ANATOMY Qu. Q2 a. Q6. Q. Only sensory branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve is: a) Auriculotemporal nerve b) Lingual c) Long buccal d) Buccal nerve Nerve supply to musculature of tongue is: a) Hypoglossal b) Glossopharyngeal c) Vagus 4) Facial Allof the following muscles are composite muscles except: a) Pectineus b) Rectus femoris, ©) Adductor magnus 4) Biceps femoris Allof the following are digastrics muscles except: a) Muscle fibers in ligament of Treitz, b) Omohyoid ©) Occipitofrontatis 4) Stemnocleidomastoid ‘Tributaries of cavernous sinus include all of the following except: ) Superior petrosal sinus b) Inferior petrosal sinus ©) Superficial middle cerebral vein 4) Deep middle cerebral vein What are the types of joints between the ossicles of ear a) Fibrous jomts b) Primary cartilaginous ©) Secondary 4) Synovial joints Which of the following nerve innervates the capsule of the temporomandibular jont a) Facial b) Buccal ¢) Maxillary 4) Auriculotemporal Qs. @. Q10 Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery: a) Cavernous branch b) Inferior hypophyseal ©) Meningeal artery 4) Ophthalmic artery Premature synostosis of coronal suture along, with basal sutures is seen in: a) Oxycephaly b) Brachycephaly ¢) Trigonocephaly d) Scandamocephaly When a person protrudes his tongue it deviates tc the right, which of the following nerve is damaged: a) Glossopharyngeal b) Right hypoglossal c) Left hypoglossal d) Mandibular PHYSIOLOGY Qu Qi2. Qi3 au. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult cells do not divide a) There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell from entering into S phase in adults b) Phosphatase is absent in fetal cells ©) Proteinase is absent in fetus d) Absence of CD kinase CSF pressure is mainly regulated by: a) Rate of CSF formation b) Rate of CSF absorption c) Cerebral blood flow ) Venous pressure Regarding golgi tendon organ true is a) Senses dynamic length of muscle b) Involved in reciprocal innervation c) q+ motor neuron stimulation d) Senses muscle tension Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is called: a) Adaptation b) Accommodation ©) Refractoriness @ ElectrotonusQI5. Lining cells of bronchi include all of the following except: a) Kulchitsky cells b) Clara cells, ©) Brush cells d) Langerhans cells BIOCHEMISTRY, Qs. Quy. Qis Quy. Q20. Qi Q22. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except a) Steroid hormone b) Transcription repressors ©) Hormone responsive element d) Transcription activators Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except a) Increasing acetyl CoA carboxylase activity b) Increases the transport of glucose into cells ©) Decreases pyruvate dehydrogenase d) Decrease intracellular cAMP levels True about G-protein coupled receptors is a) G-proteins bing to hormones on the cell surface b) All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma bind each for y-protein to act. ©) G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit 4) G-protein is bound to GTP in resting state Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because a) It is required for the process of transamination b) It is aco-factor in oxidative reduction ©) Itis co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway d) Ibis co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase Allare true about glutathione except: a) Itisa tripeptide b)_Itconverts hemoglobin to methemoglobin ¢) It conjugates xenobioties 4) It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions True about denaturation of proteins is all except a) Unfolding occurs b) Disruption of secondary structure occurs ©) Sequence of amino acids remains the same 4) Biological activity is retained In molecular cloning blue white screening is used: a) To screen for recombinant vectors b) To detect gene mutations ©) To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors 4) To detect DNA in situ PHARMACOLOGY Q23. 