1. As per section 2(12) of CPC, ‘mesne profits’ of 10.

Which of the following property is not liable to

property are profits received by a person in; be attached and sold in the execution of a
(a) Unlawful possession of the property decree;
(b) Wrongful possession of the property (a) Money (b) Hundis
(c) Lawful possession of the property (c) Electricity (d) None of the above
(d) Effective possession of the property 11. The stipulation that in a suit by the Central
2. A decree is preliminary; Government, the authority to be named as
(a) When it is issued in the preliminary stages of the plaintiff shall be lithe Union of India” has been
suit provided for in Section:
(b) When further proceedings have to be taken or the (a) 78 (b) 79
suit to be completely disposed of (c) 79A (d) 77
(c) When it deals with some preliminary issues 12. Which of the following is true
(d) None of the above (a) Alien enemies residing in Indian can never sue
3. That a petition dismissed under Article 226 (b) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with the
would operate as res judicata so as to bar a permission of the Central Government
similarpetition in the Supreme Court under (c) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with the
Article 32 of the Constitution was held in the permission of the State Government in whose
case of; jurisdiction they are residing
(a) Daryao v, State of U.P, (d) Alien enemies can sue in any court
(b) Arjun Singh v, State of M.P. 13. Under section 89 of CPC, the court cannot make a
(c) Sudhir Chandra v, State of W.B, reference for;
(d) None of the above (a) Arbitration. (b) Conciliation
4. Which of the following is true; (c) Negotiation (d) Mediation
(a) The pendency of suit in a foreign court precludes the 14. No second appeal shall lie from any decree when
courts in India from a trying a similar suit the subject matter of the original suit is for
(b) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court precludes recovery of money not exceeding;
the courts in India from trying a similar suit (a) Fifteen thousand rupees
provided the suit is founded on the same cause of (b) Twenty thousand rupees
action (c) Twenty-five thousand rupees
(c) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court does not (d) Thirty thousand rupees
preclude the courts in India from trying similar suit 15. The authority to annul, alter or add to the rules
even if it is founded on the same cause of action in he First Schedule of the Code of Civil
(d) None of the above Procedure rests with the;
5. “Any relief claimed in the plaint, which is not (a) High Court b. State Government
expressly granted by the decree, shall, for the (b) Supreme Court with the previous approval of rules
purposes of this section, be deemed to have been by the Central government
refused.” This provision is incorporated in; (c) High Court with the previous approval of rules by
(a) Section 11, Explanation II the State Government
(b) Section 11, explanation III 16. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than
(c) Section 11, Explanation IV on grave provocation under Section 353 of the
(d) Section 11, Explanation V IPC is which kind of offence;
6. The general power to transfer suits under (a) Bailable and Cognizable
section 24 has been granted to: (b) Bailable and Non-cognizable
(a) High Court (b) District Court (c) Non-bailable and Cognizable
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) S u p r e m e (d) Non-bailable and Non-cognizable
7. Under section 32 of CPC, the maximum fine 17. Attempt to commit suicide is triable by;
which can be imposed by the court for (a) Court of Session
compelling the attendance of any person to (b) Magistrate of the first class
whom a summons has been issued under section (c) Any magistrate
30; (d) Executive Magistrate
(a) Two thousand rupees 18. The definition of the “victim” was incorporated
(b) Three thousand rupees in the Code of Criminal Procedure by the
(c) One thousand rupees Amendment Act of;
(d) Five thousand rupees (a) 2009 (b) 2010
8. Precepts are issued under section 46 of CPC for; (c) 2011 (d) 2008
(a) Serving summons on persons residing beyond local 19. The stipulation that all offences under Indian
jurisdiction Penal Code would be tried according to the
(b) Serving a warrant on the judgmentdebtor provisions in Code of Criminal Procedure, is
(c) Attaching the property of the judgmentdebtor contained in which Section;
(d) None of the above (a) 5 (b) 4
9. Under section 58 of CPC, a person detained shall (c) 3 (d) 6
