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DISCUSSION
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to be able to state that the thing is red. I might indeed have a peculiar
sensation in my eyes whenever I saw something red, but this would
be accidental. It would not be from having this sensation that I knew
the thing to be red (unless, of course, I was color-blind, and had
learned that when I had this sensation other people would call the
thing I was looking at "red").
Is Miss Anscombe using the word "sensation" so as to include
something else besides bodily sensations? It would seem so. In Section
28 of her book she writes:
It is not ordinarily possible to find anything that shews one that one's leg
is bent. It may indeed be that it is because one has sensations that one
knows this; but that does not mean that one knows it by identifying the sensa-
tions one has. With the exterior senses it is usually possible to do this. I mean
that if a man says he saw a man standing in a certain place, or heard someone
moving about, or felt an insect crawling over him, it is possible at least to ask
whether he misjudged an appearance, a sound, or a feeling; that is, we can
say: Look, isn't this perhaps what you saw? and reproduce a visual effect of
which he may say "Yes, that is, or could be, what I saw, and I admit I can't
be sure of more than that"; and the same with the sound or the feeling.
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If a man says that his leg is bent when it is lying straight out, it would be
incorrect to say that he had misjudged an inner kinaesthetic appearance as an
appearance of his leg bent, when in fact what was appearing to him was his leg
stretched out.
This gives rise to the question, why is it incorrect to say that one
has misjudged an appearance when one's leg feels bent but is not, but
not incorrect to say this when something looks red but is not?
In Intention Miss Anscombe does not say anything which provides
an answer to this question. What she does say is: "This topic is cer-
tainly a difficult one, deserving a fuller discussion."
In a paper, "On Sensations of Position," in Analysis (Vol. XXII,
i962), Miss Anscombe makes a contribution to this "fuller discussion."
In Intention, having introduced the notion of knowledge without
observation with reference to a person's knowledge of the position
of his limbs, she had gone on to say that a person knows without
observation that he has given a reflex kick when a doctor has tapped
his knee. She mentioned the expression, "that sensation which one
has in reflex kicking, when one's knee is tapped." In the Analysis paper
she writes, regarding this expression:
I did not want to object to this use of the word "sensation," but argued that
such a "sensation" could not be adduced in defence of the thesis that we do
after all know our bodily movements and positions by observation, because
the sensation was not separable; elsewhere I implied that a sensation needed to
be "separately describable" if one observed a fact by means of the sensation.
Later she writes:
When I say: "the sensation (e.g. of giving a reflex kick) is not separable" I
mean that the internal description of the "sensation"-the description of the
sense-content-is the very same as the description of the fact known; when
this is so, I should deny that we can speak of observing that fact by means of
the alleged sensation.
Does what Miss Anscombe says here provide an adequate means of
distinguishing between an object looking red and a leg feeling bent?
Unfortunately it does not. If one is asked to describe how one's leg
feels one gives the same answer ("bent") as one does if asked to
describe the position of one's leg. But, equally, if one is asked to
describe the appearance of something which looks red, one gives the
same answer ("red") as one does if asked to describe the object itself.
The formula "separately describable sensations" simply will not do
the work Miss Anscombe wants it to do.
The only remaining hint as to what Miss Anscombe means is
contained in the final paragraphs of the Analysis article. She says
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things which suggest that she would say that "red," used to describe
something seen, was the description of "a sense-content properly
speaking," whereas "bent," used to describe how one's leg feels, was
not. But she does not say how one is to discover what words are
descriptions of "sense-contents properly speaking," and what words
are not.
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usually knows that something is red, and (c), the way a person usually
knows that an insect is crawling up the back of his neck. Now let us
return to the central issue: how does (a), the way a person usually
knows the position of his limbs, differ from (b) and (c) ?
It differsfrom (c) in that it is notan association-mediated perception.
(This was the point of all that Miss Anscombe said about there not
being "separately describable sensations.") And it differs from (b) in
that the position of one's limbs is not the proper object of kinesthesis.
Another way of putting this would be to say that while it is like
association-mediated perception in that what is perceived is not the
proper object of the mode of perception in operation, it is unlike it in
that there is nothing in the person's present experience to explain how
he can perceive what he perceives. This is not an easy combination
of characteristics to grasp. Is it adequately suggested by the title
"knowledge without observation"?
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G. N. A. VESEY
and further away from its seeming to get smaller and smaller) but
they are not exclusively so. Itwould seem thatwhen it is not association-
mediated perception MissAnscombe would have to say that it is not
observation. But it does not seem reasonable to say that a person has
not observedthat one object is further away than another just because
its looking further away than the other can only be explained by
reference to things of which he is not aware (for example, the features
of his sensory apparatus which enable him to see pictures in three
dimensions by using a stereoscope). To say that it is not observation
when a person tells the direction of the source of a sound simply by
by listening (and, perhaps, by turning his head slightly) seems to me to
be a gross misuse of the word "observation."
In short, what Miss Anscombe calls "knowledge without observation"
seems to me to have nothing whatsoever to do either with observation
or with the absence of observation.
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a smellas coming
from his rightand denied that this was a matter of telling
from what kind of a smell it was that it came from his right, or a matter
of telling from where the smell was stronger where it came from, or a
matter of smelling the smell and "just knowing" where it came from.