2s. 26. Q7 29. Q30. Which drug is not acetylated: a) INH b) Dapsone ©) Hyédralazine d) Metoclopramide Which is a prodrug: a) Enalapril b) Clonidine ©) Salmeterol d) Acetazolamide Which is not a 2™ generation antihistaminic: a) Loratidine b) Acrivastatis ©) Cyclizine d) Terfinidine Loading dose depends upon: a) Volume of distribution b) Clearance c) Rate of administration d) Half life Drug not used in H. pylori infection: a) Metronidazole b) Omeprazole cc) Mosapride d) Amoxicillin Long acting beta-2 agonist a) Albuterol b) Salmetarol ©) Pirlbuterol 4) Orciprenaline Benzodiazepine antagonist is: a) Flumazenil b) Naloxone ©) Furazolidone 4) Naltrexone Which statement is true about carbamezapine: a) Used in trigeminal neuralgia b) Carbamezapine is an enzyme inhibitor ©) Can cause megaloblastic anemia 4) Itis the drug of choice for status epilepticusQa Qn Q34. Q3s. Q36. Q38 Buprenorphine is: a) Pure agonist b) Pure antagonist c) Partial agonist d) None Atypical antipsychotics are all except: a) Olanzepine b) Clozapine ©) Risperidone d) Thioridazine Finasteride is a: a) 5 alpha reductase inhibitor b) PDE inhibitor ©) Alpha 1a blocker d) Androgen receptor blocker Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with: a) Rifampicin b) Ethionamide ©) Cycloserine 4) Ethambutol 1* drug to be used in absence seizures: a) Phenytoin b) BZD ©) Valproate 4) Carbamezapine Most important factor for calculating dose for NSAIDS in children? a) Age of child b) Body weight of child c) Flavour of salt 4) Extent of pain Not true about Penicillin-G is a) Very active agains! sensitive gram positive cocci b) Destroyed by gastric acid c) More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluid ) Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis ICROBIOLOGY 2009 Which of the following is true: a) Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces b) Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal ¢) Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks d) None Q39. Qa True about mycobacterium other than tubercular bacilli a) Causes disseminated infection b) Occurs in persons with normal immunity cc) Cause decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity ) Person to person transmission is seen Acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis true is: a) Meningitis caused by acanthamoeba species is acute in nature b) Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoite in CSF ¢) Feco-oral transmission occurs d) More common in tropical climate Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis: a) Staphylococcus b) Shigella ©) Chlamydia d) Yersenia GENERAL PATHOLOGY. Q44. Qas. Which of the following represents the most common source of pulmonary embolism a) Esophageal varices b) Endarteritis c) Lymphangitis 4d) Thrombophlebitis Acute infection causes: a) Neutropenia b) Leucopenia c) Leucocytosis d) Monocytosis Earliest transient change following tissue injury will be: a) Neutropenia b) Neutrophilia ¢) Monocytosis 4) Lymphoeytosis A malignant tumor arising from voluntary muscle is a a) Leiomyoma b) Leiomyosarcoma c) Rhabdomyoma 4) Rhabdomyosarcoma47. as Q49, Q50. Qs1. Q52. Q53. Differential leucocyte count is used for diagnosis oft a) Anemia b) Leukocytosis ©) Leukopenia 4) Eosinophilia Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow: a) Reynolds number less than 2000 b) Reduced velocity of blood ¢) Reduced density of blood ) Increase in diameter of blood vessel Bone lytic lesions along with increase in B-cells, derived from hyperplastic bone marrow are seen a) Multiple myeloma b) Plasmacytoma ©) Hodgkins lymphoma 4) Thallasemia Absolute increase in RBC count and hemoglobin with increase in biood volume is seen in: a) Polycythemia b) Oslers disease ¢) Mediterranean anemia 4) Cooleys anemia Monocytes are increased in all except a) Hodgkin's lymphoma b) Hairy cell leukemia ©) Parasitic infection d) Tuberculosis An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactily, microcephaly with holoprocencephaly and ectodermal scalp defects is suffering from: a) Trisomy 21 b) Trisomy 18 ©) Trisomy 13 4d) Tumers syndrome Cat eye syndrome is: a) Partial trisomy 18 b) Partial trisomy 13 ©) Partial trisomy 2i 4) Partial trisomy 22 Disorder characterized by craniosynostosis, polysyndactyly of feet, scalp defects and syndactyly of soft tissues is: a) Carpenter syndrome b) Crouzon syndrome c) Apert syndrome 4) Crisdu-chat syndrome Qs4 What is seen in acromegaly: a) Large tongue b) Hypoglycemia ©) Crowding of teeth d) Micrognathia RAL MEDICINE Q56. Qs7. Q58 Q59. Q60. Autism is characterized by: a) Incapacitance of motor and mental co ordination Mental retardation Delayed motor response or lack of motor skills 4) Incapacitating emotional and mental disturbance » ai ‘A middle aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse kinky hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from a) Hyperthyroidism b) Hypothyroidise ©) Hyperparathyroidism 