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Questions

DIRECTIONS: Each item below contains a question or incomplete


statement followed by suggested responses. Select the one best response to
each question.
The  Nucleus  
61. A newborn boy is born with first arch congenital   malformations clas-
sified
1. as Treacher-Collins
A newborn syndrome,
boy is born with first archwhich is anmalformations
congenital autosomal dominant
classified as Treacher-Collins syndrome,
inherited
which disorder.
is an Thedominant
autosomal Treacher Collins-Franceschetti
inherited disorder. Thesyndrome
Treacher1Collins-Franceschetti
(TCOF) syndrome 1
gene encodes
(TCOF) the protein
gene encodes treacle.
the protein Treacle
treacle. is localized
Treacle to the
is localized structure
to the structure labeled with the arrows in the
labeled with the
accompanying arrows in the
transmission accompanying
electron transmission
micro- graph. Treacle electron micro-involved in which of the
is most likely
graph. Treacle is most likely involved in which of the following?
following?

a.a. Assembly of ribosomal


Assembly subunits
of ribosomal intointo
subunits mature ribosomes
mature ribosomes
b. Translation
b. of cytosolic
Translation proteins
of cytosolic proteins
c.140 Anatomy,of
c. Transcription
TranscriptionHistology,
nuclear and Cell Biology
proteins
of nuclear proteins
d. Transcription
d. of ribosomal
Transcription proteins
of ribosomal proteins
e.e. Organelle degradation
Organelle degradation
62. Which of the following is true for the process that the dividing cell
2.shown
Whichinofthe
theelectron micrograph
following is true forbelow is undergoing?
the process that the dividing cell shown in the electron micrograph
below is undergoing? 139

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a. It is achieved through the lengthening of kinetochore microtubules


b. It is accomplished by the contraction of a ring composed of cytoskeletal elements
c. It is achieved through the shortening of polar microtubules
d. It is regulated by M-cdk complex (MPF)
e. It is blocked by anti-tubulin antibodies
a. It is achieved through the lengthening of kinetochore microtubules
b. It is accomplished by the contraction of a ring composed of cytoskeletal elements
c. It is achieved through the shortening of polar microtubules
d. It is regulated by M-cdk complex (MPF)
e. It is blocked by anti-tubulin antibodies

3. A 29-year-old woman presents with a 101oF fever, pericardial effusions and Libman-Sacks endocarditis,
arthralgias, rash across the malar region of the face (“butterfly rash”) that is accentuated by sun exposure;
creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL (normal 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL). Laboratory tests show high titers of antinuclear
autoantibodies (ANA), Smith antigen and antinucleosome antibodies in the serum. Which of the following
is most likely to be directly affected by the disruption of nucleosomes in this patient.
a. Packaging of genetic material in a condensed form
b. Transcribing DNA
c. Forming pores for bilateral nuclear-to-cytoplasmic transport
d. Forming the nuclear matrix
e. Holding together adjacent chromatids

4. A G1-phase and an M-phase cell are fused together with a Sendai virus. The result is that the
chromosomes in the G1-phase cell condense. Which of the following would be a possible cell biological
explanation?
a. Lamins will be phosphorylated in the G1 cell
b. The S-phase activator will be expressed in the M-phase cell
c. The M-phase cell will reduplicate its DNA
d. The G1/S-cdk complex will be activated in the M-phase cell
e. A re-replication block will occur in the G1-phase cell.

5. A middle aged anatomy professor went to the hottest Indianapolis 500 race in decades and sat with the
sun facing him; there was no breeze. He had a history of borderline high uric acid. When he became
dehydrated at the race, it triggered the uric acid crystal formation in his foot. The foot became sore, red, hot
and swollen; he could not walk on that foot or even fit into a regular pair of shoes. The race was great and
he drank about 2 L of water and soda at the race and another couple of liters when he arrived home.
Evidently that was not enough fluid because he was anuric for about 10–12 hours. His physician prescribes
colchicine as an anti-inflammatory. A metaphase-blocking dose of colchicine functions through which of
the following mechanisms?
a. Depolymerization of actin
b. Depolymerization of myosin
c. Enhancement of tubulin polymerization
d. Inhibition of tubulin polymerization
e. Binding to and stabilizing microtubules
142 Anatomy, Histology, and Cell Biology

66. The structure labeled A in the accompanying electron micrograph is


which of the following?

