11.

August 2018

1. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection.

Option A. to protect against freezing at altitude.
Option B. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat.
Option C. to protect against continuous flushing.
Correct Answer is. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat.
Explanation. AWN 57 Para.2.3.

2. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheats by.

Option A. thermal protection.
Option B. water cooling.
Option C. cooling fan on timer switch.
Correct Answer is. thermal protection.
Explanation. AWN 57.

3. Elevator Mount: 04 two hinges on each side???

4. The mach trim is initiated by.

Option A. the autopilot motor.
Option B. an electric motor.
Option C. a PCU.
Correct Answer is. the autopilot motor.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 231.

5. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?.

Option A. Mach/Speed Trim.
Option B. Pitch Trim.
Option C. Electric Trim.
Correct Answer is. Mach/Speed Trim.
Explanation. NIL.

5. Mach trim operates.

Option A. along the longitudinal axis.
Option B. to reduce Dutch roll.
Option C. along the lateral axis.
Correct Answer is. along the longitudinal axis.
Explanation. NIL.

6. A Mach Trimmer is a device which.

Option A. prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No.
Option B. switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range.
Option C. automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Correct Answer is. Automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Explanation. NIL.

7. Tuck-under can be counteracted by.

Option A. trim tabs.

Option B. aileron reversal.
Option C. mach trim.
Correct Answer is. mach trim.
Explanation. NIL.

8. In autopilot with THS in motion, the.

Option A. elevator is inhibited.
Option B. Auto Trim is inhibited.
Option C. Mach trim is inhibited.
Correct Answer is. Auto Trim is inhibited.
Explanation. NIL.

9. While balancing trailing down (Tail down is under balance/ Nose Down is over balance) - It is Over
Balancing/Under balancing

10. Area Rule - Gradually Increases and decrease in fuselage area from front to rear

Area rule is an aerodynamic technique used in the design of high-speed aircraft.

If drag is to be kept to a minimum at transonic speeds, aircraft must be slim, smooth and
streamlined

“For the minimum drag at the connections, (wing/fuselage), the variation of the aircraft’s total
cross-sectional area along its length, should approximate that of an ideal shape having minimum
wave drag”.

The fuselage cross-section could be increased with the use of enlarged sections behind and in front
of the wings to eliminate sudden changes in the cross-sectional area and achieve the same result.
11. Variable Intake

Main criteria are that the airflow reaching the compressor stage of the engine during cruise ideally
does not exceed Mach 0.5. This is normally achieved by the careful design of the intake ducts.

Air velocity will reduce to 0.8 Mach in the back of final shock wave and then 0.5 Mach by diffusion.

12. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is.

1. Subsonic.
2. Supersonic.
3. stationary.
Correct Answer is. subsonic.
Explanation. A dumb question, as the definition of the boundary layer is 'airflow ranges from zero to
99% of free flow speed' However, by same definition, some flow in the boundary layer is ALWAYS less
than Mach 1.

13. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is thicker than if the
aircraft were travelling slower than.

Option A. Mach 1.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. supersonic.
Correct Answer is. stationary.
Explanation. Boundary layer at supersonic speeds is very thin and considered negligible. Part of it is
stationary. b) is the 'best' answer.

14. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up.
Option A. ram air is circulated around the tank.
Option B. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted.
Option C. cabin air is bled around the tank.
Correct Answer is. cabin air is bled around the tank.
Explanation. NIL

15. Where is the temperature overheating switch located in a hydraulic pump?

Option A. In the pressure line.
Option B. In the suction line.
Option C. In the case drain.
Correct Answer is. In the case drain.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8.

16. Sump Drain

17. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the.

Option A. 28 V DC bus.
Option B. 115 V AC.
Option C. battery.
Correct Answer is. 28 V DC bus.
Explanation. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1, A320 FCOM 28.30 pg1.

18. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from.

Option A. tank to tank.
Option B. left tank to right tank.
Option C. any tank to any engine.
Correct Answer is. any tank to any engine.
Explantation. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1

19. An hydraulic closed system is one where.

Option A. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times.
Option B. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required.
Option C. most of the major components of the system are included in a self-contained unit.
Correct Answer is. Pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times.
Explanation. AL/3-21 12.1-12.3.

With this type of system, operating pressure is maintained by the pump in that part
of the system which leads to all the selector valves, and some method is used to
prevent over-loading the pump when no selection is made. All consumer circuits have
the same pressure supply – but share the flow rate so individual flow rates might be
different.

20. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurized aircraft to.