be released from the detention on the amount 20. In relation to the commission of which of the
mentioned in the warrant of his detention being following offence, the general public does not
paid to; have a duty under section 39 of Cr. PC to give
(a) The officer appointed by the court information to the nearest magistrate or police
(b) The officer in charge of the civil prison officer;
(c) The court (a) Criminal breach of trust by public servant
(d) None of the above (b) Kidnapping for ransom
(c) Mischief by destroying a light-house

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 (d) House-trespass in order to commit offence 28. Chapter XXIA of the Cr. P.C. was incorporated in
punishable with imprisonment. the year;
21. Which one of the following is not a necessary (a) 2005 (b) 2006
requirement for a proper procedure of arrest (c) 2004 (d) 2003
under section 41B of Cr. PC; 29. In case of plea Bargaining by the parties;
(a) The police officer shall bear an accurate (a) No jUdgement may be delivbered by the court
identification of his name (b) Judgement may be delivered in private to the parties
(b) The police officer shall bear a visible and clear (c) Judgement shall be delivered in the open court
identification of his name (d) The bargain struck by the parties is to operate as the
(c) The police officer shall prepare a memorandum of Judgement
arrest to be countersigned by the person arrested 30. In which of the following cases it has been held
(d) The police officer shall inform the person arrested that Presence of a lawyer at the time of
that he has the right of legal counsel during interrogation cannot be demanded as a matter of
interrogation. right;
22. Under section 53A of Cr. PC, when a person is (a) Poolpandi and other v Superintendent, Central
arrested on the, charge of ‘committing rape, the Excise
arrestee may be examined by a registered (b) Senior Intelligence Officer v Jugol Kishore Samra
medical practitioner other than a registered (c) Both (a) and (b)
medical practitioner employed in a hospital run (d) None of the above
by the Government or by a local authority when 31. The Information Technology Amendment Act
the later is not available within a radius of came into force in;
Sixteen kilometers m the place; (a) 2008 (b) 2009
(a) Where the offence has been committed (c) 2007 (d) 2010
(b) Wehre the arrest was made 32. Which of the following is not a ‘fact’;
(c) Where the nearest police station is situated (a) Mental condition
(d) Wehre the nearest court is situated (b) Relation of things
23. Which one of the following Magistrate is (c) State of things
authorised under section 110 Cr. P.C. to require (d) None of the above
security for good behaviour from habitual 33. Which one of the following has not been
offenders within his local jurisdiction; mentioned in the definition of “Documents” as
(a) Judicial Magistrate First Class the means by which any matter is expressed or
(b) District Magistrate described upon any substance;
(c) Chief Judicial magistrate (a) Letters (b) Figures
(d) Executive Magistrate (c) Symbols (d) Marks
24. Which of the following person cannot claim 34. ‘Res Gestae’ literally means;
maintenance under section 125 of Cr. PC; (a) Things done
(a) A legitimate child who after attaining majority (b) Things spoken
cannot maintain himself by reason of economic (c) Same transaction
hardship (d) Things then
(b) An illegitimate child who after attaining majority 35. The stipulation that facts which enable the court
cannot maintain himself by reason of economic to determine the amount of damages are
hardship relevant is incorporated in Section of Evidence
(c) Both (a) and (b) Act;
(d) None of the above (a) 12 (b) 10
25. Which one of the following is not an act for the (c) 8 (d) 11
prevention of which and order cannot be made 36. Which of the following state of minds has not
under section 144 Cr. PC; been expressly mentioned in section 14 of the
(a) Disturbance of the Public Tranquillity Indian Evidence Act;
(b) Annoyance to any person lawfully employed (a) Intention (b) Rashness
(c) Injury to any person lawfully employed (c) Motive (d) III-will
(d) None of the above 37. Oral admission as to contents of electronic
26. Which of the following is a ground on which a records are relevant when;
witness under section 161(2) of Cr. PC may (a) The party proposing to prove them shows that he is
refuse to answer questions put by a police entitled to give secondary evidence of the same
officer; (b) The genuineness of the electronic record produced