6. The structure labeled A in the accompanying electron micrograph is which of the following?

(Reproduced, with permission, from Fawcett DW: A Textbook of Histology, 11th ed.
a. The site of translation of messenger RNA
Philadelphia:WB Saunders, 1986.)
b. Chromatin that is transcriptionally inactive during interphase
c. The site of ribosomal protein synthesis
d.a. TheAsite
shield between the
of translation nucleus andRNA
of messenger cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells
e.b. Chromatin
The site that
of aqueous channels for the passage
is transcriptionally inactive of interphase
during molecules between the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm
c. The site of ribosomal protein synthesis
d.An
7. obese between
A shield 18-year-old man presents
the nucleus with small
and cytoplasm firm testes,
in eukaryotic cells a small penis, little axillary and facial hair,
azoospermia, gynecomastia, and elevated levels of plasma gonadotropins.
e. The site of aqueous channels for the passage of molecules between the nucleo-He has had difficulty in social
adjustment throughout high
plasm and the cytoplasm school, but this has worsened and he has been referred for genetic and
endocrine screening. The karyotype from peripheral blood leukocytes would most likely show how many
Barr body/bodies?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three
e. Four

8. A 20-month-old boy is diagnosed with Hutchinson-Gilford progerial syndrome (HGPS), a severe form of
early-onset premature aging. He experienced normal fetal and early postnatal development, but now shows
severe failure to thrive, some lipoatrophy, bony abnormalities, a small, beaked nose and receding mandible,
hair loss, and speckled hypopigmentation with some areas of tight hard skin. His neurological and cognitive
tests are normal. Genetic analysis shows a single spontaneous mutation in codon 608 of the LMNA gene,
which encodes both lamin A and lamin C.
Which of the following would you most likely expect to be directly affected in cells obtained in a biopsy
from this patient?
a. Increased heterochromatin
b. Interference with microtubule treadmilling
c. Increased synthesis of rRNA in the nucleolus
d. Loss of ability to adhere to the basement membrane through integrins
e. Aberrations in nuclear architecture
Cell Biology: Nucleus 145

72. A 25-year-old man presents with Triple A (Allgrove) syndrome includ-


ing the clinical triad of adrenal failure, achalasia, and alacrima. The patient
shows progressive neurological impairments involving cranial nerves IX, X,
XI,A and
9. 25-year-old man
XII, optic presents
atrophy, withand
upper Triple A (Allgrove)
lower limb musclesyndrome including
weakness, and the clinical triad of adrenal
failure,
Horner’s syndrome. Causative mutations for the disease have been identi- impairments involving cranial
achalasia, and alacrima. The patient shows progressive neurological
nerves IX, X, XI, and XII, optic atrophy, upper and lower limb muscle weakness, and Horner’s syndrome.
fied in a gene that encodes the protein ALADIN, a component of the struc-
Causative mutations for the disease have been identified in a gene that encodes the protein ALADIN, a
ture labeled with the arrows in the transmission electron micrograph.
component of the structure labeled with the arrows in the transmission electron micrograph. Which of the
Which of the following would be directly affected by the mutation?
following would be directly affected by the mutation?

a. Import of macromolecules to the nucleus


a. Import
b. of macromolecules
Reconstitution to the envelope
of the nuclear nucleus in telophase
b.
c. Reconstitution
Breakdown of the nuclear envelopein
of the nuclear envelope in telophase
prometaphase
c. Breakdown
d. of the of
Condensation nuclear envelope in prometaphase
chromatin
d. Condensation
e. of chromatin
RNA synthesis
e. RNA synthesis
10. The nuclear pore complex
a. permits free communication between the nucleus and the cytoplasm
b. is bridged by a unit membrane
c. is located only at specific nuclear pore sites
d. permits passage of proteins via receptor-mediated transport

11. Which of the following nucleotides is present only in ribonucleic acid (RNA)?
a. Thymine
b. Adenine
c. Uracil
d. Cytosine
e. Guanine

12. Anticodons are cloated in


a. messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA)
b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
c. transfer RNA (tRNA)
d. small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP)
e. heterogenous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP)

13. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is duplicated in the cell cycle during the
a. G2phase
b. S phase
c. M phase
d. G1phase
e. Go phase

14. A male child at puberty is determined to have Klinefelter syndrome. Although the parents have been
informed of the clinical significance, they have asked for an explanation of what happened. Identify the
item that needs to be discussed with the parents.
a. Trisomy of chromosome 21
b. Loss of an autosome during mitosis
c. Loss of the Y chromosome during meiosis
d. Nondisjunction of the X chromosome

The response options for the next five items are the same. Each item will state the number of options to select. Choose
exactly this number.