Option A. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option B. provide access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option C. provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Correct Answer is. Provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Explanation. Example DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure
caused floor to collapse. Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter.
21. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from.
Option A. Kevlar.
Option B. monolithic Nomex.
Option C. Fibreglass and resin.
Correct Answer is. Fibreglass and resin.
Explanation. AWN 80 Para.2.3 and 4.1.1.

21. Cargo Pannel are made up of;

22. QFE Set zero –Aircraft lands –What happens

QNE ICAO standard mean sea level

pressure of 1013.25 hPa.

QFE Ambient static pressure existing at

mean airfield level at any particular
time of the day i.e. the time the
pressure value is required.

QNH Mean sea level pressure at any

particular time of the day, or is
QFE converted to QNH by using
ICAO standard atmosphere tables.

23. QFE Set Zero What is indication

24. LRU Equivalent in IMA?

Integrated Modular Avionics (IMA) is a progression from LRUs that only carry out one single
function to one which uses a common LRM. This common part, called a platform, is in effect
a computer. This computer is of a standard design and is open architecture which means
that any manufacturer can produce it so with the economies of scale the cost to airlines
should fall. Much in the same way that the personnel computer (PC) designed by
International Business Machines (IBM) were allowed to be copied by other manufacturers
who only had to follow the standard. On this IMA platform the computer can run
applications, it is the application or applications which are the avionic system. If one
platform fails the applications can be opened up on another platform within the aircraft, so
we have now created a more fault tolerant system.
In an aircraft incorporating IMA, Line Replaceable Modules (LRM) is used. These are
small in size and are housed in groups, in a LRU or rack. This arrangement helps to reduce
the amount of cabling for communication between systems or sub-systems and therefore
the weight and space taken up by the avionic packages. The picture below shows a rack
housing multiple platforms (LRM’s?)
The advantages of an IMA LRU system could be considered to be the opposite of the
standard LRU model aviation has used:
⮚ The platform is a standard item; it is the application/s which decides its function.
⮚ There is a standard that all IMA platforms should conform to.
⮚ A modification of a system is by software upgrade.
⮚ Platforms are interchangeable so less spares have to be kept in stock.

25. EFIS system Items (EFIS) - Primary Flight Display and Navigation Display

26. Fault display – Through Flight Management Computer(FMC) in Control and Display Unit (CDU)
27. AIRPLANE CONDITION MONITORING SYSTEM (ACMS)
The ACMS (Boeing 777) collects monitors and records data from the aircraft’s
system. The data collected by the system is used to produce reports. These reports
are used to:
1. Analyse airplane performance.

2. Analyse trends.

3. Report significant events.

4. Troubleshoot faults.

23. Open System: The main advantage of this system is its simplicity, and the main disadvantage is
that, only one service can be operated at a time.

24. Fuel Jettison:

Controllers are to recommend to flight crew that jettisoning of fuel should be carried
out above 10,000 feet agl. Exceptionally, if fuel dumping at this level, or over water,
is operationally impracticable or inconsistent with safety, fuel may be jettisoned
above 7000 feet agl in winter and above 4000 feet agl in summer
25. Wing Attachment

The wings can be mounted above or below the passenger compartment. As

already mentioned, wings are usually attached to the fuselage with multiple
attachments, although light aircraft may still have wings attached with as few as
two bolts.
The horizontal and vertical stabilisers can be fitted to the fuselage in numerous different
ways. When the horizontal stabiliser is fitted part-way up or on the top of the vertical
stabiliser, there will be only one strong attachment point. Otherwise, there will be separate
attachments for the fin and for the left and right tailplane sections. Where a moving
horizontal stabiliser is employed, the attachment will consist of left and right rear pivot
fittings and a single forward attachment to a trim actuator. On rare occasions, the rear
fuselage is manufactured, together with the stabilisers, as one integral unit. Because the
loads generated by the empennage, it is usual to find that the rear fuselage structure has
stronger frames around the stabiliser attachment points. These frames transmit the loads
along the fuselage and away from the tail.
The same technique is used when the engines are attached to wing or to rear fuselage
mounted pylons The Fokker 70/100, for example, has oblique frames to connect the vertical
stabiliser to the top mounted tailplane and to the fuselage, plus two heavy frames to
transmit all the engine thrust loads into the fuselage.
Strengthened Frames Figure

26. Oxygen purging is a process of.

Option A. Pressure testing the system.
Option B. Measuring the flow rate from the regulator.
Option C. Removing moisture from the system.
Correct Answer is. Removing moisture from the system.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p19 para 6.

27. To purge and unpleasant odor/ moisture from an oxygen system you must.
Option A. completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times.
Option B. completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
Option C. completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times.
Correct Answer is. Completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
Explanation. NIL.