(a) Answers would have a tendency to expose him to a is in question
criminal charge (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Answers would have a tendency to expose him to a (d) None of the above
penalty 38. Which one of the following has not been
(c) Answers would have a tendency to expose him to a mentioned as a ground under section 24
forfeiture rendering a confession by an accused person
(d) All of the above irrelevant
27. Any court may alter or add to any charge any (a) Inducement (b) Promise
time before; (c) Deceit (d) Threat
(a) The closing of arguments 39. Section 32 of Evidence Act does not speak of
(b) The judgement is written which of the following kind of persons;
(c) The judgment is pronounced (a) Person who is dead
(d) None of the above (b) Person who cannot be found
(c) Person who is unwilling to give evidence

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 (d) Person who has becomeincapable of giving evidence 50. Indecent and scandalous questions may be
40. Under section 45 of Evidence Act, which of the forbidden by the court under;
following have not been mentioned as points on (a) Section 149 (b) Section 150
which opinion of experts is relevant; (c) Section 151 (d) Section 152
(a) Point of foreign law 51. In relation to devolution of joint liabilities, as a
(b) Point of domestic law general rule the Indian Contract Act
(c) Point of art incorporates the principle of;
(d) Point of science (a) Survivorship (b) Both a & b
41. Under section 57 of the Evidence Act, the court is (c) Succession (d) None of the above
not bound to take judicial notice of which of the 52. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance
following facts; of one party & not of other party under section 2
(a) The existence of every state recognised by the (i) is called
Government of India (a) A valid contract
(b) The title of every state recognised by the (b) An illegal contract
Government of India (c) A void contra’ct
(c) The national flag of every state recognised by the (d) A voidable contract
Government of India 53. Competency to contract relates to
(d) The national emblem of every state recognised by (a) Age of the parties
the Government of India (b) Soundness of mind of the parties
42. The Best Evidence Rule in relation to (c) Both age & soundness of mind
documentary evidence is incorporated in (d) Intelligence of the parties
section; 54. A general offer open for world at large can be
(a) 61 (b) 64 accepted
(c) 65 (d) 66 (a) By sending a communication of acceptance
43. Which one of the following is not a public (b) By complying with the conditions of offer
document; (c) By tendering himself to comply the conditions of
(a) Documents forming records of acts of tribunals offer
(b) Documents forming records of acts of public officers (d) None of the above
of India 55. A sub-agent is responsible to the principal on
(c) Documents forming records of acts of public officers which of the following grounds
of a foreign country (a) Fraud or Negligence
(d) Public records kept of private documents (b) Negligence or Deceit
44. A person is presumed to be alive if it is shown (c) Willful wrong or Fraud
that he was alive within years (d) Willful wrong or Negligence
(a) Fourteen (b) Twenty 56. Which of the following Section of the Indian
(c) Seven (d) Thirty Contract Act provides that the responsibility of
45. The rule that once the terms of any contract have finder of goods is similar to that of a bailee;
been proved by documentary evidence, no (a) 69 (b) 70
evidence of any oral statement shall be admitted (c) 71 (d) 72
for contradicting such terms has provisos 57. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a
establishing variations to the rule. person cannot sue for recovering the possession
(a) 6 (b) 4 of immovable property;
(c) 3 (d) 7 (a) After six months from the date of dispossession
46. If a child is born within days after the dissolution (b) After nine months from the date of ispossession
of a valid marriage, it is a conclusive proof of the (c) After twelve months from the date of dispossession
legitimacy of the child. (d) After twenty-four months from the date of
(a) 270 (b) 275 dispossession
(c) 280 (d) 285 58. Which one of the following is not a ground on
47. Which of the following does not figure in section which a reasonable restrictions on the right to
115 while dealing with applying the principle of freedom of speech and expression can be
Estoppel; imposed;
(a) Conduct (b) Act (a) Security fo the State
(c) Omission (d) Declaration (b) Morality
