Class 9 Code C

NUCLEUS SCHOLARSHIP EXAM.
(NSE) 2018-19
CLASS – IX
SCHOLARSHIP TEST C
Time : 2 Hrs. Max. Marks : 320
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions. The maximum marks are 320.
2. This question paper consisting of 80 questions as follows:
Single Choice Question (Only one correct response) :
Physics Q.1-10, Chemistry 11-20, Biology 21-30, Mathematics 31-45 and Mental Ability 46-60.
Integer Type (One or two digit response) : For example answer 1 should be written as 01
DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR.

Physics Q.61-65, Chemistry 66-70, Mathematics 71-80.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (Four) marks for correct response. No mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect
response.
4. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone, any
electronic device (calculator) etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at
the bottom of each page.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORS) to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.
7. NSE answer key will be displayed on www.nucleuseducation.in on 14 th August, 2018 at 5 pm IST.
8. Please match the answer key with the correct paper code from the nucleus website.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the ORS by applying sufficient pressure. This will leave an impression at the
corresponding place on the Candidate’s Sheet.
10. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
11. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS and Question Paper. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
12. Write your name, roll number and paper code and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS.
Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of
your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS
13. Use a BLACK or BLUE BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
14. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
15. The correct way of darkening a bubble is:
16. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
17. Response like this : will be considered incorrect.
18. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or “un-darken” a darkened bubble.
Name of the Candidate Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177,  0744-2423333
www.nucleuseducation.in
webs ite : www.careerpoint.ac.in | e-mail : pfd@ cpil.in
Scholarship Test (Class-IX – Code-C) PCCP
SINGLE CHOICE QUESTION

Physics (Q.1 to 10)
1. The point where movement occurred which triggered the earthquake is the
(A) Dip (B) Epicenter (C) Focus (D) Strike
2. The inverted U-tube manometer contains oil (SG = 0.9) and water as shown. The pressure differential
between pipes A and B, pA − pB, is −5 kPa. Determine the differential reading, h.
(A) 0.45 m (B) 0.55 m (C) 0.35 m (D) 0.40 m
3. In a concave mirror an object is placed at a distance of ‘X1’ from the focus and it's image is formed at a
distance ‘X2’ from focus. The focal length of the mirror is?
(A) X1*X2/(X2+X1) (B) – X1*X2/(X2+X1) (C) X1* X2 (D ) – X1* X2
4. A small conducting ball hangs on a nylon thread between 2 oppositely charged metal plates. What happens to
the ball when it is given a slight negative charge?
(A) It moves to the left, touches the plate and sticks there
(B) It moves to the right, touches the plate and sticks there
(C) It moves to the left and then back and forth continuously, touching the plates
(D) It moves to the right and then back and forth continuously, touching the plates
5. In a medium sound travels 2 km in 3 sec and in air, it travels 3 km in 10 sec. The ratio of the wavelengths of
sound in the two media is
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 1 : 18 (C) 8 : 1 (D) 20 : 9
Space for rough work
H.O. 92, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Kota (Raj.) Mob. 97831-97831, 70732-22177, Ph. 0744-2423333 www.nucleuseducation.in 2
2 2
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of precipitation?
(A) Snow (B) Hail (C) Rain (D) Clouds
7. Which Constellation is known as “The Swan”?

(A) Capricornus (B) Canis Major (C) Cygnus (D) Lyra
8. Which of the following phenomenon occurs when sunlight is incident on water droplets present in
atmosphere and rainbow formation occurs in air?
1- Refraction
2- Dispersion
3- Total Internal Reflection
4- Scattering of Light
(A) Both 1, 2 (B) Both 1, 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
9. Spiderman starts running towards a standing bus and he suddenly saw a child falling from the roof of a
building, he tried to use his superpowers of spider webs and save the child but was not able to use his powers
and collided with a bang with bus. He ran for 30 seconds and his speed was 54km/hr. What will be the force
exerted by Spiderman on bus due to the collision? (Mass of Spiderman = 68 Kg)
(A) 68 N (B) 34 N (C) 17 N (D) 51 N
10. In which case friction will be maximum (Inclined plane is not subjected to scale)
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)
Chemistry (Q.11 to 20)
11. Richa and Sneha were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker. Sneha kept the
beaker in the yellow part of the candle flame. Richa kept the beaker in the outermost part of the flame. Whose
water will get heated in a shorter time?
(A) Sneha (B) Richa (C) Both (D) None of these
12. Which of the following statements are correct?

