1. A receptacle outlet is required above show window every _____ linear meter.

a. 5 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3
2. What is the ampacity of the feeder conductor supplying several motors and other loads?
a. The sum of the full-load motor currents plus the sum of the currents of the other loads
b. The sum of the full-load motor currents plus 125% of the currents of other loads
c. 125% of the sum of the full-load motor current plus the sum of the current of the other
loads
d. The sum of the full-load motor currents plus the sum of the currents of the other loads plus
25% of the full-load current of the largest
3. The overcurrent protective device is caused to operate by _____.
a. 0.0970 p.u. b. 0.0851 p.u. c. 0.0862 p.u. d. 0.0953 p.u.
4. The minimum size of copper conductor for a 230-V general illumination branch-circuit in a
dwelling is _____ mm^2.
a. 1.25 b. 2.0 c. 0.75 d. 3.5
5. What is the maximum number of bends permitted in rigid conduits between outlets?
a. A quarter bends b. 3 quarter bends c. 2 quarter bends d. 4 Quarter bends
6. What is the maximum voltage drop for feeder?
a. 1% b. 5% c. 3% d. 4%
7. Minimum height of the service drop conductor above the raceway.
a. 3.1 m b. 4.6 m c. 3.7 m d. 5.5 m
8. For hermetic motor compressor, how many % of the full-load current is the allowable rating for
branch disconnecting means?
a. 115 b. 125 c. 100 d. 150
9. Which is/are permitted to branch circuit disconnecting means of a second building?
I. Inside the building near service entrance
II. Outside the building but accessible
a. I only b. I and II c. II only d. neither I or II
10. Where else is the third wire in the service conductor terminated aside from the S/N of the panel
board?
a. Air terminal b. Line 2 c. Line 1 d. Ground rod
11. Dwelling receptacles located _____ meter above floors are not counted in the required number
of receptacles along the wall.
a. 1.5 b. 1.6 c. 1.7 d. 1.8
12. What category does 115-230 kilovolts belong?
a. Extra high voltage b. High voltage c. Medium voltage d. Low voltage
13. What is the equivalent of the collector terminal of the transistor in a FET?
a. Grid b. Gate c. Drain d. Source
14. What is the derating factor in each of 7-9 conductors in a raceway?
a. 75% b. 85% c. 70% d. 80%
15. A nibble is composed of how many bits?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
16. What is the value of negative decimal number -9 to be written as signed bit, 2’s complement
form?
a. 11011 b. 10111 c. 10011 d. 11101\
17. It involves the grouping the bits in 3’s?
a. Octal coding b. Hexadecimal coding c. Binary coding d. Decimal coding
18. What is the true complement of 54321 base 10?
a. 45679 b. 36679 c. 63679 d. 54679
19. The binary fraction 0.0101 in decimal form is equal to _____.
a. 0.4375 b. 0.1105 c. 0.6225 d. 0.3125
20. The octal fraction of 0.8325 base 10 is equal to _____.
a. 0.71256 b. 0.56217 c. 0.65217 d. 0.17256
21. The CMOS ICs can be operated at power supply of voltage equal to _____.
a. 3-9 V b. 2-5 V c. 2-14 V d. 3-18V
22. The NEC 2005 is based on ______.
a. PEC 2012 b. PEC 2009 c. PEC 2015 d. PEC 2006
23. Expired licenses shall be renewed only after complying the required CPE units. How many units
does CPE requires to renew the expired licenses?
a. 20 b. 35 c. 40 d. 45
24. What is PSALM in EPIRA stands?
a. Private Sector Assets and Liabilities Management
b. Private Section Assets and Liabilities Management
c. Power Sector Assets and Liabilities Management
d. Power Section Assets and Liabilities Management
25. In RA 7920, under the penalty clause, the fine shall be:
a. Not less than P10,000
b. Not less than P60,000
c. Not less than P50,000
d. Not less than P20,000
26. Which of the following is not part of the requirements to take RME?
a. Taken 1-year electrician course and 3-years apprenticeship
b. Taken 2-year electrician course and 3-years apprenticeship
c. Taken 3-year electrician course and 3-years apprenticeship
d. Graduate of BSEE
27. What is PEMC in EPIRA stands for?
a. Philippine Electricity Market Commission
b. Philippine Electricity Market Company
c. Philippine Electricity Market Committee
d. Philippine Electricity Market Corporation
28. Sec. 17(b) of Art.III; Examination and Registration, Qualifications of Applicants for REE, states
that an applicant is at least be _____ years of age.