28. Display screen backlight in IFE?

The light source can be made up of:

● Light-emitting diodes (LEDs)

● An electroluminescent panel (ELP)
● Cold cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFLs)
● Hot cathode fluorescent lamps (HCFLs)
● External electrode fluorescent lamps (EEFLs)
● Formerly, incandescent lightbulbs

29. Android Capsule in O2 System

 a) Toilet Flush Protection
b) Elevator Mount – How many
c) While Balancing Trailing down- It is Over Balancing/Underbalancing
d) Mach trim is controlled by
e) Area Rule
f) Mach 0.5 -10 PSI for Variable Intake
g) Supersonic Intake
h) Sump Drain
i) Cross Feed Valve Definition
j) Closed System Definition
k) Cargo Panel made Up of
l) QFE Set zero –Aircraft lands –What happens
m) QFE Set Zero What is indication
n) LRU Equivalent in IMA?
o) EFIS System Items
p) Fault Display
q) ACMS is for what
r) Open System Definition
s) Helicopter Fire System
t) Jettison Height
u) Wing Attachment
v) Span Attachment
w) Oxygen Purging
x) Display Screen Backlight in IFE
y) Android Capsule in O2 System

30. RMI has input from

a. Radio Only

b. Azimuth gyro

c. Compass

Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194.

31. What happens if CIDS Fails?

a. Effect the PA

b. Effect the Cabin Function

c. No. Effect

32. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.

Option A. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Option B. Determine the fuel tanks are empty.
Option C. Remove all optional equipment.
Correct Answer is. Install critical stress panels or plates.
Explanation. NIL.

33. On the Left Turn –Turn Indicator goes to left side of the indicator

34. In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it.

causes
Option A. anoxia.
Option B. begins to overheat.
Option C. blocks the oxygen system regulator.
Correct Answer is. blocks the oxygen system regulator.
At low pressure, air can mix with the oxygen. The moisture in the air freezes as the gas e
Explanation. the system
and blocks the regulator. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 14-17.

35. If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI.

Option A. the diluter stick will stick.
Option B. the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia.
Option C. condensation will cause corrosion.
Correct Answer is. condensation will cause corrosion.
Explanation. NIL.

36. How temp. is increased in the positive displacement blower type

37. How Automatic O2 Mask is deployed

The release of the panel and masks is via a 28V dc operated
solenoid connected electrically to an aneroid capsule operated switch set at
14,000ft. At this altitude the switch operates and the panel opens
automatically and the masks drop out on their lanyards.

'drop-out' masks, which activated if the cabin pressurisation has failed.

1. 38. Modern Aircraft Cargo floor panel material- Carbon /Nomex Sandwich ( Kevlar, Glass Fiber and
TFPT)

39. On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by.

Option A. rope.
Option B. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.
Option C. netting.
Correct Answer is. side cart guides and fore and aft latches.
Explanation. NIL.

40. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is.

Option A. PTFE.
Option B. aluminium.
Option C. soft rubber.
Correct Answer is. soft rubber.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 3.9.

41. Distance Between seat back and the nearest structure

42. Distance Between seat back and the nearest structure

43. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks.

Option A. provide wing bending relief.
Option B. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing.
Option C. reduce tailplane download.
Correct Answer is. provide wing bending relief.
Explanation. NIL.

44. In Case of the Landing Gear Collapsed

a. Fuel duct should not cause fire hazard

b. Should not enter in the cabin

45. Electrical Recline Seat

46. Spar Web Definition - What is the normal form of construction of a spar?.
Option A. Two webs separated by a boom.
Option B. One boom mounted under a web.
Option C. Two booms separated by a web.
Correct Answer is. Two booms separated by a web.
Explanation. NIL.
A spar web is.
Option A. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.
Option B. an area between two spar caps.
Option C. a rib/spar joint.
Correct Answer is. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.
Explanation. NIL

47. Pure Bending Means

48. Ultimate Load:

What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

Option A. Flying Hours.
Option B. Pressure Cycles.
Option C. Landings.
Correct Answer is. Flying Hours.
Explanation. NIL.
Strength requirements are specified in terms of limit loads (the maximum loads to be expected in
service) and ultimate loads (limit loads multiplied by prescribed factors of safety). With respect
to aircraft structure and design, ultimate load is the amount of load applied to a component beyond
which the component will fail. The chance that it will occur is, however, not zero, and, if it were to
occur, then the relevant structure in the aircraftwould stand a large chance of fracture.
During the testing for determination of the loads, no fracture must occur at the ultimate load for a
period of 3 seconds.
The ultimate load is related to the limit load Bn, using the concept of safety factor, j. The relation is as
follows:
Bu >= 1.5 Bn

How Much time minimum structure should hold before getting damaged on maximum ultimate load?
3sec, 5 Min, 30 Min

49. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.