(I) The process of rusting can be called combustion.
(II) Producer gas is prepared by passing air over red hot carbon.
(III) Both soda acid type and foam type extinguisher can be used fighting electrical fire.
(IV) Water gas is prepared by passing steam over red–hot carbon.
(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) III, IV (D) II, IV
3 3
13. A metal which produces hydrogen gas on reacting with alkali (NaOH) as well as with acid (HNO3).
(A) Fe (B) Mg (C) Zn (D) Cu
14. Read the table carefully :
S. No. Reaction Product formed Characteristic test
1. When ash of magnesium ribbon Milky solution Turns red litmus solution blue
added into water
2. Copper metal dipped in fresh Blue solution Turns blue litmus solution red
solution of silver nitrate
3. Aluminium foil dipped in fresh Colourless & Burns with a pop sound
solution of sodium hydroxide Odourless gas
4. Copper vessel exposed to moist air Green coating Turns red litmus solution blue
Identity the product formed and their nature.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) Mg(OH)2, basic CuO, basic O2, neutral Cu(OH)2.CuCO3; basic
(B) MgO, basic CuO, basic N2 neutral CuCO3 basic
(C) Mg(OH)2, basic Cu(NO3)2, acidic H2, neutral Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 ; basic
(D) MgO, basic CuNO3, neutral H2, neutral CuO, basic
15. Study the characteristics of a fuel given below
 It is a excellent fuel
 It has high calorific value
  It is the mixture of 3 gases. X, Y, Z.
X = gas which has lowest ignition temperature, Y = gas which is main constituent of natural gas, Z = gas
which is colourless, odorless, and toxic.
Among the following fuels which has the above characteristics.
(A) Producer gas (B) Coal gas (C) ammonical liquor (D) petroleum gas
16. Identify the elements which occur as solid in atmosphere.
Cl2, C, I2, Na, F2, He, B
(A) B, I2, Cl2, F2 (B) He, Na, C, B (C) C, I2, Na, B (D) C, Na, B, Cl2
17. Study the following equations and mark the correct option :
4NO 2 + X + Y  4HNO3
SO2 + Y  H2SO3
2SO2 + X + Y  4H2SO 4
CO2 + Y  H2CO3
Which of the following pairs are used in place of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the above equations?
(A) X = N2, Y = H2O (B) X = H2, Y = O2 (C) X = O2, Y = N2 (D) X = O2, Y = H2O
4 4
18. Fill in the blanks left in the classification of the fossil fuels.
p q u v w x
(A) Petroleum Coal Petroleum gas Bitumen Coal gas Coke
(B) Coal Petroleum Coal gas Coke Petroleum gas Bitumen
(C) Coal Petroleum Coal Charcoal Gasoline Coal tar
(D) Petroleum Coal Gasoline Bitumen Natural gas Coke
19. Match each description in the left column with the appropriate element in the right column.
(a) A waxy, white solid, normally stored under water (i) sulfur
(b) A yellow solid that burns in air (ii) Sodium
(c) A reddish brown liquid (iii) White phosphorous
(d) A soft, light metal that reacts vigorously with water (iv) Bromine
Which of the following option is correct –
(A) (a) - iv, (b) – ii, (c) – iii, (d) – i (B) (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – iv, (d) – ii
(C) (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – iv, (d) – i (D) (a) – ii, (b) – i, (c) – iii, (d) – iv
20. Energy conversion device Efficiency