Questions 15-19
For each descripton, select the most appropriate structure
a. Nuclear pore complex
b. Nucleolus
c. Heterochromatin
d. Outer nuclear membrane
e. Euchromatin

15. An inclusion not bounded by a membrane that is observable only during interphase

16. Continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum

17. Controls movement of proteins in and out of the nucleus

18. Site of transcriptional activity

19. Clumps of nucleoprotein concentrated near the periphery of the nucleus

20. The presence of ribosomes on its outer surface indicates the nuclear envelope is a specialized portion of
which organelle?
a. Golgi complex
b. Nucleolus
c. Plasma membrane
d. RER
e. SER

21. Which component retain the greatest structural integrity throughout the cell cycle?
a. Centriole
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Nuclear envelope
d. Nucleolus
e. Spindle apparatus

22. Which substance carries out its functions without passing through a nuclear pore
a. Histones
b. Lamin
c. mRNA
d. Ribosomal proteins
e. Ribosomal subunits
f. RNA polymerase
g. Tubulin

23. Which structure is the smallest chromatin subunit in eukaryotic cells?


a. Chromosome
b. Euchromatin
c. Gene
d. Heterochromatin
e. Histone
f. Nucleosome
g. Solenoid

24. Which protein anchors the nuclear pore complex in the nuclear envelope?
a. gp210
b. Lamin A
c. Lamin B
d. Nucleoporins
e. Wheat-germ agglutinin

25. Which histone is typically associated with the nucleosome’s linker region?
a. H1
b. H2A
c. H2B
d. H3
e. H4

26. Which cell-cycle phase is the longest and most variable in continuously dividing cells?
a. G0
b. G1
c. G2
d. M
e. S

27. How many somatic chromosomes are in a normal human karyotype?


a. 22
b. 23
c. 24
d. 44
e. 46

28. Which feature typifies nucleolar organizer DNA?


a. Identical to nucleolus-associated chromatin
b. Encodes ribosomal RNA
c. Located in the pars granulosa
d. Encodes nuclear lamins
e. Lost during mitosis

29. Which feature typifies the kinetochore?


a. Composed largely of RNA
b. Replicates during M phase
c. Site at which chromosomes attach to microfilaments
d. The part of each chromosome farthest from the centriole during anaphase

30. Where is ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesized?


a. Free polyribosomes
b. Nuclear envelope
c. Nucleolus
d. Phagosomes
e. Secondary lysosomes
f. RER
g. SER

31. Ribosomes are absente from mature red blood cells. From this fact and from knowledge of ribosome
function and distribution, which conclusion can be deduced?
a. Mature red blood cells are incapable of protein synthesis
b. Red blood cells lack nucleoli throughout their life cycle
c. Mature red blood cells lack cytoplasmic enzymes
d. Mature red blood cells contain inactive RER
e. Mature red blood cells contain smooth ER

32. Which of the following is NOT correct?


a. Heterochromatin is in the nucleus and stains darkly because the DNA is tightly coiled
b. Euchromatin is in the nucleus and stains lightly because DNA is actively transcribing
c. Pars granulose is in the nucleolus and stains lightly because it contains actively developing ribosomes
d. Pars fibrosa is in the nucleolus and stains darkly because it contains inactive DNA
e. Pars fibrosa is in the nucleolus and stains lightly because it contains actively translating RNA

33. Which of the following can you say for sure about a patient if their tissue shows a Barr Body adjacent
to the nuclear envelope?
a. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
b. Female
c. Male hermaphrodite
d. Female hermaphrodite
e. Extra X chromosome

34. The nuclear pore allows _____ to get in and _____ to get out.
a. Nuclear proteins; Ribosomes
b. Ribosomes; Nuclear proteins
c. DNA; RNA
d. RNA; DNA
e. Lipids; Steroids

35. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleolar organizer region is true EXCEPT
a. It is located in the nucleolus
b. It is located in the fibrilar component of the nucleolus
c. It contains DNA
d. It contains the genes necessary for rRNA synthesis
e. Ultraviolet microbeam irradiation does not affect rRNA synhesis

36. Each of the following statements concerning the mitotic spindle is true EXCEPT
a. it contains many microtubules
b. its components attach to the chromosome at the centromere
c. it is responsible for chromosome movement during anaphase
d. it is assembled before chromosome condensation
e. the mitotic spindle forms from the centriole

37. The principal difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells have
a. larger ribosomes than prokaryotic cells.
b. cell walls, while prokaryotic cells do not.
c. DNA replication and transcription in the same compartment, while prokaryotic
cells do not.
d. a nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not.

38. By restricting the traffic of proteins and RNA across the nuclear envelope, eukaryotic cells can regulate
a. translation.
b. transcription.
c. endocytosis.
d. nuclear pH.