Option A. In the pressure line.
Option B. In the suction line.
Option C. In the case drain.
Correct Answer is. In the case drain.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8.

Temperature sensor location in hydraulic system, we drain???

50. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.
Option A. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
Option B. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going
aileron.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce
the induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw.

Aileron Deflection Produce – Induce Drag or Profile drag

51. In FMS how data is loaded- First load the one and cross load to the other

52. ATIMS Communicates A/C

A. By ACARS System
b. VHF/HF System
C. SATCOM System
Aviation Technical Information Management System

ACARS is.
Option A. a satellite communication system.
Option B. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.
Option C. a navigation system.
Correct Answer is. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250.

53. What is the purpose of Main fan in Air-conditioning?

In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to.

Option A. ensure positive duct pressure is maintained.
Option B. ensure conditioned air is distributed.
Option C. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Correct Answer is. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

54. Anti-Skid System is deactivated

- 15 to 25 MPH

55. Active Load Controlled by Spoiler/ Aileron

Active load control involves.

Option A. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed.
Option B. intervention & monitoring the human pilot.
Option C. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 292.

Active load control uses.

Option A. elevator and aileron.
Option B. aileron and spoiler.
Option C. elevator and stab.
Correct Answer is. aileron and spoiler.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function).

56. Hot Rod Ice detector Head is anti-ice after the ice has been deposited;
CAAIP Part 2 AL 11/6 Page 583
This consists of an aluminium alloy oblong base (called the plinth) on which is-mounted a steel tube
detector mast of aerofoil section, angled back to approximately 300 from the vertical, mounted on
the side of the fuselage, so that it can be seen from the flight compartment windows. The mast
houses a heating element, and in the plinth there is a built-in floodlight.

The heating element is normally off and when icing conditions are met ice accretes on the leading
edge of the detector mat. This can then be observed by the flight crew. During night operations the
built-in floodlight may be switched on to illuminate the mast. By manual selection of a switch to the
heating element the formed ice is dispersed for further observance.

57. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?

Option A. Screwdriver torque test.
Option B. By a motor load test.
Option C. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement.
Correct Answer is. Screwdriver torque test.
Explanation. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.'
Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6.

58. CMC fault display is controlled by –

The CMCS supports both line and extended maintenance functions through menu selections on the
Maintenance Access Terminal (MAT) or Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT). Other
menu selections support special maintenance functions, on-line help and report production.
The Aeroplane Condition Monitoring System (ACMS) monitors for any system faults, if a fault is
detected, a maintenance message is sent to the CMCS. The CMCS processes the data and shows a
maintenance message so the maintenance crew can examine it and find a corrective action

59. An automatic slat will lift by itself (by Suction) when the angle of attack is.
Option A. low.
Option B. high or low.
Option C. high.
Correct Answer is. high.
Explanation. NIL.

60. Zone 100- Below fuselage floor (Lower Fuselage)

61. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary, what action
should you adopt?
Option A. Upgrade it to primary.
Option B. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary.
Option C. Grade it as secondary.
Correct Answer is. Upgrade it to primary.
Explanation. NIL.

62. Primary Structure is shown in Red, Secondary in Yellow and Tertiary in Green.

TERTIARY STRUCTURE
This type of structure includes all portions of the structure in which the stresses are low, but
which, for various reasons, cannot be omitted from the aircraft. Typical examples include
fairings, fillets and brackets which support items in the fuselage and adjacent areas.

63 . When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted.
Option A. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Option B. the secondary stops have been over-ridden.
Option C. the secondary stops will just be in contact.
Correct Answer is. a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops.

All duplicated runs are routed separately through the aircraft to avoid one incident damaging
both control runs.
The first action is to set the cockpit control to neutral and to lock it in this position, using the
equipment provided for the particular system. The rest of the control run is then adjusted to
the neutral setting and locked in that position, often by using rigging pins. Generally speaking,
control surfaces are in neutral when they are in line with the main surface to which they are
attached. An exception to this is where the trailing edge of the aileron is set a specified amount
below the main plane trailing edge. This setting is known as aileron droop.

64. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain

generator outputs at the same voltage.
Option A. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or
more generators.
Option B. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs.
Option C. to prevent CSD shock loading.
Correct Answer is. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between
two or more generators.
Explanation. NIL.