48. The provisions of section 126 of the Evidence Act (c) Public Order
dealing with confidentiality of professional (d) Public Policy
communication shall apply to; 59. Which of the following is included in the
(a) Clerks of barristers definition of ‘law’ as provided in Article 13;
(b) Servants of pleaders (a) Bye-Law
(c) Interpreters of barristers (b) Custom having the force of law
(d) All of the above (c) Usage having the force of law
49. Which of the following is true; (d) All of the above
(a) There cannot be further crossexamination after re- 60. Which one of the following is a ground which is
examination not mentioned in both Articles 15 and Article 16
(b) There can be further cross-examination after re- on which the State cannot discriminate;
examination as per Section 137 (a) Race (b) Caste
(c) There can be further cross-examination after re- (c) Residence (d) Place of Birth
examination as per Section 138 61. Practising untouchability is;
(d) There can be further cross-examination after re- (a) Violation of a constitutional right
examination as per Section 139 (b) A criminal offence

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 (c) Both (a) and (b) (a) One year
(d) Violation of a legal right only (b) Six months
62. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 (c) Nine months
are subject to the rule of res judicata except (d) Eighteen months
(a) Quo Warranto 73. When the President refers a matter to the
(b) Habeas Corpus Supreme Court;
(c) Cerliorari (a) The court is bound to render its opinion
(d) Prohibition (b) The court is bound to render its opinion when it is a
63. Which one of the following is a ground on which dispute of the kind mentioned in the Proviso to
the state can impose reasonable restrictions on Article 131
the right to move freely throughout the territory (c) The court is bound to render its opinion when it is a
of India; dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 71
(a) Security of the state (d) The court is bound to render its opinion when it is a
(b) Decency dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 72
(c) Morality 74. Which of the following grounds is necessary to
(d) Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe be proved in order to remove a speaker of any
64. As per article 21A, the state shall provide free Legislative Assembly;
and compulsory. education to all children of the (a) Misbehavior
age of; (b) Incapacity
(a) Six to fourteen years (c) Conduct involving moral turpitude
(b) Six to twelve years (d) None of the above
(c) Six to ten years 75. Questions as to the age of a judge of a High Court
(d) Six to eighteen years are to be decided by;
65. According to Article 50, the state Shall take steps (a) President
to; (b) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(a) Separate the judiciary from the executive in the (c) Governor
public services of the state (d) Chief Justice of India
(b) Separate functioning of judiciary from executive 76. Which of the following section deal with an
(c) Separate the powers of judiciary from the executive implied warranty in every contract of sale;
(d) Separate the powers of judiciary from the legislature (a) 14(a) (b) 14(b)
66. What is the minimum age to be eligible for (c) 15 (d) 16(2)
becoming the President of India; 77. Which of the following rights of an unpaidseller
(a) 35 (b) 45 can be exercised only when the buyer has
(c) 55 (d) 25 become insolvent and not otherwise;
67. When the President is to be impeached, the (a) Right of lien
charge shall be preferred by; (b) Right of Re-sale
(a) Either House of the Parliament (c) Right of stoppage in transit
(b) The Upper House of the Parliament (d) Right to Sue
(c) The Lower House of the Parliaemnt 78. As per section 41, the buyer must have the
(d) Both the Houses of the Parliament simultaneously reasonable opportunity to examine the goods for
68. What is the meaning of ‘lex loci’ the purpose of ascertaining;
(a) Law of land (a) The goods are in a deliverable state
(b) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws (b) The goods are of merchantable quality
(c) Law of the land is supreme (c) The goods are in conformity with the contract
(d) Crown has supreme authority (d) All of the above
69. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted 79. Within how many months of attaining majority, a
in the Preamble by amendment of the minor admitted into the benefits of a
Constitution. partnership firm must decide whether he wants
(a) 15th (b) 39th to become a partner in the firm?
