Test 1: Indian Polity Instructions:: General Studies Test Series

GENERAL STUDIES TEST SERIES
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-2017
TEST 1: INDIAN POLITY

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions:
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best.
2. All items carry equal marks.
3. Mark your answer on the Answer Sheet provided separately. For marking
your answer darken the circle against the option by using a Pencil.
4. Penalty for wrong Answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS
(1) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(2) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(3) If a question is left blank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for the question.
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Q1. Consider the following statements about the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Constitution of India: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The Preamble is part of the Constitution.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Preamble aids in the Interpretation of
Q6. Consider the following statements:
the Constitution.
1. Many of the Constitutional Amendments
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
under Art 368 require special majority of only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only two houses of the Parliament for their
passage.
2. A constitutional amendment, once assented
to by the President, cannot be judicially
1. An Adjournment motion is necessarily reviewed by the courts.
followed by a vote in the house.
2. Any discussion under Rule 193 in Lok Sabha
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
does not require voting at the end.
1. A Parliamentary Committee is necessarily a
joint committee.
Q3. The Business Advisory Committee in the Lok
2. All Standing Committees and Estimates
Sabha is headed by
Committee are joint committees.
(a) the Speaker
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(b) the Leader of the House
(c) the Leader of the largest opposition party
(d) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
Q4. Consider the following statements about the
Constitution of India: 1. The tenure of Lok Sabha can be extended,
1. The ‘Supremacy of the Constitution’ has beyond 5 years by the Parliament in case of
been held to be a part of the Basic Structure imposition of emergency.
of the constitution. 2. The tenure of a Legislative Assembly can be
2. The Constitution intends to give unlimited extended beyond 5 years by the State
amending powers to the Parliament. Legislature in case of imposition of
emergency.
Q5. Consider the following statements about
federal principle. Q9. In which of the following circumstances, is the
Council of Ministers not bound to resign?
1. If the Union and State Governments are
formed by the same political party, the real (a) Passage of No-confidence motion.
intention of federal principle may be (b) Non-passage of confidence motion.
compromised.
(c) Non-passage of Union Budget.
2. The federal principle can be better served
(d) Passage of Censure motion.
if the ruling coalition at the Union
government comprises regional parties as Q10. Consider the following statements:
well.
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1. A democratic government is a better (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
government because it is a more Q14. Consider the following statements:
accountable form of government.
1. As per constitutional provisions, there shall
2. A democratic decision always involves be council of ministers to aid and advise the
many persons, discussions and meetings. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. In case of defeat of the government on a
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Non-Confidence Motion, the President may
have a Caretaker Government.
Select the correct option.
Q11. With reference to the Preamble of the
Constitution of India, consider the following (a) Only 1 is correct
statements: (b) Only 2 is correct
1. The word ‘socialist’ implies that the (c) Both are correct and statement 2 explains
government should regulate the ownership statement 1.
of land and industry to reduce socio-
(d) Both are correct and statement 2 does not
economic inequalities.
explain statement 1.
2. The word ‘secular’ means that the
government treats all religious beliefs and
practices with equal respect. 1. The Constitution of India prohibits child
labour upto age of 18 years.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
2. The incidence of child labour reduces the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only chances of the attainment of universalisation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of primary education.
Q12. Consider the following statements about Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Indian Federalism: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. There is unequal representation of states in
the Rajya Sabha.
2. The alteration in the area and boundaries of
the states is exclusively in the hands of the 1. Every Friday, 2 ½ hours are reserved for
centre. Private Members Business.
3. On the matters of the concurrent list, the 2. A bill introduced by a member who is not a
centre has exclusive powers. minister, is called Private Members Bill.
4. The residuary powers are placed in the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
domain of the states. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the above statement is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Q17. Consider the following statements:
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only 1. All the Fundamental Rights have
Q13. Consider the following statements: Constitutional sanction.
1. A person, disqualified to become member of 2. Fundamental Rights cannot override the
the Rajya Sabha, is not eligible to become the Directive Principles in all cases.
Vice President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is administered (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Oath of office by the President.
1. A Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2016 has Q22. Which of the following does not promote
been introduced in the Parliament. secularism?
2. The Bill aims at granting citizenship to (a) equal recognition to all the religions by the
Rohingya refugees from Myanmar. state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) disallowing religious education in state
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only educational institutions.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) giving preference to religious basis in
framing social policies.
the Railway Budget and the recent changes in (d) complete dissociation of the state from
it: religion.
1. The Rail Budget was separated from the Q23. Which of the following is not correctly
General Budget on the recommendation of matched?
Acworth Committee before independence. Constitutional Values Meaning
2. There shall be no separate Rail Budget from (a) Justice : Fairness
2017-18 onwards.
(b) Liberty : Unfettered
3. Merging of Rail Budget with Union Budget freedom
requires Constitutional amendment.
(c) Republic : Elected head
4. The Rail travel fares are highly subsidized in
India. (d) Equality : Non-discrimination
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Q24. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 1. A limited government translates into