65. Circulating currents are associated with.

Option A. AC and DC generators in parallel.
Option B. AC generators in parallel.
Option C. DC generators in parallel.
Correct Answer is. AC generators in parallel.
Explanation. NIL

Eddy currents are.

Option A. circulating currents.
Option B. caused by resistance of the coil.
Option C. caused by heating effect of the coil.
Correct Answer is. Circulating currents.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.google.com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents

Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by.

Option A. tacho generators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies.
Option B. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed.
Option C. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
Correct Answer is. Circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
Explanation. NIL.

66. HIRF Low frequency Loop Resistance

In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return
should not exceed.
Option A. 0.05 ohm.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 1 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.

67. In Integrated Flight System, Deviation is shown in?

a. EHSI & EADI b. EHSI c. EADI

On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the.
Option A. EHSI & EADI.
Option B. EADI.
Option C. EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI and
EADI.

68. Wheel and Tyre Assembly is stored at 20/30 PSI

The tyres on assembled wheels not required for immediate use should be inflated to
a pressure of 140 to 210 kN/m2 (20 to 30 lbf/in2) for storage and shipment. CAP 562 32-10 Page 23.

69. On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?.

Option A. Top of wheels closer to fuselage.
Option B. Front of wheels closer to fuselage.
Option C. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage.
Correct Answer is. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage.
Explanation. http://www.desertrides.com/reference/terms.php#C

On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the.

Option A. bottom of the wheels are closer together.
Option B. top of the wheels are closer together.
Option C. front of the wheels are closer together.
Correct Answer is. bottom of the wheels are closer together.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13.

69. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field.

Option A. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output.
Option B. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output.
Option C. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Correct Answer is. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin page 199-200.

70. Hinge Rib in Horizontal Stabilizer

71. A servo tab is operated.

Option A. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Option B. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when
moved.
Option C. automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control
surfaces.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23.

71. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.

Option A. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
Option B. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Option C. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
Correct Answer is. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Explanation. AL/3-24 para 4.2

Aerodynamic balance is used to.

Option A. make the flying controls easier to move.
Option B. prevent flutter of the flying controls.
Option C. reduce the control load to zero.
Correct Answer is. make the flying controls easier to move.
Explanation. NIL.

72. While Moving Control Colom it jumps to full load position, what is the cause.

73. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Option A. Standby compass.
Option B. Hydraulic pump.
Option C. Windscreen heating.
Correct Answer is. Windscreen heating.
Explanation. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild.
74. Windscreen heating is supplied from.
Option A. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
Option B. DC generator, via a transformer.
Option C. frequency wild generator, via a rectifier.
Correct Answer is. frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett, page173, fig.10-29.

75. Windscreen autotransformers.

Option A. step down voltage.
Option B. step up voltage.
Option C. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions.
Correct Answer is. step up voltage.
Explanation. AL/11-4 4.2.2.

76. Hot /cold ice 2 Q

77. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?

Option A. Increase acidity.
Option B. Increase viscosity.
Option C. Increase alkalinity.
Correct Answer is. Increase acidity.
Explanation. Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis.

78. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by.
Option A. cabin over pressure relief valve.
Option B. altitude sensor.
Option C. bellows in the outflow valve.
Correct Answer is. altitude sensor.
Explanation. CAIP AL/3-23 para

Outflow Safety Valve.

79. Positive Displacement Type Blower- How to increase temperature

80. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first passes across an expansion turbine, then
directly to the.
Option A. heat exchanger.
Option B. passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat
exchanger.
Option C. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
Correct Answer is. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion
turbine.
Explanation. NIL.

Heat cooling in aircraft system- Expansion Turbine

81. Absolute Pr. = Gauge Pressures + Ambient Pr.(14.7 PSI)

82. FMS System -Load One & cross Feed to other

83. Flexible type fuel tank

84. In a fuel system with interconnected vents.

Option A. an expansion space is not required.
Option B. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
Option C. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.
Correct Answer is. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
Explanation. JAR 25.945

Each reserve oil tank not directly connected to any engine may have an expansion
space of not less than 2% of the tank capacity.
85. Float Valves
Each wing tank is provided with an additional vent opening. This opening is connected to the
corresponding venting line and controlled by a vent float valve situated at the highest point of the
tank.

86. Integral fuel booster pumps.

Option A. require ram air cooling.
Option B. lets the fuel do cooling.
Option C. require no cooling.
Correct Answer is. lets the fuel do cooling.
Explanation. NIL.

Cross feed valve is cooled by fuel itself.

87. Biocide should be burn

When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment.

