Paper I Set Answer Keys

ANSWER KEY
UPSC
June 2
General Studies
Prelims, Paper - I 2019
SET - A, B, C, D
-:by:-
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IAS
Toppers
2018
Congratulations! Junaid Srushti
Jayant Deshmukh
Karnati
Varunreddy
Vaishali
Singh
Pujya
Ahmad Priyadarshini
CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION) 2019

PAPER - I (GENERAL STUDIES) ANSWER KEY
SET - A
S. NO. ANSWER S. NO. ANSWER S. NO. ANSWER S. NO. ANSWER S. NO. ANSWER
1 (d) 21 (a) 41 (d) 61 (b) 81 (d)
2 (b) 22 (a) 42 (d) 62 (a) 82 (a)
3 (c) 23 (a) 43 (b) 63 (d) 83 (a)
4 (a) 24 (b) 44 (b) 64 (b) 84 (d)
5 (c) 25 (d) 45 (b) 65 (b) 85 (d)
6 (d) 26 (d) 46 (c) 66 (c) 86 (d)
7 (c) 27 (a) 47 (a) 67 (d) 87 (a)
8 (a) 28 (d) 48 (a) 68 (a) 88 (c)
9 (d) 29 (c) 49 (a) 69 (a) 89 (b)
10 (a) 30 (a) 50 (b) 70 (a) 90 (b)
11 (d) 31 (d) 51 (c) 71 (a) 91 (b)
12 (a) 32 (d) 52 (b) 72 (d) 92 (b)
13 (d) 33 (c) 53 (a) 73 (a) 93 *
14 (b) 34 (d) 54 (b) 74 (b) 94 (b)
15 (d) 35 (d) 55 (b) 75 (d) 95 (d)
16 (a) 36 (b) 56 (b) 76 (c) 96 (a)
17 (c) 37 (b) 57 (c) 77 (a) 97 (b)
18 (d) 38 (a) 58 (b) 78 (c) 98 (d)
19 (c) 39 (a) 59 (c) 79 (c) 99 (a)
20 (a) 40 * 60 (c) 80 (d) 100 (b)
Note :
* implies no perfect answer available at the time of making answer key.
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IAS
Toppers
2018
Jayant Deshmukh
Karnati
Varunreddy
Vaishali
Singh
Pujya
Ahmad Priyadarshini

SET - B
1 (d) 21 (d) 41 (a) 61 (d) 81 (c)
2 (d) 22 (a) 42 (a) 62 (a) 82 (b)
3 (b) 23 (d) 43 (a) 63 (a) 83 (a)
4 (b) 24 (b) 44 (b) 64 (d) 84 (b)
5 (b) 25 (d) 45 (d) 65 (D) 85 (B)
6 (c) 26 (a) 46 (d) 66 (d) 86 (b)
7 (a) 27 (c) 47 (a) 67 (a) 87 (c)
8 (a) 28 (d) 48 (d) 68 (c) 88 (b)
9 (a) 29 (c) 49 (c) 69 (b) 89 (c)
10 (b) 30 (a) 50 (a) 70 (b) 90 (c)
11 (d) 31 (d) 51 (b) 71 (b) 91 (a)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (a) 92 (d)
13 (c) 33 (c) 53 * 73 (d) 93 (a)
14 (d) 34 (a) 54 (b) 74 (b) 94 (b)
15 (d) 35 (c) 55 (d) 75 (b) 95 (d)
16 (b) 36 (d) 56 (a) 76 (c) 96 (c)
17 (b) 37 (c) 57 (b) 77 (d) 97 (a)
18 (a) 38 (a) 58 (d) 78 (a) 98 (c)
19 (a) 39 (d) 59 (a) 79 (a) 99 (c)
20 * 40 (a) 60 (b) 80 (a) 100 (d)
Note :

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23318135/36, 23738906/07 2722050 9916035536
www.rauias.com
322

IAS
Toppers
2018
Jayant Deshmukh
Karnati
Varunreddy
Vaishali
Singh
Pujya
Ahmad Priyadarshini

