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3. A 29-year-old woman presents with a 101oF fever, pericardial effusions and Libman-Sacks endocarditis,
arthralgias, rash across the malar region of the face (“butterfly rash”) that is accentuated by sun exposure;
creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL (normal 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL). Laboratory tests show high titers of antinuclear
autoantibodies (ANA), Smith antigen and antinucleosome antibodies in the serum. Which of the following
is most likely to be directly affected by the disruption of nucleosomes in this patient.
a. Packaging of genetic material in a condensed form
b. Transcribing DNA
c. Forming pores for bilateral nuclear-to-cytoplasmic transport
d. Forming the nuclear matrix
e. Holding together adjacent chromatids
4. A G1-phase and an M-phase cell are fused together with a Sendai virus. The result is that the
chromosomes in the G1-phase cell condense. Which of the following would be a possible cell biological
explanation?
a. Lamins will be phosphorylated in the G1 cell
b. The S-phase activator will be expressed in the M-phase cell
c. The M-phase cell will reduplicate its DNA
d. The G1/S-cdk complex will be activated in the M-phase cell
e. A re-replication block will occur in the G1-phase cell.
5. A middle aged anatomy professor went to the hottest Indianapolis 500 race in decades and sat with the
sun facing him; there was no breeze. He had a history of borderline high uric acid. When he became
dehydrated at the race, it triggered the uric acid crystal formation in his foot. The foot became sore, red, hot
and swollen; he could not walk on that foot or even fit into a regular pair of shoes. The race was great and
he drank about 2 L of water and soda at the race and another couple of liters when he arrived home.
Evidently that was not enough fluid because he was anuric for about 10–12 hours. His physician prescribes
colchicine as an anti-inflammatory. A metaphase-blocking dose of colchicine functions through which of
the following mechanisms?
a. Depolymerization of actin
b. Depolymerization of myosin
c. Enhancement of tubulin polymerization
d. Inhibition of tubulin polymerization
e. Binding to and stabilizing microtubules
142 Anatomy, Histology, and Cell Biology
6. The structure labeled A in the accompanying electron micrograph is which of the following?
(Reproduced, with permission, from Fawcett DW: A Textbook of Histology, 11th ed.
a. The site of translation of messenger RNA
Philadelphia:WB Saunders, 1986.)
b. Chromatin that is transcriptionally inactive during interphase
c. The site of ribosomal protein synthesis
d.a. TheAsite
shield between the
of translation nucleus andRNA
of messenger cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells
e.b. Chromatin
The site that
of aqueous channels for the passage
is transcriptionally inactive of interphase
during molecules between the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm
c. The site of ribosomal protein synthesis
d.An
7. obese between
A shield 18-year-old man presents
the nucleus with small
and cytoplasm firm testes,
in eukaryotic cells a small penis, little axillary and facial hair,
azoospermia, gynecomastia, and elevated levels of plasma gonadotropins.
e. The site of aqueous channels for the passage of molecules between the nucleo-He has had difficulty in social
adjustment throughout high
plasm and the cytoplasm school, but this has worsened and he has been referred for genetic and
endocrine screening. The karyotype from peripheral blood leukocytes would most likely show how many
Barr body/bodies?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three
e. Four
8. A 20-month-old boy is diagnosed with Hutchinson-Gilford progerial syndrome (HGPS), a severe form of
early-onset premature aging. He experienced normal fetal and early postnatal development, but now shows
severe failure to thrive, some lipoatrophy, bony abnormalities, a small, beaked nose and receding mandible,
hair loss, and speckled hypopigmentation with some areas of tight hard skin. His neurological and cognitive
tests are normal. Genetic analysis shows a single spontaneous mutation in codon 608 of the LMNA gene,
which encodes both lamin A and lamin C.
Which of the following would you most likely expect to be directly affected in cells obtained in a biopsy
from this patient?
a. Increased heterochromatin
b. Interference with microtubule treadmilling
c. Increased synthesis of rRNA in the nucleolus
d. Loss of ability to adhere to the basement membrane through integrins
e. Aberrations in nuclear architecture
Cell Biology: Nucleus 145
11. Which of the following nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)?
a. Thymine
b. Adenine
c. Uracil
d. Cytosine
e. Guanine
13. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is duplicated in the cell cycle during the
a. G2phase
b. S phase
c. M phase
d. G1phase
e. Go phase
14. A male child at puberty is determined to have Klinefelter syndrome. Although the parents have been
informed of the clinical significance, they have asked for an explanation of what happened. Identify the
item that needs to be discussed with the parents.
a. Trisomy of chromosome 21
b. Loss of an autosome during mitosis
c. Loss of the Y chromosome during meiosis
d. Nondisjunction of the X chromosome
The response options for the next five items are the same. Each item will state the number of options to select. Choose
exactly this number.