a. 23 b. 21 c. 25 d. 27
29. What is the equivalent binary code of the gray code 110111?
a. 101100 b. 111000 c. 100101 d. 101010
30. In the logic circuit, what will be the output of an XNOR circuit when inputs A and B is 1 and 0
respectively.
a. 0 b. 00 c. 1 d. 11
31. When a binary point of a binary number is moved one place to the left, what happen to its
value?
a. Divides by 2 b. Multiplies by 2 c. Increased by 10 d. Decreased by 10
32. Which of the following is true?
a. A*0 = A b. A + AB = A c. A*1 = 1 d. (A+B)(A+C) = AC + B
33. Code name for polyethylene insulation or PVC 75 degree C.
a. TW b. TF c. THW d. THHN
34. What type of database stores all information in the equivalent of a matrix?
a. Sequential b. Hierarchical c. Ordered d. Relational
35. Which of the following are the most widely used universal gates?
a. NAND and NOR b. NOR and AND c. AND and OR d. OR and NAND
36. The basic universal gate in integrated circuit electronics is _____.
a. NAND b. OR c. NOR d. AND
37. Any equipment which produces, modifies, regulates, or controls the supply of electric energy is
_____.
a. Generator set b. Transformer c. Electric supply d. Substation
38. What is the Article II of Code of Ethics for Electrical Engineer?
a. Relations with fellow engineers
b. Relations with client and employer
c. Penal provisions
d. Professional life
39. Sec. 16(a) of Art. III: Qualifications of Applications for Registration as PEE states that _____.
a. He is a holder of the degree of BSEE from a university, college, school etc.
b. He is a citizen of the Philippines
c. He is of good reputation with high moral values
d. He has not been finally convicted by the court of an offense involving moral turpitude
40. Article V of Code of Ethics states that: This code shall take effect upon approval by the
Commission and after _____ days following its publication in the Official Gazette.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 15
41. In biasing a semiconductor, the following statements are NOT correct except one. Which one is
this?
a. If biasing is always necessary
b. Positive bias exists when the negative biasing voltage is connected to the n-type material
c. Forward bias exists when the negative biasing voltage is connected to the p-type of the
material in the junction
d. Biasing establishes the operating point
42. What minimum ampacity required for conductors used to supply power to a 220 V, single-phase
air conditioning unit with a nameplate rating of 5250 VA?
a. 83.92 A b. 39.82 A c. 29.83 A d. 98.23 A
43. How many outlets can be installed on a 20 A, 220 V branch circuit supplying loads in show
window?
a. 18 b. 17 c. 20 d. 19
44. The official seal of a Professional Electrical Engineer as provided in Section 4(q) of RA 7920 must
have an inner circle diameter of:
 a. 40 mm b. 48 mm c. 20 mm d. 28 mm
45. A person who violates any of the provisions of RA 7920 shall be guilty of misdemeanor and shall,
upon convicted, be sentenced to a fine of not less than _____ but not more than _____.
a. P15,000, P100,000
b. P25,000, P75,000
c. P10,000, P50,000
d. P20,000, P25,000
46. Issuance of the permits to individual foreign electrical engineer and electricians for specific
projects and for a specific duration of time is provided by which of the following sections?
a. Section 4(e) b. Section 4(d) c. Section 4(f) d. Section 4(c)
47. In REE examination, what is the weight of Electrical Engineering Subject?
a. 25% b. 30% c. 45% d. 40 %
48. The seal of a professional electrical engineer bears the following except:
a. Registrant’s name b. Certificate number c. PTR d. Legend of ‘’PEE’’
49. Determine the ampacity of the feeder circuit supplying the following motors when it is
connected at 220 V supply.
15 hp, 95% efficiency & 80 % p.f.
25 hp, 90% efficiency & 70.70 % p.f.
20 hp, 80% efficiency & 86.60 % p.f.
a. 200 A b. 178 A c. 146 A d. 184 A
50. In what year is the Professional Regulation Commission created?
a. 1972 b. 1973 c. 1974 d. 1975