SET - C
1 (b) 21 (a) 41 (c) 61 (d) 81 (d)
2 (b) 22 (d) 42 (b) 62 (d) 82 (a)
3 * 23 (a) 43 (a) 63 (c) 83 (d)
4 (b) 24 (b) 44 (b) 64 (d) 84 (b)
5 (d) 25 (d) 45 (b) 65 (d) 85 (d)
6 (a) 26 (c) 46 (b) 66 (b) 86 (a)
7 (b) 27 (a) 47 (c) 67 (b) 87 (c)
8 (d) 28 (c) 48 (b) 68 (a) 88 (d)
9 (a) 29 (c) 49 (c) 69 (a) 89 (c)
10 (b) 30 (d) 50 (c) 70 * 90 (a)
11 (d) 31 (b) 51 (d) 71 (a) 91 (d)
12 (a) 32 (a) 52 (d) 72 (a) 92 (b)
13 (a) 33 (d) 53 (b) 73 (a) 93 (c)
14 (d) 34 (b) 54 (b) 74 (b) 94 (a)
15 (d) 35 (b) 55 (b) 75 (d) 95 (c)
16 (d) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (d) 96 (d)
17 (a) 37 (d) 57 (a) 77 (a) 97 (c)
18 (c) 38 (a) 58 (a) 78 (d) 98 (a)
19 (b) 39 (a) 59 (a) 79 (c) 99 (d)
20 (b) 40 (a) 60 (b) 80 (a) 100 (a)
Note :

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23318135/36, 23738906/07 2722050 9916035536
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322

IAS
Toppers
2018
Jayant Deshmukh
Karnati
Varunreddy
Vaishali
Singh
Pujya
Ahmad Priyadarshini

SET - D
1 (a) 21 (d) 41 (b) 61 (a) 81 (d)
2 (d) 22 (a) 42 (b) 62 (a) 82 (d)
3 (a) 23 (a) 43 * 63 (a) 83 (b)
4 (b) 24 (d) 44 (b) 64 (b) 84 (b)
5 (d) 25 (d) 45 (d) 65 (d) 85 (b)
6 (c) 26 (d) 46 (a) 66 (d) 86 (c)
7 (a) 27 (a) 47 (b) 67 (a) 87 (a)
8 (c) 28 (c) 48 (d) 68 (d) 88 (a)
9 (c) 29 (b) 49 (a) 69 (c) 89 (a)
10 (d) 30 (b) 50 (b) 70 (a) 90 (b)
11 (b) 31 (c) 51 (d) 71 (d) 91 (d)
12 (a) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (a) 92 (d)
13 (d) 33 (a) 53 (c) 73 (d) 93 (c)
14 (b) 34 (b) 54 (a) 74 (b) 94 (d)
15 (b) 35 (d) 55 (c) 75 (d) 95 (d)
16 (c) 36 (b) 56 (d) 76 (a) 96 (b)
17 (d) 37 (c) 57 (c) 77 (c) 97 (b)
18 (a) 38 (b) 58 (a) 78 (d) 98 (a)
19 (a) 39 (c) 59 (d) 79 (c) 99 (a)
20 (a) 40 (c) 60 (a) 80 (a) 100 *
Note :

Tel: 011 – 4078 6050, 23317293, Tel: 0141 – 410 6050/57, Tel: 080 – 255 35536/ 37/ 38/ 39,
23318135/36, 23738906/07 2722050 9916035536
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C. : BKL – F - GHP Test Booklet Series