responsible governance.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
2. An accountable government minimizes the
Q20. Which of the following statement(s) is/are chances of arbitrariness in actions.
correct about a Confidence Motion?
1. It is brought against the Council of Ministers.
2. It is specifically mentioned in the Rules of
Procedure of the Lok Sabha. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. No grounds are mentioned in a Confidence Q25. Consider the following statements:

Motion. 1. The principle of ‘Rule of Law’ rules out
Which of the above statements is/are correct? unlimited discretion on the part of the
government.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
2. As per the provision of the Constitution of
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only India, the Union Government is accountable
Q21. Consider the following statements: to the President.
1. The Directive Principles aim at achieving a Which of the above statements is/are correct?
welfare state in India. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The Directive Principles have no inherent (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
conflict with the Fundamental Rights as per
the Supreme Court. Q26. Consider the following statements about the
Constitution of India:
1. It is based on the principle of collective
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only responsibility.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It recognizes positive discrimination in
certain circumstances.
3. It contains enough provisions to safeguard 1. The ‘Right to Life’ does not, merely, mean
the rights of the people. animal existence.
4. It does not direct the state to dissociate itself 2. All the fundamental rights together create an
from the religion. organic whole, they do not work in isolation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Protection against arbitrary executive action
is available but no such protection is
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
available against arbitrary legislative action.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
4. The judgement in Maneka Gandhi case led to
Q27. Consider the following statements about the expansive interpretation of Article 21.
Fundamental Rights as mentioned in the Which of the above statement(s) holds/hold true
Constitution of India: in the present context?
1. These Rights are amendable under the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 only
limitations of the basic features of the
constitution. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
2. All the rights attract automatic suspension Q31. Consider the following statements about the
during emergency period. Prime Minister in Indian political set up:
3. Right to Life is exclusively available to 1. He is the leader of largest party/alliance in
citizens. the Parliament.
4. The Courts cannot intervene if the state 2. He selects a member as speaker of the Lok
lawfully restricts fundamental rights. Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 3. There is no expressed provision in the
Constitution related to his appointment.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 only
4. He acts as a link between the President and
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Council of Ministers.
Q28. Which of the following phrases does/do not
find mention in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
1. Rule of Law
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 4 only
2. Welfare of people
3. Equal protection of laws
provisions related to disqualifications of
4. Judicial Review members of Parliament:
Choose the correct code 1. A non-citizen cannot become member of
either house.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Those who hold office of profit cannot
become members unless exempted under
Q29. Which of the following bodies finalises the some laws.
Address of the President before it is 3. A sitting member is disqualified if he/she is
presented in the Parliament? declared undischarged insolvent.
(a) Union Cabinet 4. A member who votes against the party whip
(b) Parliament attracts disqualification.
(c) President Secretariat Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) Lok Sabha Secretariat (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q30. With reference to various judgements by the (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Supreme Court regarding the Fundamental
Rights, consider the following statements: Q33. Consider the following statements:
1. The strength of a Departmentally Related 1. According to constitutional provisions,
Standing Committee (DRSC) is 31. employment of children below the age of
2. All the DRSCs are not joint parliamentary 14 years in any factory or mine or other
committees. hazardous occupation is forbidden.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation)
Act, 1986 specifically prohibits the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only employment of children in certain
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 industries.
Q34. In the context of Parliament, Adjournment 3. In the recent past, Kailash Satyarthi
sine die means received Noble Prize for his exceptional
contribution in the field of eradication of
(a) termination of session of the house
child labour.
(b) termination of a discussion under
4. The National Commission for Protection of
Adjournment motion
Child Rights in a constitutional body.
(c) Indefinite termination of a sitting of the
house
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None of the above
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) assists the
PM in fulfilling his duties under the GoI 1. Both Fundamental Rights and Directive
(Allocation of Business Rules), 1961. Principles, together constitute ‘conscience
2. It is functionally headed by Principal of the constitution’.
Secretary. 2. Implementation of some Directive
3. The PMO does not fall under the ambit of the Principles cannot be challenged in courts if
Right to Information Act, 2005. it contravenes certain Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q36. With reference to the provisions related to Q39. The power to disqualify an MP of the Lok
the Directive Principles, which of the Sabha under Anti-Defection law lies with.
following statements is/are not correct? (a) the Speaker of Lok Sabha only
1. The state shall prohibit the use of (b) the Election Commission
intoxicants.
(c) Speaker on recommendation of Election
2. The state shall raise the level of nutrition Commission
and promote public health.
(d) the Supreme Court
3. The state shall prohibit employment of
children under 14 years of age. Q40. Consider the following statements:
1. During the debates and discussions on
4. The state shall safeguard the educational
Annual Financial Statement under Article
rights of religious and linguistic minorities.
112, cut motions can be raised.
Select the correct code:
2. A private member during discussion on
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only Budget proposals can suggest increasing the
expenditure.
Q37. Consider the following statements about Child
Labour in India: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q45. Consider the following statements:
Q41. Consider the following statements: 1. The right to practise religion is an
unrestricted fundamental right.
1. To give respect to the National Anthem is
one of the specified provisions in the 2. Practice of religion includes soliciting votes in
Constitution. the name of religion.
