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
 Victory Elijah Christian College
CIVIC GRADE 8 MARCH – 4TH QUARTER TEST

Name: __________________________________________________ Score: ____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the word of the correct answer.

1. What will you do if you see Gado-gado?

• Run away
• Say hello
• Eat it
• Take off your clothes
2. What is Indonesia's national bird?
• The Eagle
• The Garuda
• The green and red Parrot
• The Pigoen
3. What is the largest active Volcano you can visit in East Java?
• Bromo
• Krakatoa
• Toba
• Merapi
4. Which island has a three coloured lake?
• Sumbawa
• Bali
• Belitung
• Flores
5. Which national park can you see wild orangutans?
• Bukit Baka Bukit Raya – Kalimantan
• TessoNilo – Sumatra
• Aketajawe-Lolobata – Maluku
• KepulauanTogean - Sulawesi
6. What part of the body should you wear a koteka?
• On your head
• On your feet
• On your chest
7. How many islands are there in the world's largest archipelago?
• 135
• 3,232
• 17,508
• 205,508
8. What does the Indonesian Motto "Bhinneka Tunggal Ika" mean?
• You look Good
• Adventure Islands
• Paradise
• Unity in Diversity
9. Which of these four remarks is NOT true?
• Indonesia has a border with Brunei
• The islands were first named Indonesia in modern times by a
German geographer in 1884
• Indonesia is the world's largest archipelago
• Indonesia is the largest country in Southeast Asia
10. Indonesia was formerly known as what?
• German East Indies
• British East Indies
• Portuguese East Indies
• Dutch East Indies
11. In the period 1942-1945, the country was occupied by what other
country?
• The Netherlands
• Portugal
• Korea
• Japan
12. In what year did Indonesia celebrate 60 years of independence?
• 1995
• 1999
• 2005
• 2000
13. Which countries have an official land boundary with Indonesia?
• Malaysia, Papua New Guinea and Timor-Leste
• Malaysia, Australia and Brunei
• Malaysia, Singapore and Thailand
• Malaysia, India and Philippines
14. Indonesia has an estimated number of 6,000 inhabited islands. But
what is the estimated total number of islands?
• 17,000
• 9,000
• 11,000
• 15,000
15. The Indonesian flag is similar to the flag of what other country?
• Monaco
• The Netherlands
• Philippines
• Luxemburg
16. Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia.
• True
• False
17. What is the main religion in Indonesia?
• Protestant
• Hindu
• Catholic
• Islam
18. On what island is Jakarta?
• Celebes
• Java
• Borneo
• Ambon
19. The Malay Peninsula was labeled by Ptolemy, the Hellenistic Egyptian
geographer and astronomer, on his early map. What name did he give it?
• Argenta Malaya
• Terra Malayana
• Aurea Chersonesus
• Terra Aurima
20. Ptolemy called the important straits along the Malay Peninsular
“Sinus Sabaricus”. What is the modern name?
• The Straits of Malaya
• The Straits of Malacca
• The Straits of Sunda
• The Straits of Singapore
21. Westerners arrived in Malaya early in the 16th century. Malacca, a
trading port then, was captured and colonized in 1511. Of what
nationality were the first European colonists?
• English
• Spanish
• Portuguese
• Dutch
22. This sultanate controlled the maritime trade passing along the
southern edge of the Malay Peninsular in the 15th century before being
captured by the Western colonizers. It slowly declined after that.
• Sulu Sultanate
• Malaccan Sultanate
• indanao Sultanate
• Penang Sultanate
23. Treaty in 1824 divided the Malay Archipelago into two spheres of
influence, which in turn gave rise to separate nations of Indonesia
and Malaysia. What is the treaty called?
• Anglo-Spanish Treaty
• Anglo-Portuguese Treaty
• Anglo-American Treaty
• Anglo-Dutch Treaty
24. How did Malaya gain independence from the British in 1957?
• By a United Nations resolution
• Communist takeover and blood bath
• Local democratic elections, local government and eventual
independence
• Revolutionary war of independence
25. What of these states and/or territories were added to what was then
Malaya to form Malaysia in 1963?
• All of these
• Sarawak
• Sabah (British North Borneo)
• Singapore
26. The King of Malaysia is known in Malaysia as:
• The Grand Sultan
• ThePerdanaMenteri
• The Grand Emir
• The Yang
• Di PertuanAgong
27. Kuala Lumpur has been the capital since independence. Its name
has a meaning in Malay. “Kuala” means confluence of rivers (it also
means estuary). What does “Lumpur” denote?
• Rubber
• Tin
• Mud
• Palm Oil
28. What nation’s flag does the Malaysian flag design resembles most
closely?
• United States
• Indonesia
• United Kingdom
• Saudi Arabia