Serial No.
TEST BOOKLET
2065370 GENERAL STUDIES
Paper–I
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places
in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each
item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate . Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in. some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a, wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1. Consider the following statements: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen radiation.
oxides into environment. (c) The Earth's surface would have low
2. Cattle release ammonia into temperature on cloudy nights.
environment. (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
3. Poultry industry releases reactive ground level.
nitrogen compounds into
environment. 5. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. The 44th Amendment to the
correct? Constitution of India introduced an
(a) 1 and 3 only Article placing the election of the
(b) 2 and 3 only Prime Minister beyond judicial
(c) 2 only review.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The Supreme Court of India struck
down the 99th Amendment to the
2. What is common to the places known as Constitution of India as being
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? violative of the independence of
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits judiciary.
(b) Tropical rain forests Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Underground cave systems correct?
(d) Water reservoirs (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
3. In the context of proposals to the use of (c) Both 1 and 2
hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for buses in public transport, consider the
following statements: 6. Consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H- 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the
CNG is the elimination of carbon Supreme Court of India cannot be
monoxide emissions. rejected by the Speaker of the Lok
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
and hydrocarbon emissions. 1968.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume 2. The Constitution of India defines and
can be blended with CNG as fuel for gives details of what constitutes
buses. incapacity and proved misbehaviour'
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
than CNG. India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The details of the process of
correct? impeachment of the Judges of the
(a) 1 only Supreme Court of India are given in
(b) 2 and 3 only the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
(c) 4 only 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by
4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy each House of the Parliament and
night? supported by a majority of total
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released membership of that House and by not
from the Earth's surface. less than two-thirds of total members
of that House present and voting.
BKL– F – GHP 2
Which of the statements given above is/are 10. Under which Schedule of the
correct? Constitution of India can the transfer of
(a) 1 and 2 tribal land to private parties for mining be
(b) 3 only declared null and void?
(c) 3 and 4 only (a) Third Schedule
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the (d) Twelfth Schedule
constitution of India during the prime
ministership of 11. Recently, there was a growing awareness in
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru our country about the importance of
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia)
(c) Indira Gandhi because it is found to be a sustainable source
(d) Morarji Desai of
(a) anti-malarial drug
8. Consider the following statements: (b) biodiesel
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the (c) pulp for paper industry
Government of India under Indira (d) textile fibre
Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on 12. For the measurement/estimation of which
lottery basis. of the following are satellite images/remote
3. Till recently, India imported coal to sensing data used?
meet the shortages of domestic 1. Chlorophyll content in the
supply, but now India is self-sufficient vegetation of a specific location
in coal production. 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice
Which of the statements given above is/are paddies of a specific location
correct? 3. Land surface temperatures of a
(a) 1 only specific location
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
9. Consider the following statements: (c) 3 only
1. The Parliament (Prevention of (d) 1, 2 and 3
Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts
several posts from disqualification on 13. Consider the following States:
the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 1. Chhattisgarh
2. The above-mentioned Act was 2. Madhya Pradesh
amended five times. 3. Maharashtra
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well- 4. Odisha
defined in the Constitution of India. With reference to the States mentioned
Which of the statements given above is/are above, in terms of percentage of forest cover
correct? to the total area of State, which one of the
(a) 1 and 2 only following is the correct ascending order?
(b) 3 only (a) 2-3-1-4
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2-3-4-1
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
BKL– F – GHP 3
14. Which of the following statements are 17. Among the following, which one is the
correct about the deposits of 'methane largest exporter of rice in the world in the
hydrate? last five years?
1. Global warming might trigger the (a) China
release of methane gas from these (b) India
deposits. (c) Myanmar
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' (d) Vietnam
are found in Arctic Tundra and under
the seafloor. 18. Consider the following pairs:
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to
Glacier : River
carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Bara Shigri : Chenab
given below.
3. Milam : Mandakini
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Siachen : Nubra
(b) 2 and 3 only
5. Zemu : Manas
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
15. Consider the following: (a) 1, 2 and 4
1. Carbon monoxide (b) 1, 3 and 4
2. Methane (c) 2 and 5
3. Ozone (d) 3 and 5
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into 19. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl
atmosphere due to the burning of parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed
crop/biomass residue? with apprehension. These chemicals are
(a) 1 and 2 only used as
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) pesticides in agriculture
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) preservatives in processed foods
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics
16. Consider the following pairs:
Sea : Bordering country 20. Consider the following statements:
1. Adriatic Sea : Albania 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is
2. Black Sea : Croatia mandatory on the part of the
3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan Government of India to protect and
4. Mediterranean : Morocco conserve all the wetlands in the
Sea territory of India.
5. Red Sea : Syria 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2010 were
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
framed by the Government of India
matched?
based on the recommendations of
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ramsar Convention.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and
(c) 2 and 5 only
Management) Rules, 2010 also
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
encompass the drainage area or
catchment regions of the wetlands as
determined by the authority.
BKL– F – GHP 4
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. In Lord Chelmsford's War
correct? Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not
(a) 1 and 2 only support the resolution on recruiting
(b) 2 and 3 only Indians for World War.
(c) 3 only 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Law by Indian people, the Indian
National Congress was declared
21. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a illegal by the colonial rulers.
notable feature in the temple Which of the statements given above are
construction in the kingdom of correct?
(a) Chalukya (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Chandela (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Rashtrakuta (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Vijayanagara (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Consider the following statements: 25. With reference to Indian National
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Movement, consider the following pairs:
Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue Person : Position held
collection was known as 'Amil'. 1. Sir Tej : President, All India
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi Bahadur Liberal Federation
was an ancient indigenous institution. Sapru
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into 2. K. C. : Member, The
existence during the reign of Khalji Neogy Constituent Assembly
Sultans of Delhi. 3. P. C. Joshi : General Secretary,
Which of the statements given above is/are Communist Party of
correct? India
(a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only
correctly matched?
(c) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
23. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary
of Akbar.
26. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by
of the following statements is not correct?
Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by
Which of the statements given above is/are
Emperor Akbar.
correct?
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on
(a) 1 only
Hindu gods and goddesses.
(b) 2 only
(c) Tansen composed songs on his
(c) Both 1 and 2
patrons.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.
24. With reference to the British colonial rule in