2. As per a recent Supreme Court order, playing Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of the National Anthem is mandatory before
films in Cinema halls.
3. The court order does not include any penalty
or punishment for not standing when the Q46. Consider the following statements about the
national anthem is played. Parliament in India:
Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct? 1. It comprises the President, Vice President,
Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 only
2. Rajya Sabha is presided by a Chairman who is
member of the house.
Q42. Which of the following motions can be
3. Parliament exercises financial control over
discussed and passed in both the Lok Sabha the executive.
and the Rajya Sabha?
4. Every five years, the Parliament is reelected.
(a) Adjournment Motion
(b) No-confidence Motion
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Motion of Thanks
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. As per a provision of the constitution, at least
1. All the legislations in Parliament require prior three parliamentary sessions have to be
recommendation of the President for their conducted in a year.
introduction.
2. A Parliamentary session has to be summoned
2. Only Constitutional Amendment Bills under and prorogued by the President.
Art. 368 require prior recommendation of
the President. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q48. Consider the following statements:
Q44. Consider the following statements about 1. No money can be appropriated from the
Office of Profit: Consolidated Fund of India except by the
approval of the Parliament.
1. The phrase ‘Office of Profit’ has been clearly
defined in the Constitution. 2. No demand for a grant shall be made except
on the recommendation of the President.
2. ‘Office of Profit’ is premised as a prevention
against conflict of interests while performing Which of the above statements is/are correct?
their constitutional duties by the members of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the houses.
Q49. In which of the following cases a joint sitting
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only can be summoned?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Passage of Ordinary Bill
2. Impeachment of the President Q53. Consider the following statement about a
3. Passage of Constitutional Amendment Bill Money Bill:
4. Passage of the Union Budget 1. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the
Council of States.
Select the correct code:
2. The Council of States has only
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only recommendatory powers on Money Bills.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only 3. A Money Bill may be passed by a joint
Q50. Consider the following statements: sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
1. All executive actions of the Government of 4. A Money Bill is introduced on the
India shall be expressed to be taken in the recommendation of the Speaker of Lok
name of the President. Sabha.
2. Under the Government of India (Allocation of Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Business) Rules, 1961, portfolios to ministers
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
are allocated by the Prime Minister on the
advice of the President. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The fundamental rights are intended to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 foster the ideal of a political democracy
and to prevent the establishment of
Q51. Consider the following statements about writs authoritarian rule.
issued by the courts:
2. The fundamental rights are of no value if
1. Only Supreme Court can issue writs in cases they are not made justiciable.
of violation of fundamental rights.
Choose the correct code:
2. Both Supreme Court and High Courts can
issue writs in cases of violation of FRs. (a) Only 1 is correct
3. Parliament may by law empower other (b) Only 2 is correct
courts to issues writs. (c) Both are correct and 2 is correct
4. Fundamental Rights of people are explanation of 1.
constitutionally protected by the instrument (d) Both are correct and 2 is not correct
of writs. explanation of 1.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Q55. In which of the following cases, the Speaker
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only cannot use his power of casting vote:
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) passage of ordinary bill
Q52. Consider the following statements: (b) passage of No-confidence Motion
1. The doctrine of Separation of powers in its (c) Resolution of removal of speaker
rigid form means that each organ should (d) passage of Constitutional Amendment Bill
confine itself to its sanctioned function.
Q56. Consider the following statement:
2. The Indian Constitution has not recognised
the doctrine of separation of powers in its 1. The right to live in a pollution free
absolute form. environment is one of the inferences of
Article 21.
2. In M.C Mehta vs UoI, 2000, the SC
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only emphasized the ‘Polluter-Pays Principle’.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 house of he/she acts contrary to the rules of
the house.
Q57. Consider the following statement:
1. No tax shall be levied or collected except by
authority of law. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
nd
2. The Constitutional Amendment (122 ) Bill (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2016, implementing GST, required consent of
both the houses of Parliament only.
1. A representative institution may not be a
democratic institution.
2. One of the demerits of democracy is that
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 views of the majority may not always be
Q58. Consider the following statements: represented properly.
1. The ordinance making power of the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
President co-exists with the law making (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
power of the Parliament.
2. An ordinance can amend the constitution.
1. The President may act on his discretion on an
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ordinary bill.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The discretionary powers of the President
are specifically mentioned in the
Q59. In which of the following cases secularism was
constitution.
held to be part of basic structure of the
Constitution? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) M.C. Mehta vs. UoI, 2000 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Unnikrishnan vs. UoI, 1993 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) S.P. Gupta vs. UoI, 1982 Q64. Consider the following statements about the
Vice-President:
(d) S.R. Bommai vs. UoI, 1994
1. He is part of Union Executive.
Q60. Which of the following is a case of
violation of Rights to Equality as per 2. When he/she acts as President, the functions
constitutional provisions? of office of Vice-President are undertaken by
the Union Government.
(a) classification of people into other
backward castes. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) special provisions for the President of India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
and Governors of States. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) some protection to members of Q65. In a recent session of the Parliament the
legislatures in civil cases in courts. opposition parties have demanded an
(d) classification on the basis of religion only. Adjournment motion over the issue of
Q61. Consider the following statements: (a) Demonetisation