29. What country is this?

• Australia
• Antarctica
• Vietnam
• Cambodia

30. Name this country.

• Laos
• Indonesia
• Vietnam
• China

31. What country is number 10?

• Malaysia
• Indonesia
• Thailand
• Singapore
 32. What country is number 4?
• Japan
• Cambodia
• Vietnam
• China

33. What country is number 5? It is the only

landlocked country.
• Thailand
• Cambodia
• Vietnam
• Laos

34. How many island make up Indonesia?

• 17,500
• 25,000
• 2,500
35. ______ an area that includes Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam and Myanmar
▪ Malay archipelago
▪ Malay peninsula
▪ Indochina peninsula
▪ Brunei
36. A ______________ is a piece of land surrounded by water on three sides
• Island
• Peninsula
• Country
• River

37. What country is this?

• Thailand
• Vietnam
• Cambodia
• China
38. What is capital of Vietnam?
• Hanoi
• Wellington
• Seoul
• Tokyo

39. What country is this?

• Singapore
• Indonesia
• Malaysia
• Brunei
40. Name this country.
• Philippines
• Japan
• Taiwan
• New Guinea

41. Name this island.

• Java
• Indonesia
• Papa New Guinea
• Myanmar

42. What country is this?

• Vietnam
• Cambodia
• Thailand
• Laos
43. What is the capital of Cambodia?
• Beijing
• Angkor Wat
• Ho chi Minh City
• Phnom Penh
44. What country is number 9?
• Malaysia
• Brunei
• Indoesia
• Philippines