27. Who among the following Mughal
India, consider the following statements:
Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in
manuscripts to album and individual
the abolition of the system of
portrait?
Indentured labour'.
(a) Humayun
BKL– F – GHP 5
(b) Akbar (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan 32. With reference to land reforms in
independent India, which one of the
28. Which one of the following National Parks following statements is correct?
lies completely in the temperate alpine (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family
zone? holdings and not individual holdings.
(a) Manas National Park (b) The major aim of land reforms was
(b) Namdapha National Park providing agricultural land to all the
(c) Neora Valley National Park landless.
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops
as a predominant form of cultivation.
29. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (d) Land reforms permitted no
(a) Department of Science and exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and 33. The Global Competitiveness Report is
Employment published by the
(c) NITI Aayog (a) International Monetary Fund
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and (b) United Nations Conference on Trade
Entrepreneurship and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
30. On 21st June, the Sun (d) World Bank
(a) does not set below the horizon at the
Arctic Circle 34. Consider the following statements about
(b) does not set below the horizon at 'the Charter Act of 1813':
Antarctic Circle 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on East India Company in India except
the Equator for trade in tea and trade with China.
(d) shines vertically overhead at the 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the
Tropic of Capricorn British Crown over the Indian
territories held by the Company
31. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are 3. The revenues of India were now
the difference/differences between Jagirdar controlled by the British Parliament.
and Zamindar? Which of the statements given above are
1. Jagirdars were holders of land correct?
assignments in lieu of judicial and (a) 1 and 2 only
police duties, whereas Zamindars (b) 2 and 3 only
were holders of revenue rights (c) 1 and 3 only
without obligation to perform any (d) 1, 2 and 3
duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were 35. With reference to Swadesh Movement
hereditary and revenue rights of consider the following statements:
Zamindars were not hereditary. 1. It contributed to the revival of the
Select the correct answer using the code indigenous artisan crafts and
given below. industries.
(a) 1 only 2. The National Council of Education
(b) 2 only was established as a part of Swadeshi
(c) Both 1 and 2 Movement.
BKL– F – GHP 6
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 40. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India during the Gupta period, which one of
the following statements is correct?
36. Consider the following pairs: (a) It was considered a source of income
Movement/Organiz : Leader for the State, a sort of tax paid by the
ation people.
1. All India Anti- : Mahatma Gandhi (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya
Untouchability Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the
League Gupta Empire.
2. All India Kisan : Swami (c) The forced labourer was entitled to
Sabha Sahajanand weekly wages.
Saraswati (d) The eldest son of the labourer was
3. Self-Respect : E. V. Ramaswami sent as the forced labourer.
Movement Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are 41. Which one of the following groups of plants
correctly matched? was domesticated in the 'New World' and
(a) 1 only introduced into the 'Old World?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(d) 2 and 3 (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat
37. Which one of the following is not a
Harappan site? 42. Consider the following statements:
(a) Chanhudarp 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India
(b) Kot Djii only.
(c) Sohgaura 2. Double-humped camel is naturally
(d) Desalpur found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally
38. In which of the following relief sculpture found in India only.
inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Which of the statements given above is/are
Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone correct?
portrait of Ashoka? (a) 1 only
(a) Kanganahalli (b) 2 only
(b) Sanchi (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Shahbazgarhi (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Sohgaura
43. Consider the following pairs:
39. Consider the following: Famous place : River
1. Deification of the Buddha. 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
3. Image worship and rituals. 3. Hampi : Malaprabha
Which of the above is/are the feature/
features of Mahayana Buddhism?
matched?
(a) 1 only
BKL– F – GHP 7
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
(b) 2 and 3 only Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-
(c) 1 and 3 only Srisailam Tiger Reserve
(d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following statements:
44. In a given year in India, official poverty 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
lines are higher in some States than in others 2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
because 3. Some species of marine mammals are
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State herbivores.
(b) price levels vary from State to State 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
(c) Gross State Product varies from State Which of the statements given above are