P. Petrol engine (i) 10-40%
Q. Diesel engine (ii) 33-48%
R. Fossil fuel powered Electricity Generating plant (iii) 38-50%
S. Solar cell (iv) 25-35%
(A) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv (B) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv,
(C) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv (D) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i,
5 5
Biology (Q.21 to 30)
21. Latika observed her grandmother adding lots of salt on unripe mangoes to prepare pickles. Her grandmother
also added excess of oil in the pickle jar. What could be the reason for it?
(A) Salt prevents growth of microorganisms by retaining moisture in the food item and oil provides an
environment in which microorganisms cannot grow.
(B) Salt prevents growth of microorganisms by forcing them to lose water by osmosis and oil provides an
environment in which microorganisms cannot grow.
(C) Salt prevents growth of microorganisms by retaining moisture in the food item and oil prevents their
growth by forcing out water froSm them by osmosis.
(D) Salt prevents growth of microorganisms by forcing them to lose water by osmosis and oil prevents their
growth by retaining moisture in the food item.
22. What is an endangered animal?

(A) An animal on the verge of extinction
(B) An animal which is extinct
(C) An animal that is dangerous to other animals
(D) An animal that is useful to other animals
23. A type of agriculture practice which provide benefits of life long agriculture and improved food resources –
(A) Sustainable agriculture (B) Organic farming
(C) Vermicomposting (D) All of the above
24. For what blue revolution refers to –

(A) Wheat (B) Egg (C) Fish (D) Oil
25. Ammonia is converted to nitrite by ......... group.

(A) Nitrobacter (B) Azotobacter
(C) Nitrosomonas (D) Clostridium
26. In cell the site of oxidation is –

(A) ribosome (B) golgi apparatus
(C) mitochondria (D) endoplasmic reticulum
6 6
27. Refer to the given diagram with its parts labelled as P, Q, R and S. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding this ?
(A) In Q, the sperm and ovum fuse to form zygote.

(B) Development of foetus takes place in S.
(C) R is the site of implantation of embryo.
(D) One of the functions of P is to control secondary sexual characters.
28. Eutrophication is caused due to –

(A) water pollution (B) air pollution (C) soil pollution (D) noise pollution
29. A habitat change may result in the decline of the numbers of a given species. Such species slowly become P.
This means that the species are on the verge of becoming Q. Some animals whose number has gone down to
critically low levels are called R. A species is considered S when no member of the species is still alive.
Which of the following is correct sequence for P, Q, R and S in the above paragraph.
P Q R S
(A) Vulnerable Endemic Extinct Endangered
(B) Endangered Vulnerable Threatened Extinct
(C) Vulnerable Endangered Critically endangered Extinct
(D) Endangered Critically endangered Extinct Vulnerable
30. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in –

(A) protein synthesis (B) lipid synthesis (C) both (A) & (B) (D) none of the above
Mathematics (Q.31 to 45)

31. Find the compound interest on Rs. 8000 at 15% per annum for 2 years and 4 months, interest being
compounded annually.
(A) Rs 3309 (B) Rs 3109 (C) Rs 3209 (D) Rs 3190
32. Total number of perfect cubes from 1 to 100 are:

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 4
7 7
3 3 3 3
33. 21 + 22 + 23 + ........... + 30 =
(A) 44100 (B) 216225 (C) 172125 (D) None of these
34. If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9, x is 9 then the value of x is :

(A) 11 (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 16
35. Jasmine is a much better tennis player than Reshma. They decide to have a contest. Every time Jasmine wins
a game, she will earn 3 points and every time Reshma wins a game, she will earn 5 points. If they play 48
games and the final score is tied, how many games did Jasmine win?
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 18
36. Which of the following numbers does NOT have a multiplicative inverse?
(A)-1/3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3
37. 7 7 7 7 7 7 is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 7 (C) 763/64 (D) 731/32
1 1 1
38. Write the absolute value of  
2 3 5
13 13 17 17
(A) (B) – (C) (D) –
30 30 30 30
39. If Anil's salary is 20% less than Raju's salary, then by what percent is Raju's salary more than that of Anil?
(A) 25% (B) 20% (C) 75% (D) None of these
40. The perimeter of an isosceles trapezium is 168 metres. If the lengths of the parallel side are 36 m and 20 m
respectively, find the lengths of the non-parallel sides.
(A) 56 (B) 92 (C) 48 (D) 90
41. A number is selected from numbers 1 to 27. The probability that it is prime is :
2 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 3 9
8 8
42. Ten pipes are fitted to a tank. Some of these are filling pipes while the others are emptying pipes. Each filling
pipe can fill the tank in 8 hours. Each emptying pipe can empty it in 16 hours. All the pipes are opened
simultaneously. The tank takes 2 hours to be filled. How many filling pipes are fitted to it?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
43. Number of hours and minutes from 6 : 14 am to 8 : 02 pm on the same days is

(A) 2 h and 12 min (B) 12 h and 16 min (C) 13 h and 48 min (D) 14 h and 16 min
44. If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 articles, find the profit or loss percentage.
(A) 25% profit (B) 20% profit (C) 33.33% loss (D) 25% loss
45. 8 men can knit 8 baskets in 8 days. In how many days can 3 men knit 3 baskets?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) None of these
Mental Ability (Q.46 to 60)
Directions (Q.46 & 47) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are four counters I, II, III and IV at the Railway station for Tatkal, Platform, Reservation and General
tickets, but not necessarily in the same order. Four persons W, X, Y and Z are standing on these counters to
buy a ticket, but not necessarily in the same order.
W does not buy Tatkal or Reserved Ticket and he buys neither from counter no. II nor from counter no. III. Z
goes to the station to receive a guest. Y does not buy ticket from counter no. II. X does not buy Tatkal ticket.
Z buys ticket from counter no. IV.
46. Which of the following tickets can be bought from counter no. IV?
(A) Tatkal (B) Platform (C) Reservation (D) Can't be determined
47. W stands at which of the following counters?

(A) I (B) II (C) IV (D) Either I or IV
Directions (Q.48 & 49) : In each of the questions given below three statements are followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
(A) if only conclusion I follows.
(B) if only conclusion II follows.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
9 9
48. Statements: No day is a date.
Some dates are months.
All months are years.
Conclusions: I. Some months are definitely not days.
II. At least some years are dates.
49. Statements: Some doctors are lawyers.

No lawyer is a man.
No man is honest.
Conclusions: I. All doctors can never be men.
II. Some honest are lawyers.
Directions (Q.50) : Question given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and give answer
(A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the questions.
(C) if the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(D) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
50. Who scores the highest run in a match, among five players Ganguly, Dhoni, Ashwani, Yuvraj and Jedeja?
I. Ganguly scores equal to Dhoni, who scores five runs more than Ashwani.
II. Yuvraj does not score the highest run, but he scores nine runs more than Ashwani.
Directions (Q.51) : B is father of W and T. R is son of W. R. is the only brother of C. M is daughter–in–law of Z. Z

has only one daughter and only one son.
51. Which of the following is definitely true based upon the given relationships?
(A) W is son–in–law of Z (B) W has only one daughter
(C) T is aunt of C (D) T is married to M.
52. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. he cut each roll of equal length into 10
pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes?
(A) 32 rolls (B) 54 rolls (C) 108 rolls (D) 120 rolls
53. What will come in place of question mark (?) to make the expression E > M true but A < O not true?
A?M=N?OE
(A) =,  (B) ,  (C) >, < (D) , <
10 10
54. In the following question, a matrix of certain character is given. These characters follow a certain trend, row–
wise or column–wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character from the given alternatives.
23 529 1024
21 441 144
19 361 ?
(A) 1441 (B) 3529 (C) 8281 (D) 9361
55. In the matrix given below, the values of A, B and C are?