1. Only members of Parliament can remain a (b) Civil Nuclear Deal with Japan
minister, if ministership goes beyond 6 (c) Surgical Strike in POK region
months.
2. A member of Parliament can be suspended
from participation in the proceedings of a Q66. In which of the following ways, a seat of a
member of Parliament may fall vacant.
1. resignation from membership of the house (c) 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
2. remaining absent from the house Q71. Consider the following statements:
continuously for 60 days without 1. The constitution guarantees certain rights to
permission. citizens and some to non-citizens as well.
3. expulsion from the party 2. The rights are limitations on the state power.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q67. Consider the following statements: Q72. The decision of Sarla Mudgal vs. UoI, 1994
1. The Government of India Act, 1935 relates to
contained no affirmation of fundamental (a) Uniform Civil Code
rights.
(b) Right to Primary Education
2. The Government of India Act, 1935
contained Directive Principles under the (c) Protection of Environment
name of Instrument of Instructions. (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The implementation of Uniform Civil Code
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (UCC) will strengthen the ideal of equality.
Q68. Which of the following provisions of the 2. The UCC, if implemented, may lead to
Constitution of India can be amended by a violation of right to practise religion.
constitutional amendment? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Supremacy of the Constitution (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Judicial review (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Secularism Q74. Consider the following statements:
(d) Method of election of President 1. The expenditure charged upon the
Q69. Which of the following is not specifically Consolidated Fund of India cannot be voted
mentioned in the Directive Principles of State upon in the Parliament.
Policy? 2. The expenditure made from the
(a) promotion of interests of weaker sections Consolidated Fund of India is voted upon in
the Parliament.
(b) raising level of nutrition
(c) removal of untouchability
(d) safeguarding the environment
Q70. The word ‘Sovereign’ in the context of the
Indian Constitution means Q75. Consider the following statements:
1. having Independent Foreign Policy 1. The President acts on his discretion when he
decides a mercy petition.
2. having Independent Internal Security Policy
3. acquiring foreign land 2. His constitutional position makes him just a
figurative and ceremonial head of the State.
4. unlimited and unaccountable powers within
the nation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q76. The accountability or responsibility of the Q80. The Speaker may be removed
Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok Sabha is (a) by a resolution of a House passed by the
(a) periodic majority of total membership of the House
(b) indirect (b) by a resolution of the House passed by
(c) at the time of elections 2/3rd majority of members present and
(d) direct, continuous and collective voting
Q77. After the judgment of the Supreme Court in (c) by a resolution of the House moved after
Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Union of India, 1980 the 14 days clear notice and passed by majority
provision of Article 31C means that of all the then members of the House
(a) all Directive Principle can supersede the (d) by a resolution moved after 14 days notice
Fundamental Rights. and passed by majority of the members
present.
(b) no Directive Principle can supersede the
Fundamental Rights. Q81. During the recess of the Parliament, the
President can promulgate ordinances
(c) the Directive Principles contained in Article
39 (a) supersedes the Fundamental Rights. (a) with the prior approval of Parliament
(d) the Directive Principle contained in Article (b) with the consent of the Council of
39 (b) and (c) supersede some Ministers
Fundamental Rights. (c) with the prior approval of Supreme Court
Q78. Consider the following statements: of India
1. It is the legal and constitutional duty of the (d) on his own