(c) 44th (d) 44th (a) Two (b) Three
70. As far as Armed Forces are concerned the (c) Six (d) Twelve
fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 80. Generally, an introduction of a new partner in a
and 19 of the Constitution are partnership firm would require the consent of;
(a) Not available at all (a) The majority of the partners
(b) Available to armed forces but not to other forces (b) All the partners
(c) Available only at the discretion of the Chief of Army (c) The majority of partners barring the dormant
staff partners
(d) Available only according to law made by Parliament (d) The partners having majority share in the firm
71. The following are not included in the right to 81. Which of the following sections deals with
personal liberty Personal bars to the remedy of specific relief;
(a) Right to go abroad (b) Right to human dignity (a) 14 (b) 15
(b) Right to undertrial prisoners not to be detained for (c) 16 (d) 17
unreasonably long period 82. The period of limitation for a suit to claim
(c) Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours in police compensation for false imprisonment is;
custody (a) One year (b) Two years
72. During the Proclamation of Emergency, the (c) Three years (d) Twelve years
duration of the House of People may be extended 83. Which section of the Haryana Urban (Control of
by the Parliament for a period not exceeding at a Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 deals with eviction
time of tenants;

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 (a) 10 (b) 11 95. The term “offence” is defined under Section, of
(c) 12 (d) 13 IPC
84. A petition for divorce may be presented under (a) 41 (b) 42
section 13(1) A if even after the passing of a (c) 40 (d) 43
decree for restitution of conjugal rights, which 96. In the IPC, nothing is an offence when it is done
have not been restored for a period of at least by a child below:
(a) 2 years (b) 6 months (a) 12 years of age
(c) 1 years (d) 18 months (b) Above seven but below 12 years of age
85. Naveen Kohli v. Neelu Kohli’s case dealt with (c) Below 14 years of age
(a) Irretrievable breakdown of marriage (d) None of the above
(b) Adultery 97. A, under the influence of grave provocation by Z,
(c) Divorce by mutual consent kills V, Z’s child. A is guilty of
(d) Conversion (a) Culpable homicide
86. The decree of Restitution of Conjugal Rights can (b) murder
be enforced under the following provision of (c) Grievous hurt
CPC; (d) No offence as he was under provocation
(a) Order 21 Rule 32 98. Under section 376 of the (PC A public servant
(b) Order 22 Rule 31 committing rape on a woman in his custody shall
(c) Order 21 Rule 25 be punishable with
(d) None of the above (a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
87. The period of limitation for seeking an (b) Rigoous imprisonment of at least 8 years
annulment of marriage on the ground of Fraud is (c) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
(a) One year from the date of knowing the fact of Fraud (d) None of the above
(b) Six months from the date of knowledge of Fraud 99. A crime under section 399 can sufficiently
(c) Within two years from the incident of Fraud attract punishment under the IPC at the stage of:
(d) Within fourteen months from the date of knowledge (a) Intention (b) Preparation
offraud (c) Attempt (d) Commission
88. Forced intercourse by a man with his wife while 100. S.511 of the Indian Penal Code applies to
a decree of judicial separation is in effect offences punishable under the
(a) is punishable under the Hindu Marriage Act (a) Indian Penal Code
(b) is punishable under the Indian Penal Code (b) Any special Law
(c) is not an offence in India (c) Any Local Law
(d) None of the above (d) All of the above
89. One of the following is not a condition for 101. Under section 103 of IPC, the right to Private
determining the capacity of a male Hindu to defence of property extends to causing death if
adopt; the offence is:
(a) Consent of wife under certain circumstances (a) Mischief per se
(b) Majority (b) Robbery per se
(c) Soundness of mind (c) Theft per se
(d) Must be necessarily married (d) All of the above
90. A Hindu man wants to adopt a girl-child. The 102. Smith v. Desmond is a leading case on:
difference in age between the two should be: (a) Rape
(a) at least 21 years (b) Extortion
(b) at least 15 years (c) Sedition
(c) at least 24 years (d) Criminal Conspiracy
(d) none of the above 103. In the Indian Penal code, the offence of Criminal
91. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Breach of Trust has been dealt with in Section:
Act, a wife will not be entitled to maintenance if (a) 405 (b) 402
(a) she is unchaste (c) 404 (d) 401
(b) her husband has ceased to be a Hindu 104. For which of the following offences, mens rea is
(c) she is suffering from a venereal disease in not a requisite?
communicable form (a) Kidnapping (b) Robbery
(d) All of the above (c) Trespass (d) None of the above
92. A Nikah solemnized in the absence of Qazi 105. If the offender is armed with deadly weapons at
(a) Valid the time of attempting dacoity, he is liable to be
(b) Void punished with
(c) Irregular (a) Rigorous imprisonment of at least 7 years
(d) None of the above (b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
93. As a general rule, interest in the coparcenary (c) Rigorous imprisonment not exceeding 5 years
property is acquired by virtue of (d) None of the above
(a) birth (b) inheritance 106. A was attempting to kill a deer in a sanctuary.