9 A 12
B 10 7
8 C 11
(A) A = 13, B = 11, C = 9 (B) A = 13, B = 9, C = 11
(C) A = 9, B = 11, C = 13 (D) A = 9, B = 13, C = 11
Direction (Q.56) : In this question, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.
56. 1015, 508, 255, 129, 66.5, ? , 20.875

(A) 34.50 (B) 35 (C) 35.30 (D) 35.75
57. A clock is set to show the correct time at 7 am Monday. The clock loses 15 minutes in 24 hour. What will be
the true time when the clock indicates 6 am on the Friday?
(A) 6 : 15 am Friday (B) 6 : 30 am Friday (C) 6 : 45 am Friday (D) 7 : 00 am Friday
Direction (Q.58) : In the following question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
58. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS

(A) ZLA (B) BMY (C) FOU (D) CNW
Directions (Q.59) : This problem contains a question and two statements labelled I and II giving certain data. You
have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of the data given in the
statements to answer the question. Mark your answer as
(A) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but cannot be answered by using the
other statement alone.
(B) If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(C) If the question can be answered by using both statements together but cannot be answered by using either
statement alone.
(D) If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
11 11
59. If Kumar joins Jagadish 7 days after Jagadish started the work, how much sooner, does the work get finished?
I. Jagadish takes 56 days to complete the work. But if the two worked together from the beginning they
1
complete the work in 31 days.
9
II. The efficiencies of Kumar and Jagadish are in the ratio 3 : 2 and they can together complete the work in
4
16 days.
5
60. A man has a job which require to works 8 straight days rest on the ninth day. If he started work on a Monday,
the 12th time he rest will be on what day of the week?
(A) Sunday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Wednesday
INTEGER TYPE (ANSWER IN TWO DIGITS)

Physics (Q.61 to 65)
61. Electrical energy consumed (in commercial unit of electrical energy) in lighting an electrical bulb of 60 W for
5 hours, three electric fan of 100 W for 2 hours, air conditioner of 1000 W for 3 hours and 50 W of lamp for
2 hours is
62. A convex lens, of focal length 30 cm, and a concave mirror, of focal length 20 cm, are placed co-axially 90cm
apart from each other. An incident beam parallel to its principal axis, is incident on the convex lens. Find the
distance in centimeters of the (final) image formed due to this combination from the optical center of convex
lens (in cm).
63. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface. Its radius doubles. If atmospheric pressure
is equal to that of column of water height H, then the depth of lake is nH, than n2 is
64. In a match of Tug of War there were two teams one consists of 4 players Roni, Rocky, Rickie, Raul and
another consists of single player Vikki. Masses of Roni, Rocky, Rickie, Raul& Vikki are 50 Kg, 45 Kg, 55 Kg, 50
Kg & 72 Kg respectively. Roni, Raul wears Nike shoes whereas Rocky, Rickie & Vikki wear Adidas shoes.
Roni, Rocky, Rickie & Raul were too much confident in the match so they just tied rope in their waist and
didn’t exert any force from their hands. Calculate the minimum force required by Vikki to win the match.
F
Give your answer in format.
10
Coefficient of Kinetic Friction between ground and Nike shoes = 0.2
Coefficient of Kinetic Friction between ground and Adidas shoes = 0.18
Coefficient of Static Friction between ground and Nike shoes = 0.22
Coefficient of Static Friction between ground and Adidas shoes = 0.2
12 12
65. Rajshekhar was standing 660 meters away from a hill and was able to hear his echo after 4 seconds. If
frequency of his voice is 330 Hz. Then find the wavelength of his sound produced in meters.
Chemistry (Q.66 to 70)
66. Find out the number of amorphous forms of carbon among the following?
Graphite, lampblack, coke, coal, fullerene, sugar charcoal, gas carbon, wood charcoal, diamond.
67. How many thermoplastics are present in the following?

Polyethene, Polypropylene, Bakelite, Melamine, Teflon, PVC, Formica
68. How many of the given reaction are correctly represented?

Cu + 2AgNO3  2Ag + Cu(NO3)2
Cu + ZnSO4  CuSO4 + Zn
Mg + HNO3  Mg(NO3)2 + H2O
Zn + PbSO4  ZnSO4 + Pb
Ca + H2SO4  CaSO4 + H2 
69. How many statements are correct in the following?