State to provide legal aid to the poor. Q82. In the context of Indian Constitution the
2. No one shall be denied justice by reason of phrase ‘supremacy of the constitution’
his poverty. implies
Choose the correct code: 1. That all the organs in the constitution should
work within the provisions of the constitution.
(a) 1 is true and 2 is false.
2. That judiciary has an important and crucial
(b) 1 is false and 2 is true. role to ensure it.
(c) Both are true and 2 is the correct Which of the above statements is/are correct?
explanation of 1.
(d) Both are true but 2 is not the correct
explanation of 1. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q79. Which of the following are included in the list Q83. Consider the following statements:
of fundamental duties in the Constitution? 1. The Vice-President of India can be re-elected
1. to abide by the Constitution and respect its to his post.
ideal and institution 2. In case of vacancy in the office of the Vice-
President of India, election to fill the vacancy
2. to safeguard public property and to abjure
shall be held not later than 6 months of
violence
occurrence of vacancy.
3. to uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India
4. to uphold and protect secularism
Q84. Separation of the judiciary from the executive
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
in governance is specifically ascertained in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(b) the Fundamental Rights Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q85. Consider the following statements: Q89. Consider the following statements:
1. The makers of the Constitution of India 1. The distributive justice as covered under
were mindful of the wide inequalities and Article 39 (b) & (c) of the Constitution is
disparities of the Indian society. given primacy over fundamental Right of
equality.
2. The constitution of India contains
provisions which allow classification of 2. Fundamental Rights are means to an end
people on the basis of such disparities and and that end is specified in the Directive
inequalities. Principles.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q86. Consider the oollowing statements: Q90. Which of the following is the last instrument
to be passed during the course of passage of
1. Under various legal provisions, the
the Union Budget?
Government can control/censor the films
and movies. (a) Appropriation Bill
2. Excessive censorship of films and movies (b) Finance Bill
may lead to a totalitarian government. (c) Motion of Thanks
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Q91. Consider the following regarding a mercy
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 petition under Article 72.
Q87. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the supreme court, undue delay in
deciding a mercy petition lying with the
1. The constitution specifically allows
President is violation of Right to life under
freedom of speech and expression.
Article 21.
2. In the recent past, the Union Government
2. Decision of the President on a mercy
appointed Shyam Benegal Committee to
petition is subject to judicial review as per
look into the issues of film censorship and
various judgements of the Supreme Court.
certification.
Q88. Consider the following statements: Q92. Consider the following statements about
Presidential System:
1. In August, 2016, the Union Government
1. The Head of the state is also head of the
introduced Transgender Persons
Government.
(Protection of Rights) Bill, 2016.
2. The Head of the Government selects his
2. In 2014, the SC in a case, related to
ministers from the members of the
transgenders ruled that right to personal legislature.
identity, autonomy and self-determination
can be inferred under Article 21 ie., Right Which of the above statements is/are correct?
to life. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Concerned Departmentally Related
Standing Committee.
(b) Business Advisory Committee.
1. The Vice-Chancellor of a Central University
is appointed by the President of India. (c) Committee on Public Assurances.
2. The President of India is the visitor of all (d) Political Affairs Committee of the Union
the Central Universities. Government.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The Union Finance Minister shall cause to
be laid before the Parliament an Annual
Financial Statement of the Union
Q94. Consider the following statements: Government.
1. The executive function of the GoI are 2. Not all the demands can be discussed in
conducted by the President either directly the Lok Sabha, so many of the demands are
or through officers, subordinate to him. passed by using guillotine.
2. The order passed by an officer of GoI are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
assumed to have been authenticated so by
the President under GoI (Transaction of
Business) Rule 1961. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is
appointed by the Speaker.
2. The Deputy Speaker can never have the
power of casting vote.
1. The Impeachment of the President
procedure is a quasi-judicial procedure and
the President of India can be impeached (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
only on the grounds of violation of the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution.
2. The impeachment procedure can be
initiated only in the Lok Sabha. 1. The tenure of the Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha is 6 years.
2. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved by the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only President on the completion of its tenure.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q96. The power to make any provision with
respect to all matters relating to citizenship
in India rest with the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Parliament
(b) Union Ministry of External Affairs Union
Ministry of Law and Justice
(c) Union Ministry of Home Affairs
Q97. All the commitments made by a Minister on
the floor of the House are checked by
ANSWER KEY OF TEST: 1 INDIAN POLITY - I
1. Solution: c 38. Solution: c 75. Solution: b