Questions 15-19
For each descripton, select the most appropriate structure
a. Nuclear pore complex
b. Nucleolus
c. Heterochromatin
d. Outer nuclear membrane
e. Euchromatin
15. An inclusion not bounded by a membrane that is observable only during interphase
20. The presence of ribosomes on its outer surface indicates the nuclear envelope is a specialized portion of
which organelle?
a. Golgi complex
b. Nucleolus
c. Plasma membrane
d. RER
e. SER
21. Which component retain the greatest structural integrity throughout the cell cycle?
a. Centriole
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Nuclear envelope
d. Nucleolus
e. Spindle apparatus
22. Which substance carries out its functions without passing through a nuclear pore
a. Histones
b. Lamin
c. mRNA
d. Ribosomal proteins
e. Ribosomal subunits
f. RNA polymerase
g. Tubulin
24. Which protein anchors the nuclear pore complex in the nuclear envelope?
a. gp210
b. Lamin A
c. Lamin B
d. Nucleoporins
e. Wheat-germ agglutinin
25. Which histone is typically associated with the nucleosome’s linker region?
a. H1
b. H2A
c. H2B
d. H3
e. H4
26. Which cell-cycle phase is the longest and most variable in continuously dividing cells?
a. G0
b. G1
c. G2
d. M
e. S
31. Ribosomes are absente from mature red blood cells. From this fact and from knowledge of ribosome
function and distribution, which conclusion can be deduced?
a. Mature red blood cells are incapable of protein synthesis
b. Red blood cells lack nucleoli throughout their life cycle
c. Mature red blood cells lack cytoplasmic enzymes
d. Mature red blood cells contain inactive RER
e. Mature red blood cells contain smooth ER
33. Which of the following can you say for sure about a patient if their tissue shows a Barr Body adjacent
to the nuclear envelope?
a. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
b. Female
c. Male hermaphrodite
d. Female hermaphrodite
e. Extra X chromosome
34. The nuclear pore allows _____ to get in and _____ to get out.
a. Nuclear proteins; Ribosomes
b. Ribosomes; Nuclear proteins
c. DNA; RNA
d. RNA; DNA
e. Lipids; Steroids
35. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleolar organizer region is true EXCEPT
a. It is located in the nucleolus
b. It is located in the fibrilar component of the nucleolus
c. It contains DNA
d. It contains the genes necessary for rRNA synthesis
e. Ultraviolet microbeam irradiation does not affect rRNA synhesis
36. Each of the following statements concerning the mitotic spindle is true EXCEPT
a. it contains many microtubules
b. its components attach to the chromosome at the centromere
c. it is responsible for chromosome movement during anaphase
d. it is assembled before chromosome condensation
e. the mitotic spindle forms from the centriole
37. The principal difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells have
a. larger ribosomes than prokaryotic cells.
b. cell walls, while prokaryotic cells do not.
c. DNA replication and transcription in the same compartment, while prokaryotic
cells do not.
d. a nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not.
38. By restricting the traffic of proteins and RNA across the nuclear envelope, eukaryotic cells can regulate
a. translation.
b. transcription.
c. endocytosis.
d. nuclear pH.
39. The major pathway for molecules to pass into and out of the nucleus is through
a. gap junctions between the nuclear envelope membranes.
b. porin channels in the nuclear envelope membranes.
c. nuclear pore complexes.
d. diffusion through the membrane bilayers of the nuclear envelope.
44. The associations of lamins with the inner nuclear envelope membrane is via
a. lamin binding to proteins in the nuclear envelope membrane.
b. GPI anchors on lamins.
c. lipid tails on lamins.
d. Both a and c
47. Nuclear localization signals were first identified by Alan Smith and his colleagues in the protein
a. nucleoplasmin.
b. histone H1.
c. lamin B.
d. SV40 T antigen.
48. The nuclear localization signal is typically a(n) _______, rich in the amino acids _______.
a. α-helix; Pro, Lys, and Arg
b. α-helix; Leu, Phe, and Gly
c. short chain; Lys and Arg
d. short chain; Phy and Gly
52. Newly replicated DNA is located in a few hundred spots in the nucleus because there are
a. a few hundred origins of replication per nucleus.
b. a few thousand origins of replication but only a few hundred are active at any one time.
c. a few thousand origins of replication active at any one time, but they are located in a few hundred discrete
clusters.
d. None of the above
56. The region of chromosomes that codes for most of the rRNAs is called the
a. nucleolus.
b. nucleolar organizing region.
c. ribosomal assembly region.
d. ribosomal organizer region.
59. One working hypothesis for explaining the phenotypic consequences of nuclear lamina diseases is
termed “gene expression.” The other is called
a. “ablative shearing.”
b. “degradative acceleration.”
c. “mechanical stress.”
d. “targeting insufficiency.”