to State correct?
(d) quality of public distribution varies (a) 1 and 3 only
from State to State (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
45. In the context of which of the following do (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
some scientists suggest the use of cirrus
cloud thinning technique and the injection 49. Consider the following pairs:
of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
Wildlife : Naturally found in
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some :
1. Blue-finned Cauvery River
regions
Mahseer
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity :
2. Irrawaddy Chambal River
of tropical cyclones
Dolphin
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar :
3. Rusty- Eastern Ghats
wind on the Earth
spotted Cat
(d) Reducing the global warming
46. In the context of which one of the following matched?
are the terms "pyrolysis and plasma (a) 1 and 2 only
gasification' mentioned? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies 50. Why is there a great concern about the
'microbeads' that are released into
47. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala environment?
Biosphere Reserve? (a) They are considered harmful to
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney marine ecosystems.
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad (b) They are considered to cause skin
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve cancer in children.
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and (c) They are small enough to be absorbed
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and by crop plants in irrigated fields.
Silent Valley National Park (d) They are often found to be used as
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram food adulterants.
and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries;
and Mukurthi National Park 51. In the context of digital technologies for
entertainment, consider the following
statements:
BKL– F – GHP 8
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a 1. an electronic record that identifies the
simulated environment is created and certifying authority issuing it
the physical world is completely shut 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of
out. an individual to access information or
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images server on Internet
generated from a computer are 3. an electronic method of signing an
projected onto real-life objects or electronic document and ensuring that
surroundings. the original content is unchanged
3. AR allows individuals to be present in Which of the statements given above is/are
the world and improves the correct?
experience using the camera of smart- (a) 1 only
phone or PC. (b) 2 and 3 only
4. VR closes the world, and transposes (c) 3 only
an individual, providing complete (d) 1, 2 and 3
immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are 55. In the context of wearable technology,
correct? which of the following tasks is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only accomplished by wearable devices?
(b) 3 and 4 1. Location identification of a person
(c) 1, 2 and 3 2. Sleep monitoring of a person
(d) 4 only 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
52. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes given below.
mentioned in media in reference to (a) 1 only
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) an early human species (c) 3 only
(c) a cave system found in North-East (d) 1, 2 and 3
India
(d) a geological period in the history of 56. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has
Indian subcontinent gained popularity in the last few years.
Why?
53. With reference to the recent developments 1. It is used in developing gene silencing
in science, which one of the following therapies.
statements is not correct? 2. It can be used in developing therapies
(a) Functional chromosomes can be for the treatment of cancer.
created by joining segments of DNA 3. It can be used to develop hormone
taken from cells of different species. replacement therapies.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can 4. It can be used to produce crop plants
be created in laboratories. that are resistant to viral pathogens.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an Select the correct answer using the code
animal cell can be made to replicate given below.
outside a living cell in a laboratory. (a) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Cells taken out from plants and (b) 2 and 3
animals can be made to undergo cell (c) 1 and 3
division in laboratory petri dishes. (d) 1 and 4 only
54. Consider the following statements : 57. Recently, scientists observed the merger of
A digital signature is giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years
BKL– F – GHP 9
away from the Earth. What is the viruses are several times more than
significance of this observation? those infected with HIV.
(a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis
(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected. B and C viruses do not show the
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space symptoms for many years.
travel through Svormhole' was
confirmed. 61. With reference to the Constitution of India,
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand consider the following statements :
'singularity'. 1. No High Court shall have the
jurisdiction to declare any central law
58. Which of the following are the reasons for to be constitutionally invalid.
the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in 2. An amendment to the Constitution of