Another example. Suppose that I feel a new pair of shoes pinching
my feet. Instead of saying that I can feel that they are pinching me,
I may say that I have feeling, of being pinched, in myfeet.(Advocates of
the local sign theory of the location of bodily sensations will say that
this is an association-mediated perception, but I do not find their
arguments plausible. I have given my reasons in a paper, "The Loca-
tion of Bodily Sensations," in Mind [LXX, i96i].) A person
who was incapable of borrowed-meaning knowledge of where things
were pressing on his body would not be able to understand this. It
would be a case of appropriated-meaning knowledge.
Sometimes it may not be easy to think up an appropriated-meaning
description. This is so in the case of distance perception by sight.
.Suppose that an object is receding from us and that we are aware
that it is receding otherwise than by virtue of an association. In other
words, we have borrowed-meaning knowledge that it is receding.
What is the corresponding appropriated-meaning description? I do
not think there is any phrase in regular use. If pressed, I would say
that we are aware of the "increasing visual depth" of the object.
What is known, in appropriated-meaning knowledge, might be
described as a visual phenomenon but not the proper object of vision,
an auditory phenomenon but not the proper object of hearing, a
kinesthetic phenomenon but not the proper object of kinesthesis, and
so forth. It is no more necessarily something about which a person
cannot be mistaken than is the possession by an object of what is a
proper object of a given mode of perception. For example, people can,
and often do, disagree with one another about the direction from which
-asound is coming. We might use an appropriated-meaning description
in such a way that it would not be allowed that a person could be
mistaken; but that would be for other reasons than simply that it was
an appropriated-meaning description. For instance, we might say
that a person could not be mistaken about the location of a bodily
sensation. If we did this, I suppose it would be for some such reason
as the following. Two or more people can tell, by listening, that the
source of a sound is to their right. But only I can tell, by kinesthesis,
that my shoes are pinching me. Hence, whereas I am not the sole
authority on the direction from which sounds are coming, I am the
'sole authority when it comes to my own bodily sensations. This is a
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reason (though not, I would think, a very good one) for saying that I
cannot be mistaken about the location of my bodily sensations.
The treasure at the end of Miss Anscombe's treasure hunt is, as the
title of her book suggests, an insight into the nature of an intentional
action. Intentional actions are members of the class of things known
without observation. Having rejected her account of, and her title for,
this way of knowing things, what can I say on this topic?
The question for me is: when someone moves some part of his
body-say, one of his hands-intentionally, is his knowledge that it is
in a state of motion proper-object knowledge, or association-mediated
knowledge, or borrowed-meaning knowledge?
For it to be proper-object knowledge it would have to be the case
that what it is for a hand to be in motion is something the meaning
of which is given by the experience of moving it. This is clearly not
so. A hand's being in motion is as much something to be understood
in terms of what can be seen and touched as is a billiard ball's being
in motion, and a person need never have moved himself to understand
what it is for a billiard ball to be in motion.
Is it association-mediated knowledge? This is a question about which
there has been, and still is, a great deal of controversy. There are those
who say that a person's knowledge that his hand is in motion, when
he moves it, is based on a learned association, between an "act of
volition," on the one hand, and the motion of the bodily part, on the
other. They produce what are, on the face of it, plausible arguments for
their view. There are others, including myself ("Volition," Philosophy
[XXXVI, i96i]), who dispute that this is so, and question the
validity of the arguments. It is not a matter which can be dealt with
both adequately and, at the same time, briefly. I shall therefore not
attempt to deal with it at all here, but merely state my own conclusion.
This is that a person can know that his hand moved, when he moved
it, solely by virtue of the fact that he moved it. In Aristotelian terms
(Physics,Book 8, Chapter 5), he is the "original cause" of the move-
ment, and no "instrumental cause" intervenes between him and the
movement.
For it to be borrowed-meaning knowledge it would have to be the
case that while the meaning of what was said to be known would be
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Does what I have been saying have any bearing on any of the
traditional "problems of philosophy"? Does it enable us to see any
of the traditional issues in a new light?
I think it does. It provides a means of stating, in an articulate
fashion, what a number of philosophers seem to have felt, but never
been able to express very clearly, about the way in which the mind is
embodied.
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Consider, for instance, what Descartes says on this topic in his letters
to Princess Elizabeth von der Pfalz. In a letter dated 21 May i643, he
wrote:
There are two facts about the human soul on which there depends any knowl-
edge we may have as to its nature: first, that it is conscious; secondly, that,
being united to a body, it is able to act and suffer along with it. Of the second
fact I said almost nothing [in the Meditations];my aim was simply to make the
first properly understood; for my main object was to prove the distinction
of soul and body; and to this end only the first was serviceable, the second
might have been prejudicial.
I suggest that what Descartes meant when he said that the soul and
body are "united," and that this is something which is "understood
very clearly by means of the senses," could be expressed as follows.
It is not the case that, when I feel a touch as a touch on some part of
my body, this is association-mediated perception. And it is not the case
that, when I move some part of my body, my knowledge that that
part of my body is in motion is association-mediated knowledge. In
neither case do I first have to learn of the association of one thing,
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