39. The major pathway for molecules to pass into and out of the nucleus is through
a. gap junctions between the nuclear envelope membranes.
b. porin channels in the nuclear envelope membranes.
c. nuclear pore complexes.
d. diffusion through the membrane bilayers of the nuclear envelope.

40. The nuclear envelope is continuous with the


a. mitochondrial outer membrane.
b. rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c. Golgi apparatus.
d. plasma membrane.

41. The nuclear lamina is built of proteins called


a. lamins.
b. laminins.
c. nucleins.
d. nucleoplasmins.

42. The filaments of the nuclear lamina are composed of a type of


a. microfilament.
b. microtubule.
c. intermediate filament.
d. thick filament.

43. The nuclear lamina binds to


a. both the inner nuclear envelope membrane and the chromatin.
b. the inner nuclear envelope only.
c. the chromatin only.
d. neither the inner nuclear envelope nor the chromatin.

44. The associations of lamins with the inner nuclear envelope membrane is via
a. lamin binding to proteins in the nuclear envelope membrane.
b. GPI anchors on lamins.
c. lipid tails on lamins.
d. Both a and c

45. Which of the following is a nuclear lamina disease?


a. Emery–Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
b. Charcot–Marie–Tooth disorder type 2B1
c. Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome
d. All of the above

46. Nuclear pores are organized with _______ symmetry.


a. sixfold
b. eightfold
c. ninefold
d. tenfold

47. Nuclear localization signals were first identified by Alan Smith and his colleagues in the protein
a. nucleoplasmin.
b. histone H1.
c. lamin B.
d. SV40 T antigen.

48. The nuclear localization signal is typically a(n) _______, rich in the amino acids _______.
a. α-helix; Pro, Lys, and Arg
b. α-helix; Leu, Phe, and Gly
c. short chain; Lys and Arg
d. short chain; Phy and Gly

49. snRNAs are synthesized in the


a. nucleus and function in the cytoplasm.
b. cytoplasm and function in the nucleus.
c. nucleus and function in the nucleus without passing into the cytoplasm.
d. nucleus, move to the cytoplasm to pick up proteins to become functional, and then return to the nucleus.

50. Highly condensed, transcriptionally inactive chromatin is called


a. euchromatin.
b. heterochromatin.
c. a chromatin domain.
d. histone-containing chromatin.
51. Facultative heterochromatin is heterochromatin that contains
a. sequences inactive in one cell type but active in others.
b. DNA sequences that are not transcribed in any cell type.
c. a mixture of heterochromatin and euchromatin.
d. heterochromatin that functions in ways other than for transcription.

52. Newly replicated DNA is located in a few hundred spots in the nucleus because there are
a. a few hundred origins of replication per nucleus.
b. a few thousand origins of replication but only a few hundred are active at any one time.
c. a few thousand origins of replication active at any one time, but they are located in a few hundred discrete
clusters.
d. None of the above

53. Cajal bodies are sites of


a. RNA transcription.
b. RNA processing.
c. ribosome assembly.
d. DNA replication.

54. The nucleolus is the site where _______ is/are assembled.


a. nuclear pores
b. ribosomal subunits
c. chromatin
d. the nuclear matrix

55. The eukaryotic 45S pre-rRNA transcript codes for the


a. 28S rRNA.
b. 28S and 18S rRNAs.
c. 28S, 18S, and 5.8S rRNAs.
d. 28S, 18S, 5.8S, and 5S rRNAs.

56. The region of chromosomes that codes for most of the rRNAs is called the
a. nucleolus.
b. nucleolar organizing region.
c. ribosomal assembly region.
d. ribosomal organizer region.

57. Ribosomes leave the nucleus as


a. intact 80S ribosomes.
b. intact 70S ribosomes.
c. 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits.
d. 18S and 28S rRNAs.

58. Most snoRNAs function in


a. cleaving the 45S rRNA.
b. splicing cleaved rRNAs.
c. splicing cleaved mRNAs.
d. guiding regions of rRNAs to modifying enzymes.

59. One working hypothesis for explaining the phenotypic consequences of nuclear lamina diseases is
termed “gene expression.” The other is called
a. “ablative shearing.”
b. “degradative acceleration.”
c. “mechanical stress.”
d. “targeting insufficiency.”

60. “Classical” nuclear localization signals are composed primarily of


a. hydrophobic amino acids.
b. acidic amino acids.
c. basic amino acids.
d. sulfur-containing amino acids.
ANSWERS
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. E
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. D
17. A
18. E
19. C
20. D
21. A
22. G
23. F
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. A
32. E
33. E
34. A
35. E
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. D
48. A
49. D
50. B
51. A
52. C
53. B
54. B
55. C
56. B
57. C
58. D
59. C
60. C

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