Option A. it is added to the fuel and burnt.
Option B. it is applied dry and left.
Option C. it is applied wet and flushed out.
Correct Answer is. it is added to the fuel and burnt.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3.

Most common Fuel additives are Anti-icing and anti-microbiocidal which are pre mixed in the fuel by
fuel distributing company.

88. EEC Database is example of field database

89. Dutch role is movement in.

Option A. yaw and roll.
Option B. yaw and pitch.
Option C. pitch and roll.
Correct Answer is. yaw and roll.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291

90. Instability giving roll and yaw.

Option A. is longitudinal stability.
Option B. is lateral stability.
Option C. is dutch roll.
Correct Answer is. is dutch roll.
Explanation. NIL.

91. Ultimate Load =Limit Load

92. Static Balance

Static balance is the tendency of an object to remain stationary when supported from its own CG. There are two
ways in which a control surface may be out of static balance. They are called underbalance and overbalance. When a
control surface is mounted on a balance stand, a downward travel of the trailing edge below the horizontal position
indicates underbalance. Some manufacturers indicate this condition with a plus (+) sign. An upward movement of
the trailing edge, above the horizontal position indicates overbalance. This is designated by a minus (–) sign.
These signs show the need for more or less weight in the correct area to achieve a balanced control surface.

93. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure.
Option A. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
Option B. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
Option C. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Correct Answer is. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Explanation. NIL.

94. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.

Option A. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Option B. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
Option C. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

95. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.

Option A. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Option B. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Option C. increase stability.
Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

96. IFE System Standard Display =Moving map + Safety Precaution

97. Mach Constant * Altitude =TAS Decrease

An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will.
Option A. not change.
Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer is. decrease.
Explanation. Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease.

Mach Number is defined as.

Option A. TAS divided by local speed of sound.
Option B. speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound.
Option C. IAS divided by the local speed of sound.
Correct Answer is. TAS divided by local speed of sound.
An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. remain the same.
Correct Answer is. remain the same.
Explanation. NIL

98. Inflation of Life Vest

Life jackets use a co2 cylinder to give rapid inflation once the passenger is outside the aircraft. The
buoyancy of the jacket is then controlled by use of a mouthpiece to further inflate the jacket. The
jackets are inspected at 6 monthly intervals for condition and inadvertent operation. The water-
activated light is checked for insulation resistance by measuring across the terminals, which should
be of at least 1 Megohm. Inadvertent operation of the light is checked by signs of chemical reaction
and the co2 bottle is checked by weighing it on a laboratory scales.

99. Pure bending is a condition of stress where a bending moment is applied to a beam without the
simultaneous presence of axial, shear, or torsional forces. Pure bending occurs only under a

constant bending moment (M) since the shear force (V), which is equal to , has to be equal to
zero. In reality, a state of pure bending does not practically exist, because such a state needs an
absolutely weightless member. The state of pure bending is an approximation made to derive
formulas.

100. Containers are typically boxes shaped to the contour of the aircraft fuselage to maximise the
capacity of the freight bay. They can be made from, alloy honeycomb of fiberglass.

Cargo Container Are constructed of

101. Commission regulation No (EC) 1702/2003 Annex Part 21 – Certification of aircraft and
Related products, parts and appliances, and of design and production organizations

Any modification to cabin part configuration is as per part 21.

All design changes, repair design and initial design associated with EASA aircraft must
be in accordance with Part-21 and approved either by EASA or by an appropriately
Approved Part-21 Subpart J design organisation.

Modifications shall be compliant with the requirements of EASA Part 21

Organisations required conducting flight tests required by Part-21.

102. .What happens when there is leak in Hydraulic System? – Increase in Temperature

What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?

Option A. Fluid loss.
Option B. Increase in fluid pressure.
Option C. Increase in fluid temperature.
Correct Answer is. Increase in fluid temperature.
Explanation. Increase in temperature is an indication of internal leaks.
103. Two components of CMC are:
a. Interactive and Passive
b. Passive & ……
C. Interactive and ……

104. RAT is preferred in energy source because

a. It doesn’t have any safety impact
b. It is autonomous in operation

Receiver Autonomous Integrity (RAIM)

105. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to.
Option A. ensure positive duct pressure is maintained.
Option B. ensure conditioned air is distributed.
Option C. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Correct Answer is. ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

106. Warning Display is controlled by?

107. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from.
Option A. ambient and minus.
Option B. zero and positive.
Option C. zero and positive.
Correct Answer is. Ambient and minus.
Explanation. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.

108. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.
Correct Answer is. To the left.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43

109. On a swept Back Wing in which of the following location would Krueger flap be fitted?
a. Inboard Leading Edge

110. A wing of low Thickness /chord (Fineness Ratio= Thickness /chord) the Critical Mach Number of
Aerofoil will
a. higher than the wing of high thickness/chord ratio
(Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back increases M.crit.)
111. Diffusion Bonding and Superplastic forming provides
a. High Strength and high stiffness
b. High Stiffness and high ductility
c. high Strength and high ductility

112. Semi monocoque construction

a. Utilizes the safe life design concept
b. Is used only for the fuselage
c. offers good damage resistance
Explanation. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3.

113. Most Large Transport Aircraft upper wing skin are

a. 7075
b. 5056
c. 2024
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8.
Wing Stringers -2024

114. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.

Option A. Soft rubber.
Option B. Fire-proof grommets.
Option C. None is required.
Correct Answer is. Fire-proof grommets.
Explanation. NIL.
a. None
b. Tight fitting Plastic bushings and rubber grommet
c. Tight fitting fireproof bushing and grommets.

115. A cargo bay must have signs stating.

Option A. no hazardous cargo.
Option B. maximum dimensions.
Option C. maximum loadings.
Correct Answer is. maximum loadings.
Explanation. Usually, pallet size is fixed, but the weight is critical.

116. Windshields are heated to.

Option A. maintain strength and toughness only.
Option B. prevent misting and icing only.
Option C. demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.
Correct Answer is. Demist, ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.
Explanation. NIL.

117. A leading edge slat is attached to the.

Option A. slat track.
Option B. wing upper skin.
Option C. front spar.
Correct Answer is. slat track.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm

118. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for
the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of.
Option A. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the
frame.
Option B. the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the
frame.
Option C. the known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing.
Correct Answer is. the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared
with the frame.
Explanation. NIL.

119. Jet engines are usually mounted by.

Option A. aluminium castings.
Option B. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.
Option C. welded steel tubing.
Correct Answer is. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.
Explanation. NIL.

120. A spill valve opens.

Option A. to prevent an excessive pressure difference.
Option B. to control the flow to the cabin.
Option C. to control the air from the cabin to outside.
Correct Answer is. to control the flow to the cabin.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.

121. Longerons are usually constructed of

a. Pressed or rolled Al Alloy
b. Forged Al Alloy
c. Cast Al Alloy
 122. On a large modern aircraft freight and baggage are transported using
a. Specially designed containers
b. nets and lashed down
c. loose in the cargo hold

123. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on.

Option A. the number of explosive decompressions.
Option B. the total number of pressurizations.
Option C. the number of negative differential pressure applications.
Correct Answer is. the total number of pressurizations.
Explanation. AL/3-23.

124. A cantilever wing is a.

Option A. usual airliner wing.
Option B. top wing of a biplane.
Option C. swept-back wing.
Correct Answer is. usual airliner wing.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2.

125. Wing Mounted engine pylons are attached to the wing

a. Front Spar
b. Skin
c. Front and Rear Spar

126. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.
Option A. Shear.
Option B. Tension.
Option C. Bending.
Correct Answer is. Shear.
Explanation. A 'web' always takes shear loads.

127. A horn balance is.

Option A. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
Option B. a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are
attached.
Option C. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16

128. Correct sequence for vapour cycle cooling system?

 a. Compressor, Condenser, Expansion Valve, evaporator

129. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is.
Option A. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.
Option B. constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.
Option C. variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.
Correct Answer is. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude.
Explanation. NIL.

130. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first passes across an expansion turbine, then
directly to the.
Option A. heat exchanger.
Option B. passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat
exchanger.
Option C. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
Correct Answer is. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion
turbine.

131. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by.

Option A. controlling the water vapour in the supply.
Option B. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger.
Option C. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.
Correct Answer is. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3.

132. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc.
must be.
Option A. removed.
Option B. all open.
Option C. all closed.
Correct Answer is. all open.
Explanation. AL/3-23 12.3.4.

133. A safety valve will normally relieve at.

Option A. lower differential pressure than the discharge valve.
Option B. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve.
Option C. negative differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve.
Explanation. NIL.

134. +/- Symbol on a compass system indicates

 a. Magnetic Deviation and compass card in alignment
b. Failure of the compass system
c. Compass card and directional gyro are being synchronized

135. The glass cockpit on a modern transport a/c will utilize

a. LCD Screens
b. CRT Screens
c. LED Screens

136. A pitot or static leak check is carried out.

Option A. only when an instrument is changed.
Option B. only when a leak is suspected.
Option C. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
Correct Answer is. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
Explanation. AL/10-1 15.5.