4) Hypopituitarism Most common malignancy seen in AIDS is: a) Kaposi Sarcoma b) Hodgkins tumor 6) SCC 4) Non hodgkins lymphoma ‘True about polio: a) Paralytie polio is most common b) Spastic paralysis is seen ¢) Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis, 4) Polio drops given only in <3 years Allof the following statements are true about Benedikt's syndrome except a) Contralateral tumor b) 3" nerve palsy c) Involvement of the penetrating branch of basilar artery 4) Lesion at level of pons In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except a) 5“ cranial nerve b) 6" cranial nerve c) 7" cranial nerve ) Contralateral hemiplegiaQ61 Q62. Q63. Most commion mode of treatment of a | year old child with asthma a) Inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist b) Oral short acting theophylline ©) Oral ketotifen 4) Leukotriene agonist Most common organism causing sub acute bacterial endocarditis is a) Staphylococcus b) Alpha hemolytic streptococcus ©) Beta hemolytic streptococcus d) Gomme hemolytic streptococcus Which of the following causes headache of vascular origin: a) Giant cell arteritis b) Anaesthesia dolorosa ©) Cluster headache d) Hemicrania GENERAL SURGERY, 64. 265, 266. Q68. Paradoxical movement of chest in a patient who has suffered trauma is called: a) Flail chest b) Cardiac tamponade c) Dyspnoea 4) Pneumothorax In bemophitia, drug administered before a surgical procedure is: a) VK b) Aspirin ©) Epsilon emino caproic acid d) Chloral hydrate A patient with trauma suffers 15% blood loss what should be done: a) No treatment b) Blood and colloidal infusion ¢) Colloidal transfusion only 4) Blood transfusion only A patient is admitted with head injury, GCS <8, severe midface fractures, frequent apnoea and low oxygenation, Airway management is best done by: 2) Oropharyngeal airway b) Orotracheal intubation ©) Nasopharyngeal airway 4) Cricothyrotomy Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by: a) Microaerophilic streptococci b) _Peptostreptococcus ¢) Streptococcus viridans d) Steptococcus pyogenes 69, Q70. ENT qi Excisional biopsy is done by: a) Removal of entire lesion only b) Removal of entire lesion with a margin of uninvolved normal border tissue ¢) Removal of only a part of lesion 4) Partial removal of lesion with a part of normal tissue In mass casualty, patients treated first are a) Patients with life threatening injuries b) Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource ©) Treating patients with multiple organ failure & that need equipment and mobility d) All patients are treated equally A patient is suffering from facial pain and a nasoparyngeal tumor is present on lateral wall of larynx, The patient is suffering from: a) Plummer Vinson syndrome b) Trotter syndrome ©) Reitter’s syndrome d) Eagles syndrome Q72. Which is the correct statement regarding facial Qn. Q74. nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures a) More common with transverse fractures b) More common with fongitudinal fractures ©) Facial palsy is of immediate onset d)_ Itis always associated with CSF leakage IC A patient comes with a wound caused by a sharp object with length greater than depth. Itis called: a) Stab b) Slash c) Laceration d) Incision When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variables itis related: a) Position of strike b) Area of strike ©) Angulation of strike d) Location of strike N,O acts by: a) Non specific CNS depression b) Blocking of peripheral pain pathways ©) Gasserion ganglion blockade 4) Reduction én stimulation of motor end platesQ76. Most common route for premedication in children is a) Oral b) Intramuscular ©) Subdermal d)_ Intravenous Q77.. Route not used for sedation in child is: a) Intravenous b) Subdermal ©) Submucosal d)_ Intramuscular Q78. LA does not act in presence of infection due to a) Increase in cationic form b) Increase in anion form c) Presence of free base molecules @) High pit DENTAL MATERIALS Q79. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by: a) Metal ions b) Hydroxy! group ©) Carboxyl group d) Micromechanical bonding Q80. Role of Indium in amalgam is: a) To reduce release of mercury during mastication b) To reduce release of mercury during amalgam polishing ©) To reduce formation of yphase 4) Toreduce formation of y> phase Q8I. Back pressure porosity can be reduced by a) Vacuum investing b) Proper or increased burnout temperature ©) Reduced firing temperature d) All Q82. Sequence in setting of GIC is? a) Decomposition, migration, gelation, hardening, maturation b) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction c) Decomposition, gelation, maturation, hardening 4) Decomposition, maturation, gelation, hardening DENTAL ANATOMY/ORAL HISTOLOGY Q83. TMJ starts to develop around: a) 2 weeks b) 10 weeks c) 20 weeks d) 22 weeks Q84. True about primary teeth: a) Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at birth b) Calcification of all primary teeth and permanent incisors is complete at birth ©) Calcification of all permanent teeth starts at birth d) Calcification of all permanent and primary teeth except third molars is complete at birth ORAL PATHOLOGY Q85. 86. 88. Qs9. Q90. Qa Degeneration of basement membrane and loss of rete pegs is seen in: a) Lichen planus b) Desquamative gingivitis c) Erythema multiforme d) Leukoplakia Dilference between epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity is: a) Stratum germinativam b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum lucidum: Saw tooth rete pegs are seen in: a) Lichen planus b) Psoriasis ¢) Pemphigus d) Erythema multiforme Most common site for occurrence of sialolith is: a) Parotid duct b) Sublingual duct ©) Submandibular duct d) Parotid gland Ina patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except a) Increased dental caries b) Fluorosis c) Increased salivation d) Trauma White radiating lines on buccal musosa are characteristic of: a) Lichen planus b) Leukoplakia c) Exythroplakia d) OSF In caries, which structure becomes more pronounced: a) Striae of retzius b) Hunter Shreger bands c) Enamel lines of Pickeril d) Striae of WickhamQ76. Most common route for premedication in children is a) Oral b) Intramuscular ©) Subdermal d)_ Intravenous Q77.. Route not used for sedation in child is: a) Intravenous b) Subdermal ©) Submucosal d)_ Intramuscular Q78. LA does not act in presence of infection due to a) Increase in cationic form b) Increase in anion form c) Presence of free base molecules @) High pit DENTAL MATERIALS Q79. Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by: a) Metal ions b) Hydroxy! group ©) Carboxyl group d) Micromechanical bonding Q80. Role of Indium in amalgam is: a) To reduce release of mercury during mastication b) To reduce release of mercury during amalgam polishing ©) To reduce formation of yphase 4) Toreduce formation of y> phase Q8I. Back pressure porosity can be reduced by a) Vacuum investing b) Proper or increased burnout temperature ©) Reduced firing temperature d) All Q82. Sequence in setting of GIC is? a) Decomposition, migration, gelation, hardening, maturation b) Gelation, migration, post setting contraction c) Decomposition, gelation, maturation, hardening 4) Decomposition, maturation, gelation, hardening DENTAL ANATOMY/ORAL HISTOLOGY Q83. TMJ starts to develop around: a) 2 weeks b) 10 weeks c) 20 weeks d) 22 weeks Q84. True about primary teeth: a) Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at birth b) Calcification of all primary teeth and permanent incisors is complete at birth ©) Calcification of all permanent teeth starts at birth d) Calcification of all permanent and primary teeth except third molars is complete at birth ORAL PATHOLOGY Q85. 86. 88. Qs9. Q90. Qa Degeneration of basement membrane and loss of rete pegs is seen in: a) Lichen planus b) Desquamative gingivitis c) Erythema multiforme d) Leukoplakia Dilference between epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity is: a) Stratum germinativam b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum lucidum: Saw tooth rete pegs are seen in: a) Lichen planus b) Psoriasis ¢) Pemphigus d) Erythema multiforme Most common site for occurrence of sialolith is: a) Parotid duct b) Sublingual duct ©) Submandibular duct d) Parotid gland Ina patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except a) Increased dental caries b) Fluorosis c) Increased salivation d) Trauma White radiating lines on buccal musosa are characteristic of: a) Lichen planus b) Leukoplakia c) Exythroplakia d) OSF In caries, which structure becomes more pronounced: a) Striae of retzius b) Hunter Shreger bands c) Enamel lines of Pickeril d) Striae of WickhamQ92 Q93. 04 296. or Q98 A patient with unilateral ptosis of eyelid shows elevation of lid upon movement of jaw to opposite side. He may be suffering from: a) Jaw winking syndrome b) Homers syndrome ©) Frey's syndrome d) Martