匀夀䰀䰀䄀䈀唀匀

䐀爀
⸀ 
匀瀀愀爀
猀栀 
䜀甀瀀琀
愀
QuesID: -1
The execution phase of apoptosis which mediates the final phase of
apoptosis is associated with which of the following caspase?
1. Caspase 9
2. Caspase 8
3. Caspase 3
4. Caspase 1

QuesID: -2
Which of the following is not associated with actions of sirtuins?
1. Inhibit metabolic activity
2. Reduce apoptosis
3. Increased insulin sensitivity
4. Reduced by calorie restriction

QuesID: -3
What is the common change in cell death associated with both apoptosis
and necrosis?
1. Cell shrinkage
2. Bleb formation
3. Condensation of nuclear material
4. Presence of inflammation
QuesID: -4
Female breast at puberty is an example of:
1. Hypertrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia
4. Atrophy

QuesID: -5
All the statement are true regarding coagulative necrosis except:
1. Its most common type of necrosis
2. Ischemia can leads to coagulative necrosis
3. Appear as tomb stone appearance of affected tissue
4. Cheese like appearance of the affected tissue

QuesID: -6
Apoptotic gene which is also associated with autophagy is:
1. p53
2. BAX
3. BCL-2
4. BID
QuesID: -7
All of the following are method of detection of apoptotic cell except:
1. Estimation of Annexin V
2. Step ladder pattern on gel electrophoresis
3. TUNEL technique
4. Smear pattern on gel electrophoresis

QuesID: -8
Skin biopsy was stained with a special stain to identify melanin and the
image is shown below:

Which of the following is the likely stain to have been used?

1. Prussian blue
2. Hematoxylin and eosin
3. Masson stain
4. Masson fontana stain
QuesID: -9
Which of the following processes involve caspase 1 and 11 activation?
1. Necrosis
2. Necroptosis
3. Apoptosis
4. Pyroptosis

QuesID: -10
Which is the most commonly used fixative in histopathological specimens?
1. Glutaraldehyde
2. Formaldehyde
3. Alcohol
4. Picric acid

QuesID: -11
All the statement related to neutrophil extracellular traps (NET) are true
except:
1. NET is an example of beneficial suicide for the neutrophil
2. Provide low concentration of antimicrobial at the site of infection
3. It is extracellular fibrillary network
4. It can be associated with increased risk of autoimmune disease
QuesID: -12
Which of the following is true with regards to wound healing?
1. Collagen I is gradually replaced by collagen III in wound healing
2. Wound strength is 70% after 4 weeks of wound healing
3. Myofibroblasts may lead to large skin defects being reduced to 5% to
10% of their original size within 6 weeks
4. Maximum wound strength is achieved after 2 years

QuesID: -13
C3 complement is cleared by?
1. CD 59
2. CD 55
3. Factor D
4. Factor E

QuesID: -14
After binding of complement and antibody on the surface of encapsulated
bacteria, the process of phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
involves which of the following?
1. Fc and C3b Receptor-mediated endocytosis
2. Diapedesis
3. Respiratory burst
4. Pseudopod extension
QuesID: -15
Which product of arachnoid acid metabolism has anti inflammatory
property?
1. IL-10
2. TGF-beta
3. Lipoxin
4. All of the above

QuesID: -16
All of the following are true in respect of angioneurotic edema except?
1. It is caused by deficiency of complement proteins
2. It is more common in females
3. It manifests as pitting edema
4. It is an autosomal dominant disorder

QuesID: -17
Nephrocalcinosis in a systemic granulomatous disease is due to:
1. Overproduction of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D
2. Dystrophic calcification
3. Mutation in calcium sensing receptors
4. Increased reabsorption of calcium
QuesID: -18
Classical pathway macrophage activating molecule:
1. IFN-ϒ
2. IL-4
3. IL-13
4. IL-1

QuesID: -19
Pick the false statement about pattern recognition receptors out of the
following:
1. Toll like receptors are best known of the pattern recognition receptors
2. Toll like receptors are present in the plasma membrane and act by
activation of NF-κB and interferon regulatory factor
3. NOD-like receptors (NLRs) are cytosolic receptors whose mutations
lead to autoimmune disorders
4. RIG-like receptors (RLRs) are located in the cytosol and stimulate the
production of antiviral cytokines
QuesID: -20
Which of the following pattern of antibodies is seen most commonly?

1.

2.

3.

4.
QuesID: -21
True statements are all except:
1. Chromosome six has the genes for MHC
2. Genes encoding complement proteins are located adjacent to class I
3. Monocytes have MHC II antigens on their surface
4. Class III doesnot encode complement

QuesID: -22
Which of the following is incorrect about IgA deficiency?
1. It is the second most common immunoglobulin deficiency disease
2. Decreased risk of sinopulmonary infections and diarrhea
3. Reduced risk of SLE and rheumatoid arthritis
4. Anaphylactic reaction on blood transfusion

QuesID: -23
Which of the following is the most suitable graft for a patient likely to
undergo renal transplantation?
1. Autograft
2. Isograft
3. Xenograft
4. Allograft
QuesID: -24
A patient presented with a progressive history of muscle weakness
resulting in getting up from a chair and climbing steps. The physician also
notices a lilac colored discoloration of the upper eyelids associated with
periorbital edema. Laboratory evaluation reveals increased creatinine
phosphokinase and a positive antinuclear antibody. Which of the following
antibodies is most expected to be seen in this patient?
1. Anti-Jo1 antibodies
2. Anti-P155 antibody
3. Anti-P140 antibody
4. Anti-Mi2 antibodies

QuesID: -25
A patient with high titer antinuclear antibodies died from progressing renal
impairment. Autopsy revealed membranous glomerulopathy and abacterial
polypous endocarditis. An immunofluorescence microscopy shows IgG
deposition along the dermoepidermal junction. There was periarterial
bulbar sclerosis in spleen and productive proliferative vasculitis in skin.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Nephrotic syndrome
2. Dermatomyositis
3. Rheumatism
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus
QuesID: -26
Autoimmunity is caused by all except:
1. Infections
2. Expression of cryptic antigens
3. Negative selection of T- cells in the thymus
4. Inappropriate expression of the MHC proteins

QuesID: -27
Type 1 MHC presents peptide antigen to T cell , so that peptide binding site
is formed by:
1. Alfa and Beta chain
2. Distal domain alfa 1 and 2
3. Distal alfa and beta domains
4. Proximal domain alfa 1 and 2

QuesID: -28
Number of criteria for HLA matching are:
1. 10
2. 4
3. 16
4. 22
QuesID: -29
A patient has been diagnosed with systemic sclerosis. He has the presence
of anti RNA polymerase III antibody. Which of the following is more
common in this patient?
1. Reduced risk of scleroderma renal crisis
2. Acute onset of disease
3. Reduced risk of malignancy
4. Increased risk of pulmonary hypertension

QuesID: -30
Mixed lymphocyte culture is useful for identification of which of the following
cells?
1. MHC class I antigen
2. MHC class II antigen
3. B lymphocytes
4. Natural killer cells
QuesID: -31
A tissue was stained using a dye and then observed with light microscopy
as well as immunofluorescence microscopy (see the images). Identify the
incorrect statement out of the following:

1. It is a condition which may manifest affecting organs like heart and

kidney
2. The diagnosis in a suspected case may be made with immunostaining
3. The depicted material is present intracellularly
4. Electron microscopy would reveal the presence of non branching fibrils

QuesID: -32
Cell responsible for ‘Graft versus host disease;’ (GVHD) is:
1. Donor T cell
2. Donor B cell
3. Host T cell
4. Host B Cell
QuesID: -33
In thymus, which gene is responsible for recognition of self-antigens?
1. NOTCH 1
2. AIRE
3. Rb
4. PTEN

QuesID: -34
Which antibody is associated with increased risk of congenital heart block
in a baby whose mother is having SLE?
1. Anti-ribosomal P antibody
2. Anti-Ro antibody
3. Anti-La antibody
4. Anti ds DNA antibody

QuesID: -35
Which is not included in Mixed connective tissue disorder?
1. Systemic sclerosis
2. SLE
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Polymyositis
QuesID: -36
Clinical feature of 22q11 mutation syndrome include which of the following
manifestation?
1. Hypercalcemia
2. Conotruncal abnormalities
3. Thymic hyperplasia
4. Dysmorphogenesis of the 1st and 2nd pharyngeal pouches

QuesID: -37
Which of the following features is not shared between ‘T cells’ and B cells’?
1. Antigen Specific Receptors
2. Class I MHC Expression
3. Positive selection during development
4. All of the above

QuesID: -38
Which of these complement factor is a marker of humoral rejection?
1. C3d
2. C5a
3. C3b
4. C4d
QuesID: -39
All of the following statements are true about Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
except:
1. It is an autosomal recessive disorder
2. There is reduced aggregation of platelets in response to agonists
3. Thrombocytopenia is seen
4. Patient presents with eczema

QuesID: -40
Risk of HIV transmission is not seen with:
1. Whole blood
2. Platelets
3. Plasma derived Hepatitis B vaccine
4. Leucocytes

QuesID: -41
Which of the following is not true about chromothrypsis?
1. It is associated with chromosome rearrangements termed as
chromosome shattering
2. It is observed in 1% to 2% of cancers as a whole
3. Associated with inactivation of oncogenes and activation of tumor
suppressors
4. Increased frequency of 25% of osteosarcomas and high frequency in
gliomas
QuesID: -42
Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased
amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the cortical
layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological
examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these
histological changes?
1. Antigen stimulation
2. Acquired insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue
3. Tumour transformation
4. Innate insufficiency of the lymphoid tissue

QuesID: -43
IgG4-related disease is a newly recognized entity. Which of the following
thyroid abnormality is associated with this condition?
1. De quervain thyroiditis
2. Postpartum thyroiditis
3. Reidel thyroiditis
4. Hashimoto thyroiditis

QuesID: -44
Which of the following is not a correctly matched precursor lesion?
1. Chronic inflammation: schistosomiasis and bladder cancer
2. Non inflammatory hyperplasias: leukoplakia and penile cancer
3. Benign neoplasms: villous adenoma
4. Chronic inflammation: leukoplakia and oral cancer
QuesID: -45
Which of the following tumor suppressor genes act by inhibition of
mitogenic signaling pathway?
1. PTCH:
2. SDHB, SDHD
3. BRCA 1; 2 gene
4. CDKN2A:

QuesID: -46
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
1. Rb: governor of cell replication
2. APC: gatekeeper of colonic neoplasia
3. P63: guardian of the genome
4. Rb: molecular “on-off switch” of the cell

QuesID: -47
A 42 year old woman has had a feeling of abdominal discomfort for the
past 8 months. Abdominal CT scan demonstrates a 6 cm cystic mass
involving the right ovary with small areas of calcification. Post removal, the
ovary grossly, the mass on sectioning is filled with abundant hair and
sebum. Microscopically, the mass has glandular spaces lined by columnar
epithelium, squamous epithelium with hair follicles, cartilage, and dense
connective tissue. What type of tumour is it?
1. Sarcoma of ovary
2. Metastasis of cervical carcinoma
3. Squamous cell carcinoma of ovary
4. Teratoma
QuesID: -48
Which of the following tests is used to differentiate the chromosome of
normal and cancer cells?
1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. Comparative genomic hybridization
3. Western blotting
4. Karyotyping

QuesID: -49
In tumor lysis syndrome, all of the following are seen, except:
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hyperphosphatemia
4. Hypercalcemia

QuesID: -50
Thorotrast is a chemical involved in the carcinogenesis of which organ?
1. Heart
2. Skin
3. Liver
4. Kidney
QuesID: -51
Identify the pair with their corresponding immunohistochemistry IHC that
have prognostic and therapeutic significance:
1. Squamous cell carcinoma- Cytokeraitn
2. Rhabdomycosarcoma- Desmin
3. Breast carcinoma – Her 2 neu
4. Prostatic adenocarcinoma- PSA

QuesID: -52
Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by which of the following?
1. Base pair defect
2. Nucleotide excision Repair
3. Mismatch repair defect
4. Protein folding

QuesID: -53
Which of the following is not true about PTEN gene?
1. It is the membrane associated phosphatase
2. Encoded by gene located on chromosome 10q23
3. It is mutated in endometrial, breast, thyroid carcinoma
4. It acts as a proto-oncogene
QuesID: -54
All of the following statements are true regarding human T cell leukemia
virus 1 except:
1. It causes adult T cell lymphoma/leukaemia
2. It has tropism for CD 8 + T cell
3. It has long latent period of about 40 to 60 years
4. Leukaemia develop in only 3 to 5% of infected individual

QuesID: -55
False regarding tumor marker is:
1. Used for screening
2. Used for follow up of cancer patient
3. Confirmation of diagnosis
4. Monitoring of treatment of cancer patient

QuesID: -56
Malignancy is typically associated with disordered differentiation and
maturation. Which of the following mentioned option best describe
anaplasia?
1. Hepatic tumors synthesizing bile
2. Skin tumor producing keratin pearl
3. Bronchial epithelium cell producing keratin pearl
4. Colonic tumor cell producing mucin
QuesID: -57
All are true regarding retinoblastoma except:
1. They play major role in cell cycle regulation
2. Require deletion of both the Rb genes
3. Familial variant is autosomal dominant in inheritance
4. Chromosome 13p 14

QuesID: -58
Which of the following markers increases the risk of recurrent carcinoma
breast?
1. CA 125
2. CA 19-9
3. CA 27-29
4. PSA

QuesID: -59
Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair with respect to the
different tumor markers mentioned below?
1. Desmin–Carcinoma
2. Vimentin–sarcoma
3. Leucocyte specific antigen–lymphoma
4. S100–melanoma
QuesID: -60
A 30 months old boy is brought to the physician with jaundice and
pallor.Investigations show anemia, reticulocytosis, and increased indirect
bilirubin.A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells without central
pallor. This patient is most likely to have which of the following additional
findings?

1. Decreased lactate dehydrogenase

2. Increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
3. Increased mean corpuscular volume
4. Red blood cell inclusions
QuesID: -61
A 56-year-old female presents in the month of December with chronic
fatigue and cyanosis of nose with blue lips. A peripheral blood smear
showed the following image. What is the most likely cause of the findings
seen?

1. Clumps of RBCs due to IgM mediated cold autoim¬mune haemolytic

anemia
2. Clumps of RBCs due to IgG mediated warm auto¬immune haemolytic
anemia
3. RBC lysis due to hemoglobinopathy
4. Clumps of RBCs due to IgG mediated cold autoim¬mune haemolytic
anemia
QuesID: -62
26-year-old female presents with pallor with a hemoglobin of 9.5 mg/dL,
PCV 30 and RBC count of 2 million per cubic millimeters. What is the likely
diagnosis?
1. Sideroblastic anemia
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Thalassemia
4. Folic acid deficiency

QuesID: -63
Features of hemolytic anemia include all except?
1. Hemoglobinemia
2. Bilirubinemia
3. Reticulocytosis
4. Haptoglobin increased

QuesID: -64
Eosin-5- Maleamide flow cytometry is used for diagnosis of:-
1. G6PD
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. Alpha thalassemia
QuesID: -65
Most immunogenic RBC blood group system:-
1. Kell
2. Duffy
3. Kidd
4. Lewis antigen

QuesID: -66
A lady presented with microcytic anemia unresponsive to iron therapy. The
physician suspected a disease for which her blood sample was taken and
subjected to a test whose image is show alongside. Answer the true
statement out of the following:

1. The affected individual has HbF as the predominant hemoglobin.

2. It is a definitive test for the suspected condition.
3. Most individuals develop severe anemia as the clinical manifestation.
4. There is infrequent requirement of blood transfusion in the affected
individuals.
QuesID: -67
What will be the corrected reticulocyte count in a patient with a hemoglobin
of 5 and absolute reticulocyte count of 9%?
1. 4.5%
2. 6%
3. 1%
4. 3%

QuesID: -68
All the following features precipitate sickling of HbS except:
1. Hypoxia
2. Dehydration
3. Infections
4. Alkalosis

QuesID: -69
An 18 year old patient’s hemogram shows Hb 12 g%, RBC count of 6
million, decreased MCV (56), decreased MCH (29) and RDW of 14. What
is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Iron deficient stores
2. Folate deficiency
3. Beta thalassemia trait
4. Normal lab parameters
QuesID: -70
All of the following are pre-leukemic conditions except
1. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
2. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
3. Aplastic anemia
4. Myelodysplastic syndrome

QuesID: -71
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about reticulocyte?
1. Smaller than RBC
2. Increased in hemolytic anemia
3. Staining is done by Romanowsky stain
4. Contain nucleus

QuesID: -72
Which of these is true about intracellular iron homeostasis in iron deficiency
anemia?
1. Ferritin mRNA concentration decreases and ferritin synthesis increases
2. Transferrin receptor 1mRNA upregulation and increased receptor
expression
3. Ferritin mRNA concentration increases and ferritin synthesis decreases
4. Transferrin receptor1 rnRNAdownregulation and decreased receptor
expression
QuesID: -73
Schistocytes in peripheral are seen in all except:
1. DIC
2. Sickle cell anemia
3. TTP
4. HUS

QuesID: -74
Bone marrow examination reveals leukoerythroblastic picture with
dacryocytes. There was also positive history of dry tap during bone marrow
aspiration. What is the probable diagnosis?
1. Abundant fat cells laden bone marrow
2. Primary myelofibrosis
3. Fatty degeneration with erythroid cell hyperplasia with megakaryocytes
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency

QuesID: -75
Blister cells are seen in:
1. Thalassemia
2. Chronic liver disease
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. G6PD disease
QuesID: -76
All the following are criteria for diagnosing severe aplastic anemia except:
1. Bone marrow cellularity <25%
2. Reticulocyte < 60,000/mm3
3. Platelet < 20,000/mm3
4. Absolute neutrophil count < 1500/mm3

QuesID: -77
Chromosome 21 belongs to which of the following subtype?
1. Acrocentric chromosome
2. Metacentric chromosome
3. Submetacentric chromosome
4. Telocentric chromosome

QuesID: -78
Which of the following is false with respect to karyotyping?
1. It is also known as study of chromosomes
2. Sample can be taken from skin fibroblast, amniotic cells and
peripheral blood lymphocytes
3. The chromosomes are arranged in ascending order of their length
4. Carnoy’s fixative (methanol and glacial acetic acid in ratio of 3:1) is
used for karyotyping
QuesID: -79
If a chromosome divides in an axis perpendicular to usual axis of division it
is going to form:
1. Ring chromosome
2. Isochromosome
3. Acrocentric chromosome
4. Subtelocentric chromosome

QuesID: -80
If a rare disease with an early onset of symptoms is inherited in a way
where male and female are affected equally and only homozygous persons
are affected, then the likely mode of inheritance is
1. Autosomal dominant inheritance
2. Autosomal recessive inheritance
3. X linked dominant inheritance
4. X linked recessive inheritance

QuesID: -81
No change of genetic material occurs in which of the following cytogenetic
abnormalities?
1. Deletion
2. Insertion
3. Translocation
4. Inversion
QuesID: -82
All the following are true about trisomies except
1. Trisomy 21 is associated with increased risk of mental retardation
2. Trisomy 21 is the commonest trisomy seen in fetuses
3. Trisomy 13 is associated with Patau syndrome
4. Trisomy 18 is associated with Edward

QuesID: -83
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the genetic basis of
Down syndrome:
1. 95% of individuals with Down syndrome have meiotic non disjunction
2. Mitotic non disjunction may lead to mosaicism.
3. Meiotic non disjunction affects meiosis II in this condition.
4. 4% cases are caused due to Robertsonian translocation between
chromosomes 14 and 21.

QuesID: -84
Which of the following is not a component of triple test screening in Down
syndrome?
1. Estriol
2. Alpha fetoprotein
3. Hcg
4. Inhibin alpha
QuesID: -85
A baby born to a couple who are 45 years each is at higher risk of
development of:
1. Down syndrome
2. Marfan syndrome
3. Klinefelter syndrome
4. Osteogenesis imperfecta

QuesID: -86
Which of the following is not a property of autosomal dominant disorders?
1. Affects males and females equally
2. Vertical inheritance
3. Complete penetrance
4. Variable expressivity

QuesID: -87
The correct statement about genomic imprinting leading to Prader Willi
syndrome include all except:
1. Gene inactivation may take place due to histone deacetylation or
DNA methylation
2. Deletion of metarnal chromosome 15 leads to Prader Willi syndrome
3. Uniparental maternal chromosome 15 disomy
4. Reduced activity of SNORP proteins
QuesID: -88
A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed
clinical and laboratory evaluation (including molecular studies) both parents
are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in
this family?
1. Non penetrance
2. Uniparental disomy
3. Genomic imprinting
4. Germline mosaicism

QuesID: -89
Read the pedigree chart and identify the pattern of transmission:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X – linked dominant
4. X – linked recessive
QuesID: -90
Read the pedigree chart and identify the pattern of transmission:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X – linked dominant
4. X – linked recessive

QuesID: -91
ABO blood group inheritance is an example of:
1. Codominance
2. Mitochondrial inheritence
3. Allelic exclusion
4. Sex-linked Inheritance

QuesID: -92
A patient has been diagnosed with Marfan syndrome. Which of the
following is the most common cause of death in these patients?
1. Liver disease
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Recurrent infection
4. Aortic disease
QuesID: -93
Patient suffering from thrombophlebitis of the deep veins suddenly died.
Autopsy has shown freely lying red friable masses with dim crimped
surface in the trunk and bifurcation of the pulmonary artery. What
pathologic process was revealed by morbid anatomist?

1. Fat embolism
2. Thrombosis
3. Tissue embolism
4. Thromboembolism
QuesID: -94
58-year-old man suffered road traffic accident and came to the hospital. He
had multiple fractures in his lower limbs, ribs and lung contusion. Ultimately
he succumbed to his injuries. At autopsy, a biopsy from the lung showed
the following appearance. What is the likely cause of his death?

1. Fat embolism
2. Emphysema
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Congestive heart failure