(i) Synthetic dyes, drugs, plastics, paints and photographic, materials are obtained from coaltar.
(ii) Carbon content in lignite is 85%.
(iii) Sulphuric acid is dehydrating agent.
(iv) Kerosene is not obtained as a fractional distillation of pertoleum.
(v) The temperature increase inside the fractionating column on going bottom to the top.
(vi) Petrol is more volatile than diesel
70. How many materials among the following which do not produce flame?
coal, matchstick, candle, camphor, magnesium, petrol and charcoal.
Mathematics (Q.71 to 80)
71. A pit 3 m x 24 m x 200 cm is dug. The earth dug out was evenly spread 12 m high on a 4 m wide platform.
Find the length of the platform.
72. Find out (A + B + C + D – 16) such that AB x CB = DDD, where AB and CB are two-digit numbers and
DDD is a three-digit number.
73. One fifth of a number diminishes one fourth of its successor by one. The number is
13 13
74. In the given figure, AB || CD, ALC = 60°, EC is the bisector of LCD and EF || AB. Then find (CEF –
100°) is equal to (Give your answer in degrees)
75. A man takes 80 days to complete a job. To complete this job, 4 men, 8 women and 4 machines take 5 days.
Alternatively, 4 men, 1 women and 2 machines take 10 days to complete the job. Find the time taken by
2 woman to complete the job (in days).
76. A mock IIT-JEE exam constitutes of 150 questions. Each correct answer fetches 4 marks. There is a penalty of
2 marks for every incorrect answer and a penalty of 1 mark for every unattempted question. Find the
1
percentage of marks scored by the students by attempting 120 questions of which 33 % are incorrect. (Give
3
your answer in percentage)
77. If 9  (n  2) 2 is a real number then find all the integral value of n.
78. If a = xyP–1, b = xyq-1 and c = xyr–1, find the value of aq–rbr-pcp–q
79. In the figure, parallelogram ABCD is composed of four congruent triangles. If BE = 3 cm and CE = 4 cm
then the perimeter of the entire figure is :
80. A sum is split into five equal parts. They are lent at annual rates of simples interests of 1%, 2%, 3%, 10% and
5%. They are lent for 6 years, 4 years, 3 years, 1 years and 1 years, respectively. The simple interest on how
many parts is at least 20% of the total interest?
14 14
15 15

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NUCLEUS SCHOLARSHIP EXAM.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR.

Name of the Candidate Roll Number

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

SINGLE CHOICE QUESTION

(A) 0.45 m (B) 0.55 m (C) 0.35 m (D) 0.40 m

7. Which Constellation is known as “The Swan”?

(A) (B) (C) 2 (D)

Chemistry (Q.11 to 20)

12. Which of the following statements are correct?

Space for rough work

20. Energy conversion device Efficiency

Space for rough work

22. What is an endangered animal?

24. For what blue revolution refers to –

25. Ammonia is converted to nitrite by ......... group.

26. In cell the site of oxidation is –

Space for rough work

(A) In Q, the sperm and ovum fuse to form zygote.

28. Eutrophication is caused due to –

30. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in –

Mathematics (Q.31 to 45)

32. Total number of perfect cubes from 1 to 100 are:

34. If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9, x is 9 then the value of x is :

Space for rough work

43. Number of hours and minutes from 6 : 14 am to 8 : 02 pm on the same days is

Mental Ability (Q.46 to 60)

47. W stands at which of the following counters?

49. Statements: Some doctors are lawyers.

Directions (Q.51) : B is father of W and T. R is son of W. R. is the only brother of C. M is daughter–in–law of Z. Z

55. In the matrix given below, the values of A, B and C are?

56. 1015, 508, 255, 129, 66.5, ? , 20.875

58. ZLA, BMY, CNW, FOU, HPS

INTEGER TYPE (ANSWER IN TWO DIGITS)

Space for rough work

Chemistry (Q.66 to 70)

67. How many thermoplastics are present in the following?

68. How many of the given reaction are correctly represented?

69. How many statements are correct in the following?

Mathematics (Q.71 to 80)

Space for rough work

77. If 9  (n  2) 2 is a real number then find all the integral value of n.

78. If a = xyP–1, b = xyq-1 and c = xyr–1, find the value of aq–rbr-pcp–q

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

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