137. Turn and Slip Indicator Needle points to the left when the aircraft is
a. Turning Left
b. Turning Right
c. Banking Left

138. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will.

Option A. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Option B. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Option C. warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded.
Correct Answer is. warn when Mcrit is reached.
Explanation. Mach overspeed warning (aka 'henpecker' - cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit
(shown by the barber pole on some ASIs).

139. How is direct reading compass made to be aperiodic ?

a. By eddy current damping
b. The compass bowl is filled with fluid
c. By damping vanes incorporated in azimuth card.

140. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings.
Option A. a leak check is not required.
Option B. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Option C. a leak check is always required.
Correct Answer is. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.

141. How does an IRS calculate velocity?.

Option A. Differentiation of laser gyro.
Option B. Double integration of accelerometers.
Option C. Integration of accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. Integration of accelerometers.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191.

142. Radio Communications are typically

a. Simplex b. Full Duplex c. half duplex

116. Wind Screen heating is supplied by – Frequency wild direct to wind shield
117. Wind screen auto transfer is step up
118. Hot /cold ice 2 Q
119. Serrated ice detector bench test – By S/O torque test
120. Hydraulic Acidity
121. Outflow Safety Valve
122. Positive Displacement Type Blower- How to increase temperature
123. Heat cooling in aircraft system- Expansion Turbine
124. FMS System -Load One & cross Feed to other
125. Absolute Pr. = Pressures Gauge + Ambient Pr.
126. Flexible type fuel tank
127. 2 % of …..Capacity (Fuel)
128. Float Valve
129. Cross Feed valve
130. Cooled By Fuel
131. Biocide Should be burn
132. EEC Database is example of field database
133. Fuel Cross feed valve 20 V DC
134. Dutch Roll = Yaw + Roll
135. Ultimate Load =Limit Load
136. Pure Bending
137. Static Balance
138. Dynamic Balance in Flight Control
139. IFE System Standard Display =Moving map + Safety Precaution
140. Emergency Equipment are placed where
141. Mach Constant * Altitude =TAS Decrease
142. Mach in TAS /Local Speed of Sound
143. Inflation of Life Vest
144. Cargo Container Are constructed of
145. Cargo floor- Kevlar, Glass Fiber and TFPT
146. Cargo are secured by ….front and aft
3. When to Jack the Aircraft
4. Leveling the Aircraft
5. On the Left Turn –Turn Indicator goes to left side of the indicator
6. How temp. is increased in the positive displacement blower type
7. What happens if o2 pressure is below 500 PSI
8. How Automatic O2 Mask is deployed
9. Modern Aircraft Cargo floor panel material
10. Electrical Recline Seat
11. How Cargo Container secured in the aircraft
12. Pressure Bulkhead is Sealed By
13. Distance Between seat back and the nearest structure
14. Where are emergency equipment placed in the aircraft
15. In Case of the Landing Gear Collapsed
a. Fuel duct should not cause fire hazard
b. Should not enter in the cabin
16. Spar Web Definition
17. Pure Bending Means
18. Ultimate Load
19. Temperature sensor location in hydraulic system, we drain???
20. Aileron Deflection Produce – Induce Drag or Profile drag
21. EFIS System Consists of
22. In FMS how data is loaded- First load the one and cross feed to the other
23. ATIMS Communicates A?C
a. By ACARS System
b. VHF/HF System
C. SATCOM System
24. What is the purpose of Main fan in Air-conditioning?
25. Anti-Skid System is deactivated
- 15 to 25 MPH
26. Active Load Controlled by Spoiler/ Aileron
27. How black rod ice is anti-ice by
28. How to test the serrated type ice detector
29. What happens when there is leak in Hydraulic System? – Increase in Temperature
30. CMC fault display is controlled by –
31. Automatic Slat deployed at high angle of attack by –Suction
31. Area Rule- Gradually Increases and decrease.
32. Zone 100
33. Tertiary Structure
34. Control Run
35. What is circulation Current?
36. HIRF Low Frequency loop Resistance
37. In Integrated Flight System, Deviation is shown in?
a. EHSI & EADI b. EHSI c. EADI
38. Serrated Ice Detector Ground Test
39. Wheel and Tyre Assembly is stored at 20/30 PSI
40. Positive Camber in Wheel
41. Voltage Regulator
a. Voltage Coil Parallel with generator output
b. Current coil Parallel with generator Output

42. Hinge Rib in Horizontal Stabilizer

43. Servo Tab Purpose
44. Dynamic Balancing in Control Surface Means
45. While Moving Control Colom it jumps to full load position, what is the cause.