microbial pathogens in India? India cannot be called into question by
1. Genetic predisposition of some the Supreme Court of India.
people Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to correct?
cure diseases (a) 1 only
3. Using antibiotics in livestock (b) 2 only
farming (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some (d) Neither 1 nor 2
people
Select the correct answer using the code 62. Consider the following statements :
given below. 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
(a) 1 and 2 exchange rates are calculated by
(b) 2 and 3 only comparing the prices of the same
(c) 1, 3 and 4 basket of goods and services in
(d) 2, 3 and 4 different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the
59. What is Cas9 protein that is often sixth largest economy in the world.
mentioned in news? Which of the statements given above is /are
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted correct?
gene editing (a) 1 only
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate (b) 2 only
detection of pathogens in patients (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) A gene that makes plants pest- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in 63. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif
genetically modified crops crops in India in the last five years, consider
the following statements :
60. Which one of the following statements is not 1. Area under rice cultivation is the
correct? highest.
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is
like HIV. more than that of oilseeds.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than
not have a vaccine. that of sugarcane.
(c) Globally, the number of people 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has
infected with Hepatitis B and C steadily decreased.
BKL– F – GHP 10
Which of the statements given above are 2. they shall ensure that the systems are
correct? owned and operated by public sector
(a) 1 and 3 only enterprises
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. they shall submit the consolidated
(c) 2 and 4 only system audit report to the Comptroller
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 and Auditor General of India by the
end of the calendar year
64. Among the agricultural commodities Which of the statements given above is/are
imported by India, which one of the correct?
following accounts for the highest imports (a) 1 only
in terms of value in the last five years? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Spices (c) 3 only
(b) Fresh fruits (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils 68. Which of the following adopted a law on
data protection and privacy for its citizens
65. In the context of polity, which one of the known as 'General Data Protection
following would you accept as the most Regulation' in April 2016 and started
appropriate definition of liberty? implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of (a) Australia
political rulers (b) Canada
(b) Absence of restraint (c) The European Union
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes (d) The United States of America
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
69. Recently, India signed a deal known as
66. Which one of the following is not the most 'Action Plan for Prioritization and
likely measure the Government/ RBI takes Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the
to stop the slide of Indian rupee? Nuclear Field' with which of the following
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential countries?
goods and promoting exports (a) Japan
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to (b) Russia
issue rupee denominated Masala (c) The United Kingdom
Bonds (d) The United States of America
(c) Easing conditions relating to external
commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary 70. The money multiplier in an economy
policy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
67. Consider the following statements : (b) Increase in the banking habit of the
The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives population
relating to 'Storage of Payment System (c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
Data', popularly known as data diktat, (d) Increase in the population of the
command the payment system providers country
that
1. they shall ensure that entire data 71. The Service Area Approach was
relating to payment systems operated implemented under the purview of
by them are stored in a system only in (a) Integrated Rural Development
India Programme
BKL– F – GHP 11
(b) Lead Bank Scheme contributors to reducing the risk of a
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural currency crisis?
Employment Guarantee Scheme 1. The foreign currency earnings of
(d) National Skill Development Mission India's IT sector
2. Increasing the government
72. With reference to the management of minor expenditure
minerals in India, consider the following 3. Remittances from Indians abroad
statements : Select the correct answer using the code
1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to given below.
the prevailing law in the country. (a) 1 only
2. State Governments have the power to (b) 1 and 3 only
grant mining leases of minor minerals, (c) 2 only
but the powers regarding the (d) 1, 2 and 3
formation of rules related to the grant
of minor minerals lie with the Central 76. Which one of the following suggested that
Government. the Governor should be an eminent person
3. State Governments have the power to from outside the State and should be a
frame rules to prevent illegal mining detached figure without intense political