(c) marriage (d) none of the above While doing so, the gunshot hit a man who died
94. Customs are an important source of Hindu Law. instantly. A is guilty of
One of the following is not a necessary featue of (a) Culpable Homicide
Customs: (b) Murder
(a) Uniformity (c) Grievous hurt
(b) Certainty (d) None of the above
(c) Conformity with publicpolicy 107. The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means
(d) None of the above (a) Ignorance of law is no excuse

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 (b) Ignorance of fact is no excuse (b) most conspicuous bravery or some act of self
(c) Ignorance of law is an excuse sacrifice
(d) Ignorance of fact is an excuse (c) gallantry in the presence of enemy
108. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided (d) none of the above
under Sec. ___IPC 120. What is the effect of deficit financing on
(a) 80 (b) 81 economy?
(c) 82 (d) 84 (a) Inflation (b) India
109. Irresistible impulse is a defence (c) Depression (d) Albania
(a) in India 121. Mother Teresa was born in
(b) in England (a) Swtizerland (b) Deflation
(c) in Indian and England both (c) Germany (d) Recession
(d) neither in India nor in England 122. Who is known as ‘Little Corporal”?
110. Abettor is a person (a) Adolf Hitler
(a) who commits the offence (b) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) who instigates the commission of offence (c) William E. Gladstone
(c) against whom the offence is committed (d) None of these
(d) who is innocent 123. Asian Games have been organised in India
111. 10 persons were charged for offence under (a) Once (b) thrice
section 302/149 IPC, out of which six persons (c) five limes (d) twice
were acquitted, the remaining four 124. Ranji Trophy and Aga Khan Cup are associated
(a) cannot be convicted for offence under section with
302/149 of IPC (a) Cricket and Footbal
(b) cannot be convicted for offence under section 302 of (b) Cricket and Volleyball
IPC (c) Cricket and Hockey
(c) cannot be convicted for offence under section 149 of (d) Badminton and Hockey
IPC 125. The term ‘deuce’ is common in which of the
(d) all the above following two games?
112. In the context of the exception of grave & sudden (a) Basketball and Badminton
provocation, which of the following is Correct (b) Badminton and Tennis
(a) provocation should not be voluntarily provoked by (c) Volleyball and Tennis
the offender (d) None of these
(b) lawful, exerciseof the right of private defence does
not give provocation
(c) lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in
obedience to the law does not amount to
provocation
(d) all the above
113. Grave & sudden provocation is
(a) question of fact
(b) question of law
(c) mixed question of fact & law
(d) a presumption under the law
114. Which one of the following is not a “Public
Servant”
(a) liquidator
(b) a Civil Judge
(c) member of a panchayat assisting a Court of justice
(d) secretary of a Co-operative Society
115. Navy Day is observed on
(a) Dec A (b) Dec. 25
(c) Dec. 31 (d) Jan. 1
116. The shorter version of India’s National Anthem
has a playing time of
(a) 12 seconds (b) Pantnagar
(c) 20 seconds (d) Parapani
117. The highest airfield in India is
(a) Shuntar (b) Chushul
(c) 15 seconds (d) 26 seconds
118. Who among the following has the longest tenure
as the President of India?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) V.v. Giri
119. Shaurya Chakra made up of bronze is awarded
for:
(a) gallantry otherwise than in the face of the enemy
1. a 2. b 3. a

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 4. c 45. a 86. a
5. d 46. c 87. a
6. c 47. a 88. b
7. d 48. d 89. d
8. c 49. c 90. a
9. c 50. c 91. a
10. d 51. b 92. a
11. b 52. d 93. a
12. b 53. c 94. d
13. c 54. b 95. c
14. c 55. c 96. d
15. d 56. a 97. b
16. b 57. a 98. c
17. c 58. d 99. b
18. a 59. b 100. a
19. b 60. c 101. d
20. d 61. c 102. d
21. d 62. b 103. a
22. a 63. d 104. a
23. d 64. a 105. a
24. c 65. a 106. d
25. b 66. a 107. a
26. d 67. a 108. c
27. c 68. a 109. d
28. b 69. c 110. b
29. c 70. d 111. a
30. c 71. a 112. d
31. b 72. b 113. a
32. d 73. d 114. d
33. c 74. a 115. a
34. a 75. b 116. c
35. a 76. c 117. c
36. c 77. c 118. b
37. b 78. c 119. a
38. c 79. c 120. a
39. c 80. b 121. d
40. c 81. c 122. b
41. b 82. a 123. d
42. b 83. d 124. c
43. c 84. c 125. b
44. d 85. a

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