Instrument

1. piezoelectric with pressure increase

A. linear and directly proportional
B. nonlinear and directly proportional
C. nonlinear and inversely proportional

2. INS platform consist of

A. 3 accelerator only
B. 3 accelerator + 1 gyro
C. 1 accelerator + 3 gyro

3. when steering wheel turn right (15/7)

A. left wing spoiler move upwards
B. right wing spoiler move upwards
C. right wing spoiler no effect

4. if fuel dielectric constant increase, tank unit capacitance is

A. decrease
B. increase
C. unchanged

5. wing tip usage

A. reduce induce drag
B. improve wing appearance
C. improve wing tip stall

6. lift augmentation (15/7)

A. flap + spoiler
B. slat + flap
C. spoiler + speed break

7. in CMC special function would like entry for checking

A. keying the function showing the word next to it
B. enter the special code
C. ?

7.1 CMC customarily for airline

A. by manufacture when delivery
B. use loader disc to change anytime
C. consist of note page and help page
8. CMC display
A. on upper EICAS
B. graphical representation of snapshot of performance
C. real-time snapshot of system performance
9. HDG mode input display on
A. HSI (selected HDG to AFDC)
B. RNAV and INS
C. display

10. optic fiber wire in flight control

A. immune interference
B. high transmission speed
C. light weight

10.1 compared with the wire, the principle of advantage of fiber-optic in conveying flight command
signal on the automatic flight control system
A. immunity electro-magnetic interface
B. faster transmit time
C. lower signal attenuation

11. LRU interchange

A. compatible
B. calibration
C. BITE test

12. flux valve input frequency to receiver

A. 400Hz
B. 800Hz
C. ?

13. compass with 20 degree error to earth

A. 5-7 degree/min
B. 0-2 degree/min
C. 2-5 degree/min

14. the stalling angle of a aerofoil with tab and no tab, tab has….
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
15. flap automatic deploy according to
A. speed
B. height
C. throttle position

16. pass information auto engage by

A Flap position
B. FLT attitude
C. FLT phase

17 spring tab on aileron (15/7)

A. use during high speed flight
B. normally not in use
C. ?

18. mach trim engage, with increase speed the elevator on the trailing edge will (15/7)
A Move up
B. Move down
C. At the neutral position

19. flap asymmetry protection fault

A. Flap disengaged
B. Pilot need to know yaw and not effect
C. Pilot control with electric actuator

20. Dutch roll occurs in which of the 2 planes

A. yaw plane, pitch plane,
B. yaw, roll
C. ?

21. ARINC 429

A. BIT 8
B. BIT 32
C. BIT 64

22. modern fly by wire aircraft data transmitted between computers

A. optical fiber
B. Arinc 429
C. ?
23. Which is consider to be aircraft instrument
A. N1 engine monitor, half cycle
B. Cabin pressure with needle pointer and digital region
C. Turbine speed clock type/long scale

24. Capsule
A. linear
B. Nonlinear
C. Use something like a spring and mech to make it linear

25. autopilot hydraulically operate the control surface, operation is

A. electrical signal
B. hydraulic fluid to motor
C. by control cable

26. to change software of CMC/LRU

A. onboard loader only
B. in shop only
C. onboard loader + shop

27. in compared to EICAS, ECAM

A. has provision for printing through ARINC 429
B. has no power up system self test
C. electronic library

28. helicopter hover transition signal

A. radio altimeter + heading
B. radio altimeter + Doppler
C. radio altimeter + GND speed

29. cyclic pitch

A. cyclic only
B. both
C. pitch only

30. Erratic control movement

A. flaps cannot deflect
B. flaps can deflect but no effect
C. hinge movement sometimes large and sometimes small
31. Q-feel system provides
A. feels for pilot
B. artificial balance
C. aerodynamic damping

32. flap asymmetry defected, flap (15/7)

A. drives to full up position
B. drives to full down position
C. locks to present position

33. Nose up/ Nose down is a result of (15/7)

A. stabilizer limit and stab trim cut off switch
B. clouth engagement
C. flap up/down switch

34. Automatic slat will up ( retract ) when AOA is (15/7)

A. increase
B. decrease
C. level

35. Automatic slat will up (retract ) when airspeed is

A. increase
B. decrease
C. level

36. Ruddervator is movement about

A. long & slat axis
B. long & ver axis
C. lat & ver axis

37. Position error

A. altitude
B. airspeed
C. mach number

38. Air data computer (ADC) include

A. AOA + airspeed
B. pitot-static + ture air speed
C. pitot-static + total air temperature
39. Air brake to slow down aircraft
A. no altitude change
B. control yawing
C. control rolling

40. without fly by wire, spoiler panel (

A. remain where the are
B. go to up
C. go to down

41. spoiler position normally biases

A. STOW
B. DEPLOY
C. 7 degree

42. Auto flight will disconnect

A. ADF fault
B. Gyro fault
C. ?

43. Instanouous ADC compare to conventional CADC because it has additional

A. sensor
B. capluse
C. accelerometer

44. Speed break control by

A. flap lever
B. speed break lever not sure
C. throttle lever

45. When A/C turn at a bank angle

A. A/C aileron remain one up & one down when the bank angle achieved
B. A/C aileron return to neutral position when the bank angle achieved
C. Both A/C aileron down when the bank angle achieved

46. For fuel tank, which are dielectrics?

A. fuel & air
B. fuel & capacitance metal tube
C. ?
47. If A/C fly by INS
A. Use magnetic north for reference
B. Fly great circle through sea & land around the world
C. Fly by radio station

48. GPWS mode 3. (15/7)

A. Cancelled when mode 5 engaged
B. terrain, terrain
C. below 700 feet and gear not down

49. GPWS mode 1

A. terrain, terrain (mode 2)
B. sink rate, sink rate
C. pull up, pull up

50. profile/VNAV mode coupled to A/T system

A. only if AP / FD in on
B. alone
C. only if A/C is on clean configuration

51. Autoflight mode not compatible (which mode are incompatible)

A. HDG sel + ALT HLD (VOR + ALT hold)
B. HDG HLD + A/S HLD (G/S + ALT hold)
C. ALT HLD + A/S HLD (HDG + V/S hold)

51.1 autoflight control mode is operated

A. automatic only
B. manual only
C. both automatic and manual
52. Speed break movement, spoiler panels response to (15/7)
A. control column movement
B. speed break lever through mixer unit
C. speed break lever through spoiler selector

53. Modern A/C development of non-volatile memory, improve

A. flight manual implement to LRU
B. maintenance manual implement to LRU
C. ?
54. Fortin barometer
A. fixed cistem only
B. fixed cistem with vacuum
C. variable cistem

55. rudder limitation factor

A. landing gear
B. stabilizer position
C. speed

56. P-static control mean ( the P-static principle is)

A. control p static level to minimum ( A. release the static to a threshold)
B. keep p at certain level ( B. prevent static concentration on some area)
C. ? (C. ? )

57. Vertical gyro data to auto throttle to control VG—pitch/roll

A. pitch data to control speed for auto throttle DG--- yaw
B. AOA
C. something about roll

58. Vertical gyro for pitch data, then roll by..?

A. separate rate gyro
B. vertical gyro
C. ?

59. Vibration pick up unit mount on the engine

A. a right angle to the axis
B. parallel to the axis
C. at direction depend on its design

60. Control surface snubber are (15/7)

A. controlled from the cockpit
B. controlled by the autopilot
C. self-contained unit

61. Torque motor is at (for rolling)

A. between outer and inner gimbal
B. between outer and instrument case
C. beween inner gimbal and instrument case
62. torque motor is at (for pitching)
A. between outer and inner gimbal
B. between outer and instrument case
C. beween inner gimbal and instrument case

63. A versine singal is generated from

A. yaw rate
B. roll rate
C. pitch and roll altitude

64. Capacitor type measurement for fuel quantity use to measure (15/7)
A. mass
B. volume
C. height

65. Autopilot mode of operation

A. change manually only
B. change automatically only
C. change can be both manually and automatically

66. compass (15/7)

A. same excitation frequency
B. double the excitation frequency
C. half of the excitation frequency

67. Fly by wire on transport type aircraft perform

A. autobrake, autopilot, auto throttle, spoiler
B. autopilot, auto throttle, flight management, flight control
C. auto throttle, flight management.

68. 3 level of FBW mode

A. manage, auto, manual
B. manage, command, input
C. manage, auto, command

68.1 between cockpit control and flight control surface on aircraft used fly-by-wire system
A. there is no direct mechanical control
B. there is back up mechanical reversion control allow for FCS computer failure
C. there is mechanical fallow up control
68.2 In the typic fly-by-wire flight control system, the digital data would most likely transmitted
between an individual computer system
A. co-locating all the computer in one computer rack
B. fiber optic link
C. ARINC 429 data bus

69. component P
A. North + south deviation (coefficient C)
B. East + west deviation (coefficient B)
C. North + west deviation

69.1 form the given information to give the value of coefficient C and coefficient D of the aircraft
magnet system
M H Dev M H Dev
000 +2 180 -1
045 +2 225 -2
090 +4 270 -2
135 +3 315 0
A. 3,-1
B. 1.5,-0.25
C. 0.5,-2.5

70. FBW (15/7)

A. input mode, managed mode, automatic mode
B. command mode, managed mode, automatic mode
C. manual mode, managed mode, automatic mode

71. Airplane at southern hemisphere, heading north, deviate (15/7)

A. east
B. west
C. no effect

72. in servo and balance tab system, pilot directly control (15/7)
A. servo tab
B. balance tab
C. control surface

73. Positive component P, maximum deviation

A. east
B. west
C. north

74. “ density altitude” definition

A. altitude density
B. same pressure altitude without compensation of temperature
C. …..with temperature correction

75. Flux valve A/C turning with an inclined angle A to earth horizontial component (H)
A. datum of the alternative magnetic force
B. stop at half of cycle
C. proportional to H sin A

76. velocity determined in FMC is come from

A. IRU
B. IRU and ADC
C. ADC

76.1 in a dual FMC system configuration, if a flight plan is created in one system, the “offside”
A. can be reviewed
B. create another flight plan
C. ?

77. specific gravity of the fully charged lead-acid battery

A. 1.15@80F
B. 1.261.285@80F
C. 1.261.285@100F

78. 2 types of thermocouple (elect temp indication )

A. bimetallic & resistive
B. thermoelectric & bimetallic
C. resistive thermometry & pyrometry

79. software program update by “on board maintenance system” can be achieved by
A. data loader a/c OBRM without changing computers
B. in workshop only
C. changing computer for software program update

80. which of following are controlled by FMS

A. Throttle, elevator, aileron
B. elevator, throttle, rudder
C. ailerons, elevator, flap

81. Washout circuit is

A. resistant circuit
B. integrating circuit
C. different circuit

82. Trim of stabilizer by hydraulic motor, auto trim system is achieved by (15/7)
A. control the hydraulic to stabilizer
B. via the trim electrical circuit
C. via stab trim electrical actuator

83. pressing test button on CMC (15/7)

A. only test the CMC computer
B. test LRU and device on connected to CMC
C. the system fault msg

84. column friction

A. by ramp input of step input > dead space
B. step input > overshoot and go to desired track
C. ?

85. Aircraft flight to east in northern hemisphere, the compass card will
A. turn clockwise + apparent turn towards north
B. turn clockwise + apparent turn towards south
C. turn anticlockwise + apparent turn towards south

86. INS platform in mounted on (15/7)

A. roll ring
B. pitch ring
C. azimuth ring

87. If A/C yaw to the left, what action should be take to compensate (15/7)
A. step on the left pedal
B. step on the right pedal
C. move the control column

88. Temperature compensation of liquid compass by

A. capsule mounted on base of compass bowl
B. bellow mounted on base of compass bowl
C. press relief valve

88.1 how the temperature compensated for in a liquid compass?

A. a sealed capusule inside the compass bowl
B. a bellow fitted to the base of the bowl
C. a capsule fitted to the base of the bowl

89. A/C flight pointing north in southern hemisphere, compass….

A. apparent shifts to east
B. apparent shifts to west
C. no effect on compass deviation

90. A/C flight pointing north in northern hemisphere, compass….

A. apparent shifts to east
B. apparent shifts to west
C. no effect on compass deviation

91. if select switch of data loader of onboard maintenance system is inadequate positioned, the FMS
A. the fault detected by the FMS will be immediately recorded to the inserted sloppy disk
B. FMS will be malfunctioin
C. no effect on FMS

92. Coupler of yaw damper system (15/7)

A. filter, process, et + integration, signal amplification
B. service manual + auto control
C. ?

93. Capacitor in batter to DC

A. filters AC
B. prevent voltage spikes
C. ?

94. servo control with ADL

A. microprocessor does calculation
B. A/D converts to servo
C. ?

95. when control column shakes

A. there exists stall at wingtip
B. wing is about to stall
C. wing is buffeting

96. Altitude = zero at takeoff and landing

A. QFE (zero)
B. QNE (standard 1013.25)
C. QNH (sea level)

97. QFE indication

A. zero
B. level
C. ?

98. To detect stall warning, small tab mount on wing will

A. tab goes up when wing stall
B. tab goes down when wing stall
C. ?

99. Compass safety distance means

A. Distance from center of compass to the equipment center
B. Distance max deviation of ?
C. the change of deviation due to the proximity of any component containing magnetic material is
less than 1 (the distance that material will not affect the compass)
(compass safe distance is measured from the pivot of the compass magnetic system to the nearest
point on the surface of the equipment)

99.1 the compass wire safe distance

A. to measure from the center of a magnet compass to the center of the nearest equipment
B. with followed, help the min acceleration error and turn error
C. the relevant of the allowable max deviation of a compass and the relative distance equipment

100. Airspeed indicator under read because of

A. pitot tube leak
B. static tube leak
C. both

101. in laterate system, autoflight guidance system received rate in proportional to

A. rate & displacement
B. rate & aerodynamic load
C. displacement & position
102. in yaw stability augmentation system mode, turn coordination get signal from
A. rudder position transducer
B. localizer receiver during autoland
C. aileron position transducer

103. fuel density increase capacitive type fuel sensor

A. fuel dielectric constant will change
B. fuel reading will change
C. fuel dielectric constant remain constant

104. pipe connect between static vent and instrument, it is

A. rise 6 degree
B. in level
C. ?
105. pendolus (compass), A/C turn
A. CG not ? location of axis
B. ? turn to an error when there is a dip angle
C. no effect

106. Dual (channel) autopilot, the additional channel function? (15/7)

A.
B.
C. Auto-land

107. Stall protection system

A. aid in breakaway ? of airflow (15/7)
B. smooth the turbulence flow on surface
C. ?

108. Fuel tank unit adjustment

A. indicate full in (lower position)
B. two potentiometer connected to it
C. ?

109. VOR at ? 00? Course heading at ? 10 ?

A. move to left 10 deg
B. move to right 10 deg
C. remain

110. CDI
A. A/Z dial is a ? 360deg anticlockwise
B. rotation ? inside central deviation
C. To/Form above A/C symbol and from parts of deviation needle

111. Auto throttle engaged during landing, to GO around mode

A. master auto throttle of A/P need to disengaged first
B. push the throttle lever with additional force
C. push the throttle lever with normal force

112. roll (demand signal is zero) in helicopter when

A. transition
B. hovering
C. both

113. velocity is determined in FMS by

A. INS
B. INS + ADC
C. ADC

114. Mach warning system

A. alternate speed bugs ? over speed warning
B. give audio warning clacker Hz when over speed
C. ?

115. fasten seat belt light ON under what auto logic

A. landing gear down and locked
B. flap level in retract position and altitude below 10000ft
C. passenger oxygen pression

116. Mode 2 GPWS, aircraft goes to a warning are result pitch up then
A. altitude gain control slops
B. audio warning change to too low terrain
C. the warning is disabled when gear down

117. Normal and alternate pitch sensor obtain signal respectively from
A. vertical reference gyro and rate gyro
B. INS platform and altitude reference gyro
C. ??? and rate gyro

118. The use of baffle in the pilot static tube

A. to induce turbulence inside the tube
B. to prevent the ingress of moisture into the tube
C. ?

119. Stall warning protection input signal from

A. AOA only
B. AOA and TAT
C. AOA and pitot-static tube

120. motor used in servo altimeter for

A. open the capsule to null position
B. move the pointer
C. ?

120.1 why is a motor needed in a servo altimeter

A. to drive the failure warning flag out of view
B. to provide power to move the counters a pointer
C. to force the capsules in their null position

121. During auto landing when instinctive release button on, auto throttle is disengaged
A. full engine power engaged
B. auto disconnect (???) warning engaged
C. auto disconnect (???) warning disengaged

122. Vibration indicator sense vibration via (15/7)

A. LVDT
B. Piezoelectric to produce electric charge
C. spring and permanent magnet

123. CMC main page is

A. Fault history
B. Central maintenance manual
C. monitor and system page

124. In typical EICAS system, the primary and secondary display switch is
A. by manual selection only
B. through a DSU (display switch unit)
C. automatically when an auto-land configuration is detected

125. Upper EICAS display

A. Primary engine data
B. Secondary engine data
C. Warning and caught only

126. Auto throttle in auto land disengaged when

A. Flare mode manoeurve
B. A/C speed below 80knots during roll out
C. when throttle level exceed maximum thrust limit switch

127. Auto throttle in auto land disengaged when

A. reverse thrust
B. sense aircraft touch on ground
C. manual

128. Flight augmentation computer (FAC) control what

A. rudder and yaw damper
B. spoiler and yaw damper
C. stab…. And…

129. Pitch trim in elevator tab automatic servo tab trimming

A. parallel operation to control the elevator actuator
B. not applicable
C. 3 phase motor to the stabilizer

130. the design and installation of ADC

A. the effect of temperature , pressure, density difference is ignored
B. read the same sea level altitude all over the world
C. ?

131. How to compensate the different shape of fuel tank

A. calibrate of fuel tank unit
B. ?
C. ?

131.1 now is linear variation in the shape of the tank unit compensated
A. compensate the individual tank unit
B. the design of the indicator
C. it can not be compensated

132. RMI indicator contain (VOR mode signal)

A. course select error and heading indication
B. ?
C. ?

133. Roll out mode determined by

A. Radio altitude
B. localizer
C. Pitch

134. Rate gyro is used to detect the rate of turn, when it is used to sense the banking, the gamble ring is
A. inclined to vertical position and along the aircraft longitudinal axis
B. reposition to vertical position and right angle to the aircraft lateral axis
C. in horizontal position and along the lateral axis

135. If a flight plan is entered to one of two computer, the other computer
A. can access to the computer which entered a flight plan review
B. ?
C. ?

136. GPWS
A. provide warning on excess sink rate and terrain clearance
B. guideline ??? to provide advice
C. 8 mode

137. versine is what? Versine attenuated by what ?

A. vertical reference unit A. IAS ( Versine is used for
B. rate gyro B. altitude autopilot co-ordinated turns )
C. air data computer C. mach

138. Two LRU is interchanged

A. it is essential that they are compatible and power off before interchange
B. it is essential that the are calibrated
C. bite test is carried out

139. Which fuel quantity measure circuit is used for measuring the mass of fuel
A. capacitive circuit
B. wheat stone bridge circuit
C. electrical resistance

139.1 ……. Fuel quantity circuit

A. ……… “empty” adjustment
B. ……… “full” adjustment
C. with a tester and with two potentiometer connected to it

140. Auto throttle disengaged when

A. on the application of thrust reverser
B. the A/C is during descent
C. gear touch on ground

141. Mode 3 GPWS

A. don’t sink
B. terrain
C. pull up

142. FBW usually operate

A. side stick or autopilot
B. autopilot, auto throttle
C. ?

143. the most critical system on fly-by-wire system (15/7)

A. flight guidance system (FGS)
B. flight control system (FCS)
C. flight management system (FMS)

144. In VOR heading is 000, then Omni range bearing changed to 010, the indicator needle will
A. turn left
B. turn right
C. turn right initially then go to left

145. In the flux valve compass mode, switch from slaved to DG mode
A. enable input from flux valve to DG
B. disable input from flux valve to DG
C. enable input from DG to compass display

146. …”airspeed attenuation” …. Elevator signal… control surface (15/7)

A. increase with increasing airspeed
B. decrease with increasing airspeed
C. unchanged with increasing airspeed

147. True pitch rate? (15/7)

A. Pitch and roll rate compensate by yaw computer
B. pitch and roll replacement
C. pitch and yaw rate compensate by roll computer

148. Flight director display unit control bar

A. actual path compared to required path
B. required path compared to actual path
C. actual path compared to horizon

149. Gyro not reach operating speed, indication will be

A. low
B. high
C. no effect

150. Automatic seat belt sign

A. gear not in lock position to below 10500ft
B. passenger oxygen depression
C. landing gear down and locked

151. Bank and turn indicator pointer and ball to left (skidding caused by insufficient bank angle)
A. skid (pointer and ball with same position)
B. coordinated turn
C. slip (pointer and ball in different position)

152. Dutch roll occurs (15/7)

A. lateral unstable, longitudinal stable
B. lateral stable and directional unstable
C. ?

152.1 Dutch roll is caused by

A. incorrect pilot’s maneuver
B. presence of shock wave on the wing
C. high lateral stability and low yaw stability

153. Dual motor servo tab

A. use in high speed
B. fast response
C. ?

154. Servotab connected directly to

A. pilot control and pedals
B. control surface by rods
C. by springs

155. engine vibration monitoring (15/7)

A. milliinch(1/1000) on each of engine display
B. millimeter per second on engine display
C. inches per second on engine display

156. Fuel tank nonlinear distortion

A. calibrated
B. compensated on indicator
C. no effect

157. pitot system

A. longer lines > smaller diameters
B. longer lines > larger diameters
C. same diameter

158. When flying in high mach region, mach trim will (15/7) (PITCH)
A. prevent A/C nose down
B. prevent A/C nose up
C. ?

159. trim tab

A. only monitor on ground
B. position appear on ground
C. use for flight control

160. For approach landing, mode of operation

A. shown when malfunction
B. always shown
C. shown when demanded

161. in flight stability augmentation (15/7)

A. for roll
B. for yaw
C. for pitch

162. Synchronization signal for auto flight

A. High gain, same phase for input
B. Low gain, same phase for input
C. High gain, inverted phase

163. Trim servo, to sustain in certain position for long time

A. autopilot control panel
B. computer amplifier
C. ?

164. Positive autopilot

A. Aerodynamic to maintain its neutral position
B. Flight control surface in small incremental movement
C. ?

165. GPWS mode 5

A. when glide slope and back course present
B. ?
C. ?

166. GPWS mode 1

A. below 2450ft radio altitude, below 154 knots
B. below 2450ft radio altitude
C. below 2450ft radio altitude, flap down and gear up

167. for auto throttle, control each engine

A. lowest specific fuel consumption
B. N1 and EPR in takeoff and landing
C. airspeed control

167.1 EPR mode in the A/T (auto throttle) is the only mode
A. cruise
B. approach
C. go-around

168. For approach landing, auto throttle

A. Flare, touchdown mode
B. airspeed mode
C. stall marginal

169. For the stabilizer trim, use two high speed servo motor when (low speed – cruise phase)
A. when flaps without retracted (take off or landing)
B. mach trim
C. when A/C reduces to certain value of speed

170. Artificial Horizon should install in

A. vertical gimbal
B. horizontal gimbal
C. aircraft horizontal structure

171. Final stage of self alignment is

A. coarse leveling termination
B. fine leveling in azimuth
C. fine compassing

171.1 INS fine leveling is achieved by

A. accelerometer null feedback
B. compass
C. ?

172. FBW for control surface

A. proportional to the pilot side stick control
B. controlled by FMCS
C. ?

172.1 FMCS, roll command rate limiter

A. 100Hz 50%
B. control command authority
C. soft aileron

173. With auto throttle system engaged in speed mode, aircraft climbing to a cruise altitude following
autopilot mode may also be engaged
A. VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
B. Pitch IAS HOLD and Altitude ARM
C. Altitude ARM and Vertical speed

174. In gas turbine engine, tacho probe and indicating system mounted on the high pressure compressor
section and use (15/7)
A. Air pressure on the vane assembly
B. a magnet and phonic wheel
C. diaphragm ( or capsule ) type sensor unit

175. In “approach mode” failure of course error “washout” circuit… cause FD

A. by commanding continually heading change, track away from localizer centerline
B. reverting to normal mode, keep track in selected heading
C. keep stand off of LOC line

176. Auto throttle servo actuator is operated by

A. mode control panel
B. A/T computer
C. FMC

177. EPR mode in auto throttle only use in

A. cruise
B. approach
C. Go around

178. Adjusting knob in EHSI will alter (15/7)

A. ILS range
B. Radar display range
C. VOR range

179. INS
A. No need extra signal
B. Use accelerator
C. Use for long range navigation

180. Manometric value is used

A. in only ? mode
B. in only cquire ? mode
C. either A of B

180.1 manometric inputs what modes

A. anode mode
B. ?
C. ?
181. Using fuel tank model (Height H), fuel quantity capacitance with level L
A. is empty tank capacitance when level L is zero
B. is proportional to the increase of value K of fuel tank
C. ?

182. A/T normally disengaged the throttle servo when

A. AP/FD is in IAS HLD, Mach HLD
B. A/T is in AOA and A/T mode
C. ?

183. Wild hunting of gyro

A. Fast erect over 1 min
B. power of during fast erect
C. not up to speed in fast erect

184. VSI capsule press lead/lag case pressure

A. 2s
B. 4s
C. 8s

185. In the VSI, the system of the design of couple frame is lead/lag by core frame is
A. 2s
B. 4s
C. 8s

186. Phase advance

A. velocity lag
B. made up of resistor and capacitor
C. made a good transient characteristics

187. Attitude mode

A. data for ADC
B. mostly inner loop data but belongs to outer loop control
C. responds faster than pilot to small changes

188. Aerodynamic balance (15/7)

A. relive stick pressure
B. balancing out stick pressure (balance all stick force)
C. increase stability
189. dual dual autoland (an A/C will capture the autoland system at)
A. get localizer first (1500ft)
B. 1500ft (2500ft)
C. get gilde slope first (3500ft)

190. Yaw damping according to (15/7)

A. max at max rudder position
B. max at min yaw rate
C. yaw rate

191. A/T actuator

A. 115v, 2 phase
B. 115v, 3 phase
C. 28v, DC

192. Use of filter circuit in yaw damper computer

A. block frequency between A/C rolling signal and A/C turning
B. modulate the output signal
C. ?

193. Different between mode 2A and 2B

A. gear up, gear down
B. flap > 25degree, gear down
C. ?

194. Class 3 fault

A. show to flight crew in flight
B. show when get into CMC on ground
C. ?

195. In a tab operated aircraft, what is the normal trim operation?

A. reposition the control surface
B. balance tab and servo tab
C. trim actuator digital to control

196. In an EICAS like indicating system

A. Fault messages will be removed from memory once error resolved
B. 11 messages will be stored for each level
C. Event record button is available for flight crew to capture any suspected malfunction
197. During TO/GA what happens to the engaged A/T
A. disengaged to allow pilot to move the T/L to appropriate position
B. remain engaged and set required power rating for TO or GA
C. ?

198. Triplex system with 1 subchannel fail

A. auto pilot disconnect
B. change to duplex
C. ?

199. GPWS mode 1

A. gear down
B. below 2450ft and speed less than 154knot & excess sink rate
C. below 2450ft and excessive sink rate

200. dual system in aircraft, the operation is.

A. left computer operate first
B. left and right computer operate simultaneous
C. to prevent over shooting for flight controls

201. Active load control (15/7)

A. varying lift force to control vertical movement
B. no application to roll and yaw channel
C. applied to elevators, ailerons and rudders

202. pitch trim device is elevator to trim servo in automatic trimming

A. parallel with elevator trim servo
B. not operational
C. series with elevator trim servo

203. How to increase the system time response to one of the system
A. reduce resistor in the feed back
B. cross feed in
C. crosss feed out

204. Central panel hydraulic position is sense via ( control surface )

A. LVDT
B. RVDT
C. control syncho
205. Actuator hydraulic position is sense via ( actuator position ) (15/7)
A. LVDT
B. RVDT
C. control syncho

206. Input impedance of audio integrating circuit

A. 100ohm
B. 600ohm
C. any value

207. “Land 3” means (Land 3 – fail operation)

A. Cat 3 landing (land 2 --- fail passive)
B. Auto landing sequences start (land 2—engaged FCC, sensor & servor)
C. triple redundancy power souce, engage flight control system, sensor & servor

208. Auto pilot disengaged

A. gyro fault detected
B. demand value too large
C. ADC is faulty

209. Columb friction

A. by ramp input or step input  offset track
B. step input  overshoot and go to desired track
C. rest a load in the dead space

210. VNAV (15/7) In VNAV descent mode, speed profile controlled by?
A. Elevator A. throttle
B. Rudder B. elevator
C. Aileron C. aileron

211. Kew scale adjustment in the barometric scale

A. different between scale due to temperature different
B. calibrate the barometer scale at the initial lead
C. ?

211.1 altitude hold mode in the automatic flight guidance, raw data from
A. the radio altimeter
B. barometric altimeter
C. electronic attitude indicator
212. Altitude monitor announciation set to 10000ft (15/7)
A. 10000ft to 10900ft light off
B. 10000ft to 10300ft light on
C. announciation light and warning on 10300ft and 103009ft

213. Dashpot of turn and slip indicator function

A. precession
B. damp gyro
C. ?

214. Rate of climb indicator, when descend, the pressure compare with capsule (VSI)
A. increase
B. decrease
C. no change

215. Which is a ture statement for the thermocouple?

A. practical lead of chromel-alumel thermocouple is same as thermocouple
B. The separation of thermocouple is magnesium oxide
C. The joint is silver soldering

216. Temperature affects the capsule

A. Differential ? capsule
B. size of capsule
C. height of lever level

217. integration of fuel flow rate respect to time

A. average fuel flow rate
B. peak fuel flow rate
C. total fuel flow

218. Leak malfunction in high pressure

A. over read when climbing & descending
B. under read when climbing & descending
C. over read when climbing & under read when descending

219. Pointing north, OMI bearing shows

A. 000
B. 180
C. 90 when heading to 90

220. What are the codes for INS malfunction shown on the right hand side of CDI
A. Action & malfunction codes
B. Level 1 & 2 codes
C. Advisory & emergency codes

221. what error to airspeed indicator when increase speed

A. compressibility effect
B. position error
C. ?

222. A self command test to a differential pressure type AOA probe will
A. Move the AOA probe 90 degree
B. Move the AOA probe around, and cause the control column rattle
C. Cause the control column to rattle

223. precipitation-static control means (the aerial prevent precipitation static by leakage resistor)
A. reduction of threshold of P-static charge release
B. reduction of concentration of P-static
C. reduce P-static at some local are

224. In flight SAS is a primary a function of (15/7)

A. signal from roll computer
B. signal from yaw computer
C. signal from pitch computer

225. SAS of helicopter (15/7)

A. damp excess rate only
B. correction signal proportional to deviation from a datum attitude only
C. keep at trim attitude

226. Capsule ? increase altitude

A. evacuated capsule contract
B. pressurized capsule expand
C. evacuated capsule expand

227. when auto throttle engaged, then select GA mode (go-around mode can be engaged when
A. A/T disengage A/T is engaged & RA<2000FT)
B. Clutch disengage
C. Disable landing gear switch

228. In level flight, a partial block in orifice of VSI, it will indicate

A. Zero
B. Descent
C. Climb

229. Azimuth GRO mounted inner gimbal

A. right angle with outer gimbal
B. vertical with outer gimbal
C. horizontal in line with outer gimbal

230. A fault in duplex in AFCS operational result (fail passive)

A. both channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft in trim
B. on channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft in trim
C. both channel disconnecting and leaving the aircraft out of trim

230.1 ALPHA angle, is derived from what is input to AFCS

A. stabilizer position sensor
B. accelerometer locate at the CG of aircraft
C. AOA sensor

231. A displacement gyro in topple

A. The gimbal limit have been exceeding
B. rotor stop have been rotating
C. gyro is inverted

232. what is the auto-land command at five feet radio altitude

A. flare
B. wing level
C. align

233. The selector switch on weather radar controllers

A. control the video amplifier
B. control the transmitter power
C. control the beam shape

234. the reason for gimbal lock is :

A. two gimbals of three gimbals are coincident
B. during violence flight manoeuvre
C. ?

235. gimbal error

A. turning with roll/pitch
B. not up to speed and transport wander
C. inner gimbal erratic

236. Mach # indicator control knob “bug” used for what purpose? (15/7)
A. reach to maximum velocity (max mach speed)
B. ….range (ture air speed)
C. max mach # or limiter (refer)

237. which of the following is used as a sensor of differential pressure

A. bourdon tube
B. …barometer
C. bellow

238. Approaching landing “instinctive release” button disengaged auto-throttle

A. full engine power
B. and a continuous disconnected warning
C. without a continuous disconnected warning

239. Heading drift to right, rudder control of yaw damper

A. right proportional to heading error
B. left proportional to heading error
C. proportional to the rate of drift, moving left

240. Mach trim

A. increasing shock wave front
B. ?
C. supersonic on when then subsonic at trailing edge

241. Stabilizer trim of autopilot error signal from

A. skid and skid
B. autopilot panel
C. computer amplifier

242. What is considered to be an aircraft instrument?

A. turbine speed with long scale
B. cabin pressure with 2 needles and redzone and digital display
C. flight director heads up display with exclusive digital readout
243. Switch EICAS primary and secondary
A. via display switching unit
B. manual only
C. “irrelevant”

244. for rate gyro to sense bank angle

A. gimbal on vertical plane and along longitudinal
B. gimbal on vertical axis and lateral
C. gimbal on horizontal…..

245. Six colour display (15/7)

A. Red is exclusively for warning
B. magenta show the heading information
C. green and white shows the same information

246. True pitch rate? (15/7)

A. Pitch and roll rate compensate by yaw computer
B. pitch and roll replacement
C. pitch and yaw rate compensate by roll computer

247. fuel dielectric constant increase capacitance of fuel tank

A. increase
B. decrease
C. constant

248. Correction to flight data recorder before analysis

A. data send for multiplexing
B. correction made for calibration
C. update flight information

249. The last parity of ARINC word

A. to force the word in even parity
B. to check for error
C. ?

250. Test of AOA sensor

A. rotate 90deg and control wheel start to rattle
B. control start to rattle
C. ?
251. CMC feature (the basic type of faults that are able to interrogated in typic CMC system)
A. existing fault, present leg fault, fault history
B. bite, present leg fault, class 1 fault
C. snapshot and fault history

252. In G/S mode, another available pitch mode signal

A. may be used only when ?
B. continue to give additional pitch control
C. can’t apply pitch control

253. Apparent wonder affect directional gyro

A. compensate by constant torque
B. max at pole
C. depend on longitude

254. V NAV can be selected

A. only if A/T selected
B. alone
C. only if A/P and F/D selected

255. In digital servomotor, supplied by 2 ADC

A. servomotor drive 2 control synchros for coarse and fine adjustment
B. error detection in digital signal format within microprocessor
C. A/D converter provide signal to drive servomotor

256. Autopilot increase to set altitude light and tone are on light goes off when
A. tone ends
B. crew manual turn off
C. internal set #

257. INS self alignment, which one is a process?

A. fine alignment
B. gyro leveling
C. gyro compassing

258. Stabilizer trim hydraulic actuated

A. link in any stab servo
B. electrical signal control hydraulic flow
C. independent trim servo actuator
259. Instantaneous VSI comes from (Instantaneous VSI is designed to)
A. direct reading from capsule ( overcome the inherent lag by utilizing an accelerometer)
B. indication given from accelerometer (use accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent)
C. through time lag (improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g)

260. Rollout mode engaged

A. given from landing gear squit switch
B. localizer and gild slope
C. heading error

261. sensitivity of capsule depends on

A. density of material
B. number of grooves
C. outer diameter of disc capsule

262. Position error of pitot

A.
B. wrong installation
C. error on the actual aircraft

263. flap circuit, with respect to pitch change due to flap deployment
A. sense pitch error
B. ?
C. sends correction signal out

264. heading error

A. oppose by gyro
B. aided by gyro
C. oppose by compass

265. subframe of DFDR (4 subframe)

A. 1sec
B. 16sec
C. 1min

266. when airspeed pointer reaches the limiter on machmeter

A. auto throttle auto engages
B. speed warning aural
C. auto throttle system gives warning
267. A/P stabilizer trim motor drives (15/7)
A. elevator
B. stabilizer
C. A/P elevator actuator

268. automatic pilot handover monitoring

A. datum height error in altitude lock
B. feedback failure
C. gyro failure

269. Accelerometer moving at constant speed (15/7)

A. mass move ahead neutral position
B. mass stay neutral position
C. output behind neutral position

270. Dual Dual autopilot system

A. one roll computer and one pitch computer
B. two roll computer and two pitch computer
C. one roll computer and two pitch computer

271. Mach meter ? is limited by

A. max operating velocity
B. max operating mach number
C. ?

272. When aircraft fly through turbulence

A. engage autopilot
B. disengage autopilot
C. switch to turbulence penetrating mode

273. An convenient way to alter the rate of correction for any type of correction for the same rate of
disturbance
A. alter the preset value the resistor in feedback circuit
B. switch in cross feed
C. switch out cross feed

274. GPWS mode 2A penetrates to inner warning area as a result of pull up manoeuvre
A. ALT gain stops
B. Aural warning changes to too low terrain
C. Aural/visual warning disappear as a result of lower landing gear
 (the A/C has gained 300ft of barometric alititude)

275. To engage yaw damping

A. all systems synchronize
B. yaw damp light fault off indicating no fault
C. ?

276. Erection cutout (15/7)

A. ? of gyro
B. prevent acceleration affecting erection sensor
C. prevent acceleration affecting the bearing

277. Erector cutout

A. control acceleration
B. control precession
C. ?

278. Layer sequence

A. ?
B. ?
C. ?

279. Rate gyro sense pitch angle, gimbal ring should place
A. Position laterally
B. Position either vertical or longitudinally
C. Tilt 15deg at aircraft axis
280. In some CADC, techogenerator
A. ? (TAS calculation)
B. VSI (signal proportional to altitude rate)
C. Temperature (mach calculation)

281. FWC monitoring module

A. input test check all input
B. check symbol generator
C. say FWC system fault if tested error

281.1 The squelch ECAM, the monitor model operation for FWC …..is
A. the INPUT push button test all input characteristics
B. the light of flight warning failure will on when computer failure
C. when power on carry out check of the operation for generator
282. Auto throttle engage, take off mode
A. Normal control force
B. Extra control force
C. TO/GA switch on control wheel

282.1 take off mode off automatic thrust system

A. aiming the system by engage flight control computer (FMC)
B. limit and target speed display on N1 speed indicator
C. automatic thrust system(ATS) engage by pressing the TO/GA switch in the control wheel

283. Out put from INS use_____ to compute velocity

A. FMC
B. ADC
C. FWC

284. VNAV, throttle speed determined by (15/7)

A. A/T computer
B. ADC
C. FMC

285. In flight fault

A. positive
B. volatile
C. non-volatile

286. Triple channel compare to duplex channel

A. cross couple feedback
B. detecting runaway more quickly
C. ….. to find which link has fault

287. Subsystem of auto flight control system

A. output from navigation receiver
B. primary flight instrument
C. command, error sensing, correction follow up

288. In kew barometer, the contracted unit is compensated for

A. expansion of reservoir
B. the drop of mercury while the level of reservoir rises
C. different between the rise of temperature &…
289. During auto-landing approach, auto throttle engage pilot initiate “ go ground” mode, the auto-
throttle will
A. Disengage immediately and allow pilot move forward
B. Disengage once is A/C wing level climb up 2000ft per min
C. engaged and adjust auto-throttle thrust for go around mode

289.1 landing with auto throttle engaged, pilot want go around what happens to auto throttle system
A. disengage immediately to let pilot go around
B. disengage once the aircraft climb at 2000ft per minute
C. engage to establish correct thrust for go around

290. Accelerator sensor

A. Low inertia mass, freely suspended
B. High inertia mass, restricted by spring
C. High inertia mass, freely suspended

291. Moving select HDG knob prior VOR capture will cause the CMD bar to indicate
A. F/D move thee bar right and left
B. kept in HDG mode until VOR cap
C. bank right or bank left

292. Perform passenger service unit test

A. phone jack
B. perform full cycle passenger seat
C. both

293. Passenger service unit decoder use for

A. convert 115AC to 28DC
B. communication (passenger call ident)
C. transmit signal to seat box

294. Density altitude

A. altitude density
B. same pressure altitude without compensation of temperature
C. density altitude corrected for non-standard temperature variations

295. IF the QNH is “set up” on the mill-bar scale of an altimeter, with the aircraft on ground, what is the
reading of altimeter?
A. Airfield elevation ( airfield height above sea level )
B. out of scale
C. Zero point

295.1 aircraft on ground and QNH set on millibar scale, the point will
A. zero point
B. airfield elevation
C. out of scale

296. Phase advance signal is used for

A. damping rapidly
B. damping slowly
C. not at all

297. what is the function of the votor

A. the highest and lowest signal are removed
B. ?
C. ?

298. In turbulence mode

A. gain is reduced to 50%
B. gain is reduced to 80%
C. gain is reduced to 60%

299. Series rudder

A. the pilot can input to the system
B. the pilot cannot input to the system
C. yaw damping is the only possible signal input

300. Pitch trim invalid

A. Disconnect auto-pilot and yaw damper 1. disengage auto-pilot only
B. Disconnect auto-pilot and rudder trim 2. disengage auto-pilot and rudder trim
C. yaw damper and rudder trim invalid 3. no effect

301. During the flare mode, the input to the pitch channel are
A. radio altitude and pitch integrator
B. radio altitude and roll integrator
C. glide deviation signal and its integrator

302. Auto-throttle
A. use the highest EPR as the reference
B. use the lowest EPR as the reference
C. ?

303. Yaw damper system

A. Rudder deflection rate is proportion to the yaw rate of the aircraft
B. Rudder deflection is proportion to the yaw amount of the aircraft
C. Rudder deflection rate is proportion to the yaw amount of the aircraft

304. What happens to the static transducer when there is a temperature change?
A. The capsule expands and contracts
B. ?
C. ?

305. What does it mean if the max. Airspeed pointer overlaps with the Mach pointer
A. It is and over-speed warning
B. ?
C. ?

306. What is used for the pre-flight inspection of a sensitive altimeter

A. ambient pressure in mille-bar
B. ambient pressure in inch-bar
C. ?

307. If TAS is kept at 400knots while the A/C is increasing in altitude from 0-40000FT
A. mach no. increase
B. mach no. decrease
C. unchanged

308. Which of the following can change the pressure to electrical signal?
A. Transducer
B. servo
C. RVDT

309. What is meant by –ve temperature coefficient?

A. when temperature increases, resistance decrease
B. when temperature increase, resistance increase
C. when temperature decrease, resistance unchanged

310. What should be done to the fuel tank unit when it is entered into the shop?
A. perform an initial test
B. clean it
C. dry it

311. When the A/C is flying towards north, which of the following is not affected by transport wander?
A. East-gyro
B. West-gyro
C. vertical-gyro

312. EFIS ARPT means

A. airport identifier
B. clear button
C. ?

313. Centralized warning system

A. can never be inhibited
B. can be inhibited
C. ?

314. In certain gyro, erection cut-out compensate

A. error of spin up and spin down
B. mins misalignment during manufacturing
C. wrong information during turning

315. Standby compass can be adjusted by

A. B and C
B. ?
C. ?

316. In flight mode, the FMS preference of data source is

A. IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA
B. RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA
C. RHO-THETA, RHO-RHO, IRS

317. on approach if the pitch channel loses the glideslope signal:

A. other signals can be used to provide a correction signal
B. no other signals can provide a correction
C.

318. In a SSB receiver, in event of a oscillator drift

A. Poor receiver selectivity
B. Audio Distortion
C.

319. Fly director on GS capture the pitch integration is ?

A. To increase GS signal
B. To decrease GS signal
C. To maintain GS signal

321. If a fault is detected during and autoland approach the system will totaly disconnect if it is a
A. triplex system
B. duplex system
C. dual dual

322. Synchronization indicator¡¦s signal is tapped from the signal path from the flux valve to
A. differential synchro.
B. DG inner ring torquer.
C. DG outer ring torquer.

323. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is :

A. 80ft
B. 300ft
C. 500ft

324. if a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

A. remains at the neutral position
B. controls the aircraft in trim
C. remains in the previous position

325. What would happen to the flight director command bars if the roll gyro failed in a turn
A. stay the same as there is nothing to null the input signal
B. return to neutral when the turn is complete
C. dissapear out of view ( VG valid signal lost )

326. In an autopilot altitude hold mode

A. Pitch attitude error is not used as a command signal
B. Pitch attitude error is driven to zero over a period of time
C. Pitch attitude error increases as command is fulfilled

327. In an autopilot CWS mode

A. The channel in command is disengaged temporarily till the pilot moves the control wheel back.
B. Strain gauges are used in the control run
C. Moves the wheel through switches fitted on the pedestal

328. In an autopilot altitude hold mode if pitch angle limiting is incorporated ,it is applied
A. To the pitch attitude error signal
B. Control surface servo actuator feedback
C. To the height error signal

329. To correct for compressibility error ,deriving "Equivalent airspeed"

A. Error is added
B. Added or subtracted
C. Subtracted

330. Water vapour in air is termed

A. Absolute humidity
B. Relative Humidity
C. Athmospheric vapour density

331. When testing an air data system incorporating an ADC wrt electric power
A. Always on
B. On only when the pressure variations are applied
C. Respective CBs tagged and electric power isolated

332. In a typical Electronic capacitive FQI system the checks that can be carried out are
A. Capacitive and continuity
B. Capacitive and Insulation resistance
C. continuity and insulation resistance

333. Alt hold signals in FD

A. used to cancel VG error signals
B. Displayed as an Alt Error on the HSI
C. Integrated with Pitch Attitude signals

334. VOR mode in FD

A. VG, VHF Nav receiver
B. VG, VHF Nav receiver, + Heading datum
C. A/P compass system + VHF Nav receiver

335. In Altitude Hold mode:

A. The Alt error is washed out after after a time
B. The VG signal is washed out after a time
C. The VG signal is allowed to increase

336. In Altitude Hold, a pitch signal from the VG:

A. has no effect
B. is washed out to 0 after a time delay
C. holds the aircraft at the datum

337. The pitch limit signal in the altitude hold mode is applied to:
A. pitch attitude signal
B. height error signal
C. position feedback signal

338. Pitch angle limiting, when on altitude lock is effective on:

A. altitude signals only
B. pitch attitude signals only
C. both pitch attitude and altitude signals only

339. When the FQI capacitance system is being adjusted

A. Fuel temperature has to be taken into account only of the temperature is greater than 20 degree
Celsius
B. You have to know whether the compensator capacitor is wet or dry

340. When the Engine stops and the EPR indicator is not 1
A. This is normal
B. Indicator has to be re adjusted to indicate 1
C. The transmitter datum has been shifted and has to be changed

341. TAS computation TAS is function of

A. Mach No and temperature (Mach & SAT)
B. Airspeed, pitot static and temperature (Mach & altitude)
C. pitot static (altitude & airspeed)

342. Air density error would arise if the following were not compensated
A. OAT ( outside air temperature )
B. Altitude
C. Altitude and OAT

343. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate the instrument that s most affected
A. vertical speed indicator
B. Altimeter
C. Airspeed indicator

344. In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver fails before localizer capture

a. No auto land
b. Reverts to cat II
c. Continues to auto land

345. Glide slope gain programming is based on

a. Pressure altitude
b. Altitude above MSL and radio altitude
C.

346. Glide slope signal is used

a. Until the flare engage
b. Until rollout
C.

347. In an auto land system

a. Reverse thrust is applied automatically provided the reverse thrust system is serviceable and armed
b. Reverse thrust is selected using the mode control panel
c. Reverse thrust is selected manually on ground

348. Position feedback in a servomotor system

a. Is in phase with the input signal
b. Is antiphase
C.

349. Autotrim system check on ground

a. Autotrim System cannot be engaged unless the autopilot is engaged
b. Nose up demands give a nose up output
c. Nose down demand give a nose up output

350. Mach over speed in an aircraft

a. Clacking sound
b. Tone constant
C.

351. Manifold pressure gauge measures

a. Direct pneumatic pressure and absolute pressure in inHg
b. Remote pressure readout and absolute pressure
C.

352. Category II boundary has a DH of 100 feet and rvr

A. 400
B. 50
C. 800

353. Decca navigation

a. Half wavelength of the fundamental frequency
b. Half wave length of the frequency transmitted
C.

354. IRS output

a. True heading and velocity data
b. Magnetic heading and velocity data
C.

355. Altimeter capsule

A. Tendency to contract on descent
B. Tendency to expand on descent
C. Tendency to contract on accent

356. During a pitot static leak check in a system incorporating a CADC, regarding electric power
a. Electric power is switched off
b. Electric power is on
c. Electric power is switched off during pressure variations

357. Auto pilot trip

a. VG failure
b. If pitch signal exceed the pitch limit
c. If roll signal exceeds the roll limit

358. ISA based on

a. Values at the equator
b.45 degrees north latititude
C.

359. Unit used to measure capacitance in a capacitance type FQI

a. Decade box (a capacitance bridge )
b. Bridge
C.

360. In a FBW system common mode errors

a. Fire, explosion, electrical failure
b. Fire, explosion
c.HIRF.software errors, electrical failure

361. In an IRS
a. Longitude is computed
b. Latitude and longitude cannot be calculated by the IRS
c. Latitude is computed (for INS)

362. In an ILS system the sum demodulated output of the deviation signals
a. Drives the flag out of view
b. The deviation pointer (the sum gives us flag dc volts the difference gives us a
C. deviation signal)

363. VOR on course needle selected to 000 and pointer at 000 the To/From shows
a. To
b. From
c. Midway between

364. In rvsm to maintain criteria.Maintenance is required on

A. Pitot and static instruments
B. the alt alert must be serviceable
C. the alt hold must be serviceable

365. Gain in a rudder channel

a. Is more sensitive at higher airspeeds
b. Is less sensitive at lower airspeeds
c. Is less sensitive at higher airspeeds

366. In a turn and bank indicator if the needle turns towards the left
a. The aircraft has banked left
b. The aircraft has turned left
c. The aircraft has turned right

367. Vacuum pressure for TBI

a 2inches of mercury
b. 5
c.10

368. With Land 3 operation when one of ILS Receiver failed

A. autopilot disconnected
B. the aircraft can continue to fly and autopilot downgrade to Cat 2 for landing
C.

369. INS How local North is obtained ?

A. Accelerometer (detect earths rotation )
B. Accelerometer and Gyros
C. Gyros

370. INS Vertical calcultion by what ?

A. gravity switch
B.
C.

371. Uplink ACAR From Ground to Aircraft Via What ?

A. printer
B. CU
C. CU and printer

372. MLS elevation scanning Angle ranges from? (MLS azimuth range is 40-60 degree)
A. 2deg to 40 deg
B. 15deg to 40 deg
C. 2deg to 15deg

373. Alt hold Flight director mode Alt error signal (or wash out signal ??) is ?????
A. Combined with pitch attitude signal
B. Displayed on ADI
C. Displayed on HIS

374. xformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect

A. ADI
B. Flight director computer
C. or both above

375. VOR RMI 000 and course 000 then To and from indication will indicate
A. To
B. To/ from
C. from

376. Flying on VOR radial, you are North of station heading with course 090 degrees, what will be
shown on RMI
A. 000
B. 180
C.
377. Capacitance in a fuel quantity indication test test is connected
A. By replacing capacitance probes
B. In parallel with it
C. In series

378. The autopilot will trip if:

A. VG failure
B. pitch signal exceeds pitch limit
C. roll signal exceeds roll limit

379. when carrying out a leak check on a pitot combined head:

A. ASI, VSI, altimeter, Machmeter
B. VSI, then back to zero & altimeter
C. VSI, then back to zero.

380. Transmission rate of FDR Arinc 573 specification

A. 1 sec
B. 2 sec
C. 3 sec

381. FDR bit format is

A. Harvard Bi-phase
B.
C.

382. After replacing an instrucment of the pito-static group, it’s necessary to C/O
A. leak check on appropriate system.
B.
C.

383. What is purpose of capillary tube fitted to a bourbon tube indicator?

A. To act as a choke to reduce pressure fluctuation
B.
C.
384. When no power to electrical servo altimeter
A. don’t adjust barometric pressure setting knob
B. adjust barometric pressure setting knob
C.

385. If an aircraft is flown at a constant speed of 200 knots during a climb from zero ft to 4000 ft,
what will be the mach-meter reading change?
A. No change
B. Increase of Mach No. with increase of altitude
C. Decrease of Mach No. with increase of altitude

386. Formula of Mach No.

A. Log ( P-S ) divided by S
B. Log ( P-S ) – Log S
C. Log ( P-S ) – Log P

387. Local vertical component of the apparent drift

A. 15 sin
B. 30 sin
C. 45 sin

388. When a Gyroscope vertical-axis is transported to a lower latitude, which input component will
have no transport wander to it?
A. local north
B. local east
C. local vertical

389. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The pitch mercury switch connect to the two bank cut-out mercury switch when centrifugal
exceeds 0.18g.
B.
C.

390. Location of pitch and roll torque motor

A. pitch torque motor at roll axis and roll torque motor at pitch axis
B. pitch torque motor at pitch axis and roll torque motor at roll axis
C. pitch torque motor at roll axis and roll torque motor at vertical axis
391. Fuel contaminate with water, what is the effect of fuel quantity indication?
A. no change
B. decrease
C. increase

392. Tank unit to work shop

A. carry out inspection and test first
B. carry out inspection only
C. carry out testing

393. GPWS mode 7 is

A. windshear
B. terrain, terrain
C. pull up, pull up

394. The different between GPWS and EGPWS

A. The addition of TAD and TCF
B.
C.

395. Gimbal error maximum

A. Aircraft flying on inter cardinal heading
B.
C.

396. What is EPR reading on ground level

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

397. When thrust reverser deployed, what is EPR reading?

A. EPR reading below 1
B. Disregard EPR reading
C. EPR reading 1

398. What is EPR P1 inlet pressure probe sensing?

A. pitot pressure
B. static pressure
C. AOA

399. What kind of signal is used in Tachometer indicator? (AC or DC , Linear)

A. Voltage of Tachometer generator
B. Frequency of Tachometer generator
C. Current of Tachometer generator

400. Engine N1, N2 and N3 speed indicator reading is in form of

A. % of rpm
B. rpm
C. EPR

401. Positive terminal of EGT lead is connected to

A. Chromel
B. alumel
C.

402. What is consisted of fuel flow transmitter?

A. Impeller and Turbine
B. Impeller and synchro
C. Turbine and synchro

403. Which is primary enginer parameter?

A. High pressure of rotor speed
B. Oil pressure
C. EGT

404. Where is TLA installed?

A. EEC
B. Inside Throttle Lever Assembly
C. Engine

405. When EEC failed, what is the status of Fuel metering Unit solenoid Valve?
A. open position
B. close position
C. Idle position

406. What is Boost Gauge? ( A boost gauge reads?)

A. Direct-reading Type (1. absolute pressure)
B. Indirect-reading Type (2. above or below ambient atmospheric pressure)
C. ? (3. above of below ISA atmospheric pressure)

407. Torque pressure indicator is used on

A. Turboprop
B.
C.

408. Brake horse power is

A. proportional to speed and torque meter
B. proportional to speed and oil ( BHP = PN / K )
C. proportional to oil and torque meter

409. By-pass ratio

A. The ratio of cool air by-passed through the duct to the flow of air passed through the high
pressure system
B.
C.

410. With FADEC switch ‘ON’, the flight idle is controlled by

A. EEC
B. Pilot
C. The solenoid of the metering valve

411. The output frequency of Tachometer probe is

A. depended on the phonic wheel
B. proportional to the engine speed
C.

412. The ‘HOT’ junction of the Thermocouple is placed at

A. detection area
B. compensation inside indicator
C.

413. Where is the highest pressure along the engine?

A. compressor outlet
B. combustion chamber outlet
C. turbine outlet

414. For a Thermistor, temperature increase

A. resistance increase
B. resistance decrease
C. No change

415. Constant propeller unit is depended on

A. Fixed pitch turbo-propeller
B. Variable pitch turbo-propeller
C. constant speed propeller
416. Main manifold pressure gauge is used on
A. Fixed pitch propeller
B. constant speed propeller
C. variable speed propeller

417. Engine Bearing Oil Temperature Sensor is placed at

A. inlet
B. outlet
C. tank

418. Axial flow type compressor engine, thrust measurement is

A. pressure ratio
B. N1 rotor speed
C. N2 rotor speed

419. Cross wind compensation circuit, when will be the output in maximum?
A. When radio deviation is min
B. when radio deviation is max
C. constant

420. When airspeed increase

A. The control signal to rudder decrease
B. The control signal to rudder increase
C. none

421. Which of follows has the top priority?

A. Auto trim
B. Standby trim
C. Mach trim

422. Autopilot pitch channel engaged

A. MACH trim temporary inhibited
B.
C.

423. Throttle Servo Motor is

A. 2-phase AC motor
B. single-phase AC motor
C. 3-phase AC motor

424. TLA signal to

A. Thrust Management Computer ( Auto Throttle command feedback to avoid overshoot )
B. Servo Motor
C. EEC

425. Control surface with trim tab

A. stalling angle will be reduced
B.
C.

426. compensation fuel meaure in capacitance bridge circuit…..

A. in same leg with sensing element
B. in opposite leg with sensing element
C. across bridge and between earth and amplifier input

427. Fuel quantity compensator

A. on same leg of the tank unit
B. on opposite leg related to the tank unit
C. on servo loop

428. what system input flare mode?

A. radio altimeter, integrated pitch
B. glide slope, radio altimeter
C. glide slope, integrated pitch

429. Roll out mode depends on

A. localizer deviation and yaw rate
B. ?
C. ?

430 ADC modulate signal?

A. TAT…. MACH… position error
B. ?
C. ?

431. To accurate vane type fuel flow TX

A. ?
B. …..density
C. …...vane

432. which will considerate to fuel flow Tx’mitter

A. fuel temperature
B. fuel density
C. vane type

433. common occurrence, “not allow duplicate”, “retest OK”, “unverified removal” is?
A. ……… bite test on ground equipment
B. test procedure, test limit
C. environment defect, not actual defect

434. When loading PES software for seat electronic box (SEB), most important factor?
A. addressing
B. tokenring rule
C. SEB hardware & software P/N correctly

435. With ILS system, D/H ?

A. it is ignored when airport runway equipped with cat3 system
B. trigger to pilot desired to go-around or countinue

436. ASI square law compensation

A. always use cam
B. bellow calibrate to linear
C. spring

436.1 square lawer is associate by

A. airspeed indicate
B. rate of climb
C. altimeter indicate

437. the material of the flux v/v of spoke leg

A. high permeability, low hysteresis
B. ?
C. ?
438. Vibration indication sys, millimeter indicator
A. sensing LVDT output elect proportional magnitude
B. sign process stage amplifier, inter station + filtering
C. sensing spring-mounting permanent magnet

438.1 In a vibration indicating system with a milli-ammeter indicator

A. the sensor is a LVDT that outputs an electrical of proportional magnitude
B. the signal processing goes through stages of amplification, integration and filtering
C. the sensor is a spring-mounted permanent magnet and the magnet follows the vibration

439. In a series rudder system

A. the pilot cannot input to the system
B. the pilot can input to the system
C. yaw damping is the only possible signal input

440. The autopilot stabilizer trim motor directly drive the

A. elevator
B. stabilizer
C. autopilot elevator actuator

441. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

A. Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
B. Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
C. Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold

442. Versine is used in which channel?

A. Pitch
B. Roll
C. Yaw

443. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?
A. Flare, attitude, rollout
B. Attitude, flare, rollout
C. Rollout, attitude, flare

444. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

A. amount of aircraft disturbance
B. attitude of aircraft
C. rate of yaw

445. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

A. differentiating deviation signals
B. integrating deviation signals
C. integrating course error signals

445.1 The localizer capture a beam “stand off” condition is removed by

A. radio deviation signal
B. roll gyro signal
C. heading error signal

446. An RMI requires the following inputs:

A. Heading and radio deviation
B. Course and radio deviation
C. Radio deviation only

447. Roll out mode occurs

A. after flare
B. before flare
C. at alert height

448. in basic requirement of synchronizing loop of A/P channel

A. must engage all the time
B. disengage aft A/P engage
C. disengage whenever ‘handover’ condition is met

449. A yaw damper system operates on

A. all yaw frequencies
B. only mid range frequencies
C. low range frequencies

450. co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

A. yaw rate gyro signals
B. aileron to rudder crossfeed
C. aileron to elevator crossfeed

451. In CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by
A. the central warning computer (CWC)
B. the electronic interface units (EIU)
C. the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS)

452. an aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS, what is it’s true airspeed?
A. Higher than its IAS
B. Lower than its IAS
C. The same as its IAS

453. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

A. only with the flight director selected
B. with either the flight director or the digital control system (DFCS) engaged
C. before take off

454. A full authority digital engine control system (FADEC) consist of

A. electronic engine control unit only
B. electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
C. electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter

455. which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

A. glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
B. localizer capture, glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
C. localizer capture, glideslope capture, flare and altitude hold

456. on the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal, the aircraft would
A. fly a circle
B. increase its drift angle
C. fly parallel to the beam

457. versine is generated by

A. torque receiver synchros
B. synchros resolvers
C. control synchro transformers

458. synchronization circuits in autopilots ensure

A. that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
B. that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement
C. that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged

459. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for
A. maintaining a computed EPR
B. controlling to a maximum thrust
C. correction minor speed deviations

460. The GA mode is usually initiated by

A. pressing a button on the control wheel
B. pressing a button on thrust levers
C. making a selection on the mode control panel

461. on selection of the turbulence mode

A. the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
B. the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
C. the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe

462. The stall margin is controlled by

A. EPR limits
B. speed bug cursor
C. angle of attack and flap position

463. For maintenance aid, the main function is

A. provide date relative to needed signal
B. functional/operation test
C. fault tracibility for FDE
464. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at
A. 300 ft
B. the decrab phase
C. start of flare phase

465. overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated (GA mode is engaged when: A/T armed,
A. only when the autopilot is engaged A/C in air, thrust limit mode not T/O
B. at any time after autoland has been engaged AFDS Glideslope engaged or flaps not zero)
C. at any time

466. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

A. fail passive
B. fail operational
C. fail redundant

467. when will the decision height aural warning sound

A. at D.H
B. before D.H
C. after D.H
468. automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by
A. the area navigation system
B. the runway localizer
C. the airfield maker beacon

469. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from

A. radio altimeter
B. the glide slope receiver
C. the localizer receiver

470. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now

A. fail passive
B. fail operational
C. fail redundant

471. A fail passive system in the event of failure will

A. produce a significant out of trim condition
B. produce no significant out of trim condition
C. ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

472. An autopilot interlock circuit is to

A. prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
B. disconnect the system if a fault appears
C. both a & b

473. The two parameters used for category classification are

A. radio height and runway visual range
B. localizer and glideslope
C. decision height and runway visual range

474. CAT 3B allows (flare phase)

A. approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
B. approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
C. approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

475. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

A. disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
B. continue to control after any first fault
C. disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim
476. what is added to the flare computation at touchdown?
A. nose down bias
B. nose up bias
C. no signal

477. what controls are used in response to the PVD? (para visual display)
A. ailerons
B. throttles
C. nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

478. with autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are
A. VOR arm and HDG hold
B. IAS hold and ALT arm
C. V/S and ALT arm

479. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

A. automatically
B. by a selector on the throttle control panel
C. by pushing the throttles forward to maximum

480. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

A. 300 ft
B. the decrab phase
C. start of flare phase

481. overshoot or go around mode can be initiated

A. only when the autopilot is engaged
B. at any time after autoland has been engaged
C. at any time

482. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400ft in final approach
A. the system degrades to CAT 2
B. the autoland is continued
C. a go around is initiated

483. purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

A. assist with localizer tracking
B. assist with glideslope tracking
C. point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
484. if a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a
A. triplex system
B. duplex system
C. simplex system

485. GPWS in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?

A. a low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
B. a low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
C. a low range altimeter and GPS

486. Alert Height is when

A. a decision of whether to land is made
B. an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
C. an alert of the ground proximity is made

487. The electrical Alert Height has a movement of

A. 85 degree in pitch and roll
B. 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
C. 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

488. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

A. an accelerometer
B. a gyroscope
C. a tachogenerator

489. the units of vibration are measured in

A. phons
B. decibels
C. relative amplitude

490. GPWS mode 1 is excessive

A. terrain closure
B. rate of ascent
C. rate of descent

491. during flare mode autothrottle will

A. retard throttle to idle
B. disconnect autothrottle
C. select reverse thrust
492. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would
A. increase capacitive reactance
B. increase capacitance
C. decrease capacitance

493. with engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1,

A. this is normal
B. you would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
C. you would adjust the Tx

494. when moving the control column

A. sensors located under the control column produces a signal
B. sensor located along the control run droduces a signal
C. sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

495. Equivalent airspeed is

A. indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE
B. rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
C. calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

496. Acceleration error produces

A. a false indication of left bank
B. a false indication of right bank
C. a false indication of climb

497. align light flashes during alignment

A. a fault has occurred and system needs to be truned off
B. it is attracting operators attention
C. it is indicating progress of alignment

498. the compensator in a fuel tank measures

A. specific gravity of fuel
B. k value of fuel
C. fuel quantity

499. during takeoff if an input to autothrottle fails

A. autothrottle disengages
B. throttle hold is annunciated
C. fail light illuminates
500. Flight director (FD) command bas indicate
A. direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
B. direction in which aircraft is flying
C. direction in which the beacon is

501. In a combined pitot-static probe, while c/o a leak check, if over pressure will affect?
A. ASI
B. VSI
C. altimeter

502. when the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot, it means
A. the max aileron angle that can be commanded
B. the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
C. maximum rudder deflection

503. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
A. radio deviation
B. glideslope deviation
C. course deviation

504. when can other autopilot modes be select once GA has been selected?
A. when aircraft has reached 5000ft
B. when reached a desired altitude
C. disengage and re-engage the AFCS system

505. what is a versine signal attenuated with?

A.. increase in airspeed
B. increase in altitude
C. decrease in altitude

506. Flight Director (FD) incompatible modes are

A. VOR and glideslope
B. heading and altitude hold
C. VOR and altitude hold

507. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warning from

A. rad alt to barometric
B. rad alt decrease
C. approach along localizer with reference to runway threshold
508. On power up, the IRS obtains position
A. latitude from previous position (INS)
B. longitude from previous position (IRS)
C. latitude and longitude from previous position

509. Deviation from the HIS lubber line is known as

A. apparent A
B. real A
C. true A

510. glideslope (GS) deviation signal are

A. DC polarity sensitive
B. AC phase sensitive
C. DC positive going only

511. aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in A/P system to

A. assist the a/c back to datum after disturbance in yaw
B. prevents slip and skid in yaw
C. prevents a/c yawing in the opposite direction to the turn

512. In a flight director (FD) system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are
A. DC
B. AC
C. pulsed DC

513. Fuel quantity test set consists of

A. resistance decade
B. capacitance bridge
C. inductance decade

514. EICAS provides the following

A. engine parameters
B. engine parameters and system warnings
C. engine warnings and engine parameters

515. an auto land system displays land 2 another failure will make the system
A. fail operational (land 3)
B. fail passive
C. simplex
515.1 the ability of a system to withstand a failure without endangering passenger safety and
without producing excessive deviations form the flight path is
A. fail passive ability
B. fail active ability
C. fail operational ability

515.2 if the trip point signal are not fed to an auto land system, then
A. is already
B. the signal is created by auto land system
C. will not give a fault warning

516. CAT 2 autoland DH limits are

A. below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft
B. below 500 ft but not less than 400 ft
C. below 300 ft but not less than 200ft

517. CAT 1 autoland DH limits are

A. not less than 100 ft
B. not less than 200 ft
C. below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft

518. Rollout guidance after touch down is by (80 knots)

A. automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
B. visual indication and nosewheel steering
C. visual indication and rudder control

519. the aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier, this means it is
A. AC
B. DC
C. DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input

520. If a A/C is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
A. left rudder
B. right rudder
C. no rudder

521. if a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then
A. it will not need resetting and will read zero
B. it will display the airfield height above sea level
C. it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

522. FMC changes movement via

A. A/P actuator
B. FCC (flight control computer)
C. straight to the actuator

523. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors

A. certain parameters
B. with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
C. and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

524. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains

A. 1 capsule
B. 2 capsules
C. 3 capsules

525. what instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
A. ASI
B. altimeter
C. VSI

526. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will

A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain the same

527. what does a vibration type sensor measure?

A. Maximum deflection
B. Frequency of deflections
C. Direction of flexing
528. CAT 3B landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
A. roll out
B. flare
C. touchdown

529. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

A. DME freq (VOR)
B. L NAV (V NAV)
C. CRZ (N1 thrust)

530. The term ‘circulating currents’ refer to

A. AC gen
B. AC and DC gen
C. DC gen

531. If the LOC signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
A. A/C fly parallel to the runway centre line
B. A/C fly along the runway centre line
C. A/C fly in circle

532. Airspeed hold is a

A. pitch mode
B. lateral mode
C. heading mode

533. An ASI compressibility error correction will be

A. positive
B. negative
C. both

534. CAT 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 ft will be

A. 300m
B. 400m
C. 800m

535. The decision height on the radio altimeter system is adjusted by

A. moving a bug on the radio altitude indication
B. selecting a switch on the control panel
C. moving a bug on the barometric altimeter

536. The AFCS remain in control

A. until 2 seconds after touchdown
B. until reverse thrust is selected
C. until disengaged by flight crew

537. A mach meter

A. compensates for square law
B. doesn’t compensate for square law
C. use a spring and bar

538. The A/C is programmed to leave the glideslope (G/S) at

A. 300 ft
B. the decrab phase
C. the start of flare

539. when can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle?

A. before takeoff
B. after takeoff
C. only with the autopilot engaged

540. Rollout duidance by the rudder is effective to about

A. 80 knots
B. 110 knots
C. 30 knots

541. Go around (GA) mode can be initiated

A. after glideslope capture
B. at any time
C. below 2000 ft ( and autothrottle system is engaged)

542. Air density compensation requires

A. OAT
B. altitude
C. altitude and OAT

543. The integrity of an autopilot must be increased when the A/C is flying at
A. higher speeds
B. lower speeds
C. approach and landing phases

544. Flight Director (FD) bars controls move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/speed?
A. rate feedback
B. position feedback
C. instrument amplifier gain

545. The control aerial has a polar diagram which is

A. directional
B. omni-directional
C. limacon shaped

546. The glideslope (G/S) signal integrator

A. maintains the glideslope signal
B. increases the glideslope signal
C. decrease the glideslope signal

547. If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate, the instrument that most affected is the
A. rate of change indicator (VSI)
B. altimeter
C. airspeed indicator (ASI) – differential pressure gauge

548. what is track angle

A. the angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the A/C ground track
B. the angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the A/C longitudinal axis
C. the angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track

549. RNAV accuracy is

A. + / - 5nm
B. +/ - 5nm 95%
C. +/- 1nm 85%

550. the capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of

A. capacitive reactance
B. resistance
C. capacitance

551. Rad Alt failure effects which system

A. mode S transponder
B. GPWS
C. nav management systems

552. ILS indicator is

A. parallel to filters
B. series with filters
C. across filters

553. altitude hold node, what signal is washed out

A. altitude
B. pitch angle
C. rate of climb

554. If one FMS fails in a dual system

A. system operation will not be affected
B. FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
C. FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer

555. Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when

A. spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom
B. gimbal rings are mutually not at right angles to each other
C. bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance

556. slewing of the INS gimbaled platform simulates in-flight attitude changes up to
A. 360 deg in roll and 85 deg in pitch
B. 71 deg in pitch and 180 deg in azimuth
C. 110 deg in pitch and 360 deg in azimuth

557. FMC provides data envelope for

A. ATC
B. TCAS
C. GPWS

558. In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch

A. removes all message from the display
B. removes caution and advisory message
C. removes advisory messages

559. INS power is provided by

A. DC normal and DC emergency
B. AC normal and DC emergency
C. AC normal and AC emergency

560. Which of the following is correct?

A. feedback = error – demand
B. error = demand – feedback
C. demand = feedback – error

561. MCDUs
A. are used to transmit data to ground
B. enable dialog with CMC
C. store fault data

562. Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is

A. 800 ft
B. 1000 ft
C. 2000 ft

563. The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a

A. ASI
B. VSI
C. mach meter

564. In ground mode the FMS uses which of the following for velocity calculations?
A. IRS
B. RHO-RHO
C. RHO-THETA

565. In a IRS system the accelerometer is double interrogated for

A. distance
B. acceleration
C. velocity.

566. In a minimum speed protection mode the autothrottle uses signals derived from the AOA sensor &
A. landing gear position sensors to maintain the A/C speed above stall
B. flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed
C. flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the correct AOA within the stall margin

567. How does a Rx know whether an ILS or VOR frequency has been selected?
A. manually selected by operator
B. logic control circuit in control unit
C. a different receiver is used

568. rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system

A. prevents oscillation of the control surfaces
B. provides proportional response to commanded inputs
C. indicates control surface feedback.

569. which is not displayed on attitude director indicator (ADI)

A. G/S deviation
B. LOC deviation
C. VOR lateral deviation

570. An engine vibration indicator system uses

A. AC/DC in the indicator
B. 2 filters in the indicator
C. AC/DC in the transmitter

571. The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by

A. aileron to rudder cross feed
B. rudder to aileron cross feed
C. rudder to pitch cross feed

572. A series yaw damper

A. moves the rudder only
B. moves aileron and rudder
C. moves the rudder and the rudder pedals

573. An autopilot runway is prevented by

A. position feedback
B. a fuse
C. torque limiting devise

574. an autopilot hardover runaway is caused by

A. loss of position feedback
B. loss of servo power supply
C. loss of clutch supply

575. tachogenerator which provide rate feedback in A/P servos are

A. AC
B. DC
C. both

576. The output of tachogenerators used in A/P are always

A. linear
B. exponential
C. sinusoidal

577. A/P servomoter tachogenerators have

A. 2 windings wound 180deg apart
B. 3 windings would 120deg apart
C. 2 windings would 90deg apart

578. A rate gyro is classified as a

A. single axis rate detector
B. 2 axis rate detector
C. synchronization activity

579. in a rate/rate autopilot servo, the drive to the servo motor will
A. null out at a position dependent upon input error voltage
B. have a constant speed for any input error voltage
C. vary its speed with input error voltage

580. when a bank demand has been satisfied, which signal is primary responsible for driving the aileron
to neutral position?
A. servo position feedback
B. servo tachogenerator
C. vertical gyro signal

581. A modulator output signifies DC---- > MOD ---- > AC

A. phase sense of input AC--- > DEMOD --- > DC
B. polarity of DC input signal
C. polarity of reference signal

582. SAS provide

A. outer loop stability
B. inner loop with limited outer loop stability
C. inner loop stability

583. autopilot trim indicator monitors

A. a voltage level in the servo amp
B. trim tab position
C. control surface position
584. the sideslip monitor signal controls the operation of the
A. rudder
B. ailerons
C. elevators

585. the signal that is fed to the pitch channel of an autopilot during a turn is obtained from the
A. compass heading error (crossfeed --- rudder)
B. versine generator (versine ‘1-cos@’ --- elevator)
C. roll rate gyro

586. automatic trim is used to

A. maintain level flight
B. prevent standing loads on the elevator
C. allow full authority to be regained by the ailerons

587. position error on an ASI is partially caused by

A. wrongly positioned ASI in instrument panel
B. wrongly positioned ASI with regard to pitot head
C. air flow around pitot head.

588. a machmeter is an instrument which indicated the speed of

A. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level
B. sound relative to aircraft’s altitude
C. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed (true airspeed to local sonic speed)

589. The mach number is sensed in terms of a

A. pressure ratio
B. temperature ratio
C. sound ratio

590. VSI is connected to (single capsule)

A. pitot pressure
B. static pressure
C. vacuum

591. On decent the pressure in a VSI capsule

A. leads the case pressure
B. lags the case pressure
C. is the came as case pressure

591.1 during descent the pressure “around the capsule” = (case) in a rate of climb indicator will be
A. is the same as the pressure in the capsule
B. lower than the pressure in the capsule (descent)
C. higher than the pressure in the capsule (climb)

592. What are the CADC input

A. pitot/static pressure & TAT
B. mach no, airspeed
C. altitude and TAS

593. In an ADC computer height computations must be corrected for

A. Mach and altitude
B. airspeed and altitude
C. airspeed and vertical speed

594. what is the purpose of the ADC?

A. to give direct readout of air pressure corrected for compressibility
B. to compute air pressure and temperature input into air data display & transmission output
C. to compute air pressure and temperature input into digital readout corrected for temp error

595. what preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

A. check of aircraft structure
B. bonding and insulation tests
C. shielding of all sensitive equipment