2. Solution: c 39. Solution: a 76. Solution: d
3. Solution: a 40. Solution: a 77. Solution: d
4. Solution: a 41. Solution: a 78. Solution: c
5. Solution: c 42. Solution: c 79. Solution: d
6. Solution: a 43. Solution: d 80. Solution: c
7. Solution: c 44. Solution: b 81. Solution: b
8. Solution: a 45. Solution: d 82. Solution: c
9. Solution: d 46. Solution: c 83. Solution: a
10. Solution: c 47. Solution: b 84. Solution: c
11. Solution: c 48. Solution: c 85. Solution: c
12. Solution: d 49. Solution: a 86. Solution: c
13. Solution: a 50. Solution: a 87. Solution: c
14. Solution: c 51. Solution: b 88. Solution: c
15. Solution: b 52. Solution: c 89. Solution: c
16. Solution: c 53. Solution: b 90. Solution: b
17. Solution: c 54. Solution: c 91. Solution: c
18. Solution: a 55. Solution: c 92. Solution: a
19. Solution: b 56. Solution: c 93. Solution: c
20. Solution: c 57. Solution: a 94. Solution: c
21. Solution: c 58. Solution: d 95. Solution: a
22. Solution: c 59. Solution: d 96. Solution: a
23. Solution: b 60. Solution: d 97. Solution: c
24. Solution: c 61. Solution: c 98. Solution: b
25. Solution: a 62. Solution: c 99. Solution: d
26. Solution: a 63. Solution: a 100. Solution: d
27. Solution: c 64. Solution: a
29. Solution: a 66. Solution: c
30. Solution: c 67. Solution: c
31. Solution: d 68. Solution: d
32. Solution: a 69. Solution: c
33. Solution: a 70. Solution: b
34. Solution: c 71. Solution: c
36. Solution: b 73. Solution: a
37. Solution: d 74. Solution: c
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Test 1: Indian Polity Instructions:: General Studies Test Series

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GENERAL STUDIES TEST SERIES

TEST 1: INDIAN POLITY

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 1. A limited government translates into

3. No grounds are mentioned in a Confidence Q25. Consider the following statements:

Q61. Consider the following statements: (a) Demonetisation

1. It is the legal and constitutional duty of the (d) on his own

1. Solution: c 38. Solution: c 75. Solution: b

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