of minor minerals. links or should not have taken part in
Which of the statements given above is/are politics in the recent past?
correct? (a) First Administrative Reforms
(a) 1 and 3 only Commission (1966)
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) 3 only (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) National Commission to Review the
Working of the Constitution (2000)
73. Consider the following statements :
1. Most of India's external debt is owed 77. Which of the following is issued by
by governmental entities. registered foreign portfolio investors to
2. All of India's external debt is overseas investors who want to be part of
denominated in US dollars. the Indian stock market without registering
Which of the statements given above is/are themselves directly?
correct? (a) Certificate of Deposit
(a) 1 only (b) Commercial Paper
(b) 2 only (c) Promissory Note
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Participatory Note
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
74. Which of the following is not included in the 1. As per law, the Compensatory
assets of a commercial bank in India? Afforestation Fund Management and
(a) Advances Planning Authority exists at both
(b) Deposits National and State levels.
(c) Investments 2. People's participation is mandatory in
(d) Money at call and short notice the compensatory afforestation
programmes carried out under the
75. In the context of India, which of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
following factors is/are contributor/ Act, 2016.
BKL– F – GHP 12
Which of the statements given above is/are 81. Consider the following statements about
correct? Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(a) 1 only (PVTGs) in India :
(b) 2 only 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one
(c) Both 1 and 2 Union Territory.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. A stagnant or declining population is
one of the criteria for determining
79. In India, which of the following review the PVTG status.
independent regulators in sectors like 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, in the country so far.
etc.? 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the included in the list of PVTGs.
Parliament Which of the statements given above are
2. Parliamentary Department Related correct?
Standing Committees (a) 1, 2 and 3
3. Finance Commission (b) 2, 3 and 4
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms (c) 1, 2 and 4
Commission (d) 1, 3 and 4
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code 82. With reference to the Constitution of India,
given below. prohibitions or limitations or provisions
(a) 1 and 2 contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
(b) 1, 3 and 4 prohibitions or limitations on the
(c) 3, 4 and 5 constitutional powers under Article 142. It
(d) 2 and 5 could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election
80. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, Commission of India while
which of the following statements is/are discharging its duties cannot be
correct? challenged in any court of law.
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there (b) The Supreme Court of India is not
was a determined thrust towards constrained in the exercise of its
substitution of basic and capital good powers by laws made by the
industries. Parliament.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in
the objective of correcting the earlier the country, the President of India can
trend of increased concentration of declare Financial Emergency without
wealth and economic power. the counsel from the Cabinet.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws
time, the financial sector was included on certain matters without the
as an integral part of the Plan. concurrence of Union Legislature.
given below. 83. With reference to the Legislative Assembly
(a) 1 and 2 only of a State in India, consider the following
(b) 2 only statements :
(c) 3 only 1. The Governor makes a customary
(d) 1, 2 and 3 address to Members of the House at
the commencement of the first session
of the year.
BKL– F – GHP 13
2. When a State Legislature does not 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other
have a rule on a particular matter, it Traditional Forest Dwellers
follows the Lok Sabha rule on that (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
matter. 2006 allows ownership of minor forest
Which of the statements given above is/are produce to forest dwellers.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The United Nations Convention 86. Which Article of the Constitution of India
against Corruption (UNCAC) has a safeguards one's right to marry the person
'Protocol against the Smuggling of of one's choice?
Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'. (a) Article 19
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally (b) Article 21
binding global anti-corruption (c) Article 25
instrument. (d) Article 29
3. A highlight of the United Nations
Convention against Transnational 87. Consider the following statements :
Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a
inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at biological process to create a seed can
returning assets to their rightful be patented in India.
owners from whom they had been 2. In India, there is no Intellectual
taken illicitly. Property Appellate Board.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be
and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by patented in India.
its member States to assist in the Which of the statements given above is/are
implementation of both UNCAC and correct?
UNTOC. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only 88. Consider the following statements :
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 The Environment Protection Act, 1986
empowers the Government of India to
85. Consider the following statements : 1. state the requirement of public
1. As per recent amendment to the participation in the process of
Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest environmental protection, and the
dwellers have the right to fell the procedure and manner in which it is
bamboos grown on forest areas. sought
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other 2. lay down the standards for emission
Traditional Forest Dwellers or discharge of environmental
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, pollutants from various sources
2006, bamboo is a minor forest Which of the statements given above is/are
produce. correct?
BKL– F – GHP 14
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
89. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, (d) 1, 2 and 3
2016 in India, which one of the following
statements is correct? 92. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor
(a) Waste generator has to segregate Agreement signed by Indian banks and
waste into five categories. financial institutions recently?
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified (a) To lessen the Government of India's
urban local bodies, notified towns and perennial burden of fiscal deficit and
all industrial townships only. current account deficit
(c) The Rules provide for exact and (b) To support the infrastructure
elaborate criteria for the identification projects of Central and State
of sites for landfills and waste Governments
processing facilities. (c) To act as independent regulator in
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste case of applications for loans of Rs 50
generator that the waste generated in crore or more
one district cannot be moved to (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed
another district. assets of Rs 50 crore or more which are
under consortium
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing 93. The Chairmen of public sector banks are
Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 selected by the
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are (a) Banks Board Bureau
implemented, it becomes easier for the (b) Reserve Bank of India
firms/companies to lay off workers (c) Union Ministry of Finance
2. no notice of termination of (d) Management of concerned bank
employment shall be necessary in the
case of temporary workman 94. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is /are 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas
correct? Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first
(a) 1 only regulatory body set up by the
(b) 2 only Government of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of
91. With reference to Asian Infrastructure PNGRB go before the Appellate
investment Bank (AIIB), consider the Tribunals for Electricity.
following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. AIIB has more than 80 member correct?
nations. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. India is the largest shareholder in (b) 2 and 3 only
AIIB. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. AIIB does not have any members from (d) 1, 2 and 3
outside Asia.
BKL– F – GHP 15
95. With reference to communication (b) The Recycled (Manufacturing and
technologies, what is/are the Usage) Pules, 1999
difference/differences between LTE (Long- (c) The (e-Waste) (Management and
Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Handling) Rules, 2011
Long-Term Evolution)? (d) The Food Safety and Standard
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and Regulations, 2011
VoLTE is commonly marketed as
advanced 3G. 99. The economic cost of food grains to the
2. LTE is data-only technology and Food Corporation of India is Minimum
VoLTE is voice-only technology Support Price and bonus if any) paid to the
Select the correct answer using the code farmers plus
given below. (a) transportation cost only
(a) 1 only (b) interest cost only
(b) 2 only (c) procurement incidentals and
(c) Both 1 and 2 distribution cost
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) procurement incidentals and charges
for godowns
96. Which of the following statements is/arc
correct regarding the Maternity Benefit 100. In the context of any country, which one of
(Amendment) Act, 2017? the following would be considered as part
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three of its social capital?
months pre-delivery and three months (a) The proportion of literates in the
post-delivery paid leave. population
2. Enterprises with creches must (b) The stock of its buildings, other
allow the mother minimum six creche infrastructure and machines
visits daily. (c) The size of population in the working
3. Women with two children get age group
reduced entitlements. (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony
Select the correct answer using the code in the society
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Which one of the following is not a sub-

index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing
Business Index'?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
98. In India, 'extended producer responsibility'

was introduced as an important feature in
which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management
and Handling) Rules, 1998
BKL– F – GHP 16
322
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97. Which one of the following is not a sub-

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