45. What country is number 1?

• Japan
• China
• United States
• Mexico
46. This country is part of both mainland & island Southeast Asia
• Thailand
• Malaysia
• Brunei
• Singapore
47 What is the metropolitan population of Malay Archipelago?
• 1419
• 1302551
• 350 million.
• 1071
48 Where is Malay Archipelago?
• Valley Forge
• Bolivar (state)
• Southeast Asia
• Helsinki
49. Where does Malay Archipelago come from?
• Papua New Guinea
• France
• United Kingdom
• Saint Lucia
50. The Sunda Islands comprising the Greater Sunda Islands and ________
• Maluku Islands
• Lesser Sunda Islands
• Indonesia
• East Nusa Tengara
51. The ice age boundary was formed by the deep water straits
between Borneo and Sulawesi; and through the Lombok
Straitbetween ________ and Lombok.
• Jakarta
• Central Java
• Indonesia
• Bali
52. The six largest islands are New
Guinea, Sumatra, ________, Sulawesi, Java, Luzon.
• Malaysia
• Southeast Asia
• Indonesia
• Borneo
53.The racial concept was proposed by European colonialists based on their
observations of the influence of the ethnic Malay empire, ________.
• Majapahit
• Malacca Sultanate
• Srivijaya
• Kediri (historical kingdom)
54. The main religions in this region
are Islam, Christianity, Buddhism, Hinduism and traditional ________.
• Polytheism
• Gnosticism
• Animism
• Soul
55. The common name was derived from the concept of a Malay
race,[6] which included the peoples of modern-day ________, Malaysia, and
the Philippines.
• Singapore
• Indonesia
• East Timor
• Vietnam
56. Situated between the Indian and ________, the group of 25,000 islands is the
world's largest archipelago by area.
• Arctic Ocean
• Southern Ocean
• Atlantic Ocean
• Pacific Ocean
57. Which group of countries does not physical border each other?
• India, China, and Nepal
• Japan, Republic of Korea and Russia
• Thailand, Cambodia and Laos
• All of the above
• None of the above
58 Which group of countries are not all located in or border on the Indian
Ocean?
• Sri Lanka, Madagascar, and Maldives
• India, Sri Lanka and Nepal
• India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan
• all of the above
• none of the above
59 Which country is not adjacent to the Pacific Ocean
• Chile
• Mauritius
• Cook Islands
• all of the above
• none of the above
60. Which groupings does not list countries that area all part of Oceania?
• Marshall Islands, Japan, and New Zealand
• Vanuatu, Tonga, and Samoa
• Fiji, East Timor, and Cook Islands
• all of the above
• none of the above
62 Which groupings does not list countries that area all part of Southeast Asia?
• Brunei, Indonesia, and Cambodia
• Malaysia, Vietnam, and Singapore
• Philippines, East Timor and Korea
• all of the above
• none of the above
63. Which countries are in the top 10 list of most populated countries in the
world?
• India, China, and Bangladesh
• Indonesia, Pakistan and Brazil
• Russia, Nigeria and the United States
• all of the above
• none of the above
64. Which of these countries share at least one time-zone?
• China, India, and Russia
• China, United States, and Russia
• China, Japan, and Thailand
• all of the above
• none of the above
65 Which languages are spoken in Singapore?
• English, Mandarin, and Malay
• Chinese, Indian and Japanese
• Mandarin, Cantonese and Thai
• all of the above
• none of the above
66. Which are capital cities in the Asia-Pacific?
• Port Moresby, Sydney, and Wellington
• Canberra, Kuala Lampur, and Jakarta
• Toyko, Singapore, and Saigon
• all of the above
• none of the above
67 What do Bhutan, Laos and Nepal have in common?
• They are the all speak the same language.
• They are the only countries in the Asia-Pacific region are “landlocked”
• They are the only countries in the Asia-Pacific that have monarchies.
68. Which are currencies not found in the Asia-Pacific?
• yen, bhat, and dollar
• pula, krone and rand
• won, rupee, and pound
69. There was an early settlement long before the arrival of Stamford Raffles. It
was located between the mouth of the Singapore River and a small
watercourse known today as Stamford Canal. What was the original name of
this stream?
• Fresh Water Well
• Fresh Water Lake
• Fish Water Spring
• Fresh Water Spring
70. When did the first junk transporting immigrants from China arrive in
Singapore?
• 1820
• 1821
• 1822
• 1823
71. The earliest mosque in Singapore is believed to be
• Jamae mosque
• Omar mosque
• Al Abrar mosque
• Hajjah Fatimah mosque
72 The oldest Jewish synagogue is the MaghainAboth built in 1878. It is located
at
• Queen Street
• Waterloo Street
• Victoria Street
• BencoolenStret
73. The Sikhs make up a small but significant proportion of the Indian
population of Singapore. They began arriving in Singapore from as early as
1881. Committed to their religion, they set about establishing temples. Today,
the Central Sikh Temple is an imposing building, capped by an impressive
dome. Where is it located?
• Queen Street
• Silat Street
• Towner Road
• Serangoon Road
74. It is interesting to know that it was a wealthy Arab Muslim who donated the
land for two non-Muslim buildings in Singapore. One of them was
• Armenian Church
• St Andrew's Cathedral
• Methodist Girls' School in Sophia Road
• Church of True Light off Serangoon Road
75 In 1875, the government bought over the old Parliament House for $15,000.
What purpose, then, did it come to serve?
• Quarantine centre for new immigrants
• Lookout point for smuggling
• The first government hospital
• Supreme Court of the colonial government
76 On what occasion was the bronze statue of Stamford Raffles moved from
its original site to its present location in front of the Victoria Memorial Hall?
• Queen Victoria's Golden Jubilee
• The coronation of Queen Elizabeth II
• Singapore's centenary celebrations
• After the surrender of the Japanese in 1945
77 Today we are familiar with what is referred to as the Padang. It was,
however, not known as the Padang until 1906. What was the original name
given to it by Stamford Raffles?
• The Walk
• The Bay
• The Flatland
• The Plain
78 The Istana is today the official residence of the President of the Republic of
Singapore. The word means 'palace' in Malay. What was the name given to it
when it was first built?
• Governor's House
• Colonial House
• Temasek House
• Government House
79. In which year was the Istana built?
• 1869
• 1879
• 1871
• 1872
80. Who supervised the construction of the Istana?
• A J F McNair
• George D Coleman
• C Ronald MacPherson
• John Napier
81. Where was Tan Tock Seng Hospital originally located?
• Outram Park
• People's Park
• Moulmein Road
• Pearl's Hill
82. The site at which City Hall stands today was once occupied by the homes
of private individuals. It was an oversight that led to the land sale. Stamford
Raffles had wanted the site reserved for administrative buildings. The private
homes eventually gave way to City Hall. When was City Hall built?
• Between 1928 and 1931
• Between 1927 and? 1930
• Between 1926 and 1929
• Between 1929 and 1932
83. Who designed the Supreme Court Building?
• George Coleman
• Colonel Jackson
• Henry McCallum
• Dorrington Ward
84. PulauUbin was once of great value to the main island of Singapore
because of a valuable item it could offer. What was that item?
• Fish
• Sand
• Vegetables
• Granite
85. When did Raffles Hotel open for business?
• 1877
• 1887
• 1896
• 1892
86. The Alsagoffs have always been a prominent family in Singapore. Their
history can be traced back to 1824 when the first of them arrived in Singapore
from Yemen, which is today south of Saudi Arabia. Beginning with trading in
spices, the family went on to own land in different parts of Singapore and were
engaged in various charitable activities. Who was the old patriarch of this
family?
• Syed Abdul Raman TahaAlsagoff
• Syed Mohammad Ahmad Alsagoff
• Syed Mohammed Alsagoff
• Syed Ali RedhaAlsagoff
87. What was the name given to Keppel Harbour when it began to service
ocean going vessels?
• TanjongPagarHarbour
• New Harbour
• Singapore Harbour
• Raffles Harbour
 88 KeppelHarbour was named after Captain Henry Keppel. Who was he?
• Governor of the Straits Settlements
• Governor General of India
• Admiral of the British Navy
• Commodore of the British Merchant Fleet
89 Singapore's only suspension bridge is the
o Read Bridge
o Ord Bridge
o Cavenagh Bridge
o Anderson Bridge
90 Which was the first bridge to be built across the Singapore River?
• Elgin Bridge
• Montgomery Bridge
• Coleman Bridge
• Pulau Saigon Bridge
91 Vietnam has a centuries-old tradition of resisting foreign domination. Who
among the following led early efforts to win independence from China?
▪ The Trung Sisters.
▪ Kublai Khan.
▪ Bao Dai.
▪ All of the above.
92. During World War II, Ho Chi Minh and his Vietminh organization developed
the strategy that would eventually force the French out of Vietnam. It included:
• Emphasizing the Vietminh's commitment to Communism and social
revolution.
• Tapping Vietnamese nationalism, promising independence, and
pledging democratic reforms.
• Fighting other nationalist groups.
• Collaborating with the Japanese.
• All of the above.
93. This organization helped Ho Chi Minh wage guerrilla war against the
Japanese during World War II:
▪ The Office of Strategic Service (OSS)
▪ The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
▪ The KGB
▪ The Chinese Nationalist government
▪ The British Secret Service
94. The French government sought to reassert its authority in Indochina
following World War II for which of the following reasons:
▪ Control of Indochina would restore Franc’s faltering prestige
▪ Indochina possessed valuable oil reserves
▪ The French Government feared that Vietnam would fall into anarchy in
the absence of French rule
▪ Continued French control of Indochina would prevent the USSR from
dominating Southeast Asia
▪ All of the above
95. In the late 1940s, Truman Administration policymakers abandoned
America's earlier opposition to continued French control of Indochina because:
▪ They viewed the colonial system as the best way to assist developing
regions.
▪ They wanted to maintain good relations with Paris in order to ensure that
France would continue to help contain Soviet power in Europe.
▪ Ongoing French control facilitated American economic penetration of
Vietnam.
▪ France promised to grant independence to Vietnam by 1950.
▪ All of the above.
96 American officials determined that they could not support Ho Chi Minh for
the following reason:
▪ His close ties with Chinese Nationalist leader Chiang Kai-shek.
▪ His steadfast refusal to promise tax-free monopolies for U.S. imports.
▪ His deeply held Communist beliefs.
▪ His refusal to accept American military aid in 1947.
97 In 1950, this leader proved crucial for the formal Chinese and Soviet
recognition of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam:
• Joseph Stalin.
• Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Chiang Kai-shek.
• Mao Zedong.
• Josep Tito.
98 In 1950, the Truman Administration shifted from pro-French neutrality to
outright support for Paris in its war with the Vietminh because of:
• Heightened Cold War fears in the wake of the Soviet Union's detonation of
an atomic bomb in 1949.
• The Communists' victory in the Chinese civil war.
• The strong realization that the loss of further territory to Communism would
come at a steep domestic political price.
• The belief that the fall of Indochina to Communism would force resource-
starved Japan into the Communist Bloc.
• All of the above.
99 The Domino Theory held that:
• The fall of Indochina to Communism would rapidly lead to Communist
domination of all of Southeast Asia.
• Southeast Asian nations would stand up to Communism like a wall of
dominos.
• The fall of Indochina to Communism would have little impact on other
nations in the region.
• All of the above.
100 TheBao Dai government that France established in 1950 was notable
because:
• It was Vietnam's first truly independent, post-colonial government.
• American officials unequivocally supported it.
• It was a puppet government designed to obscure continued direct
French control of Vietnam.
• It was a compromise solution that enjoyed the strong support of Ho Chi
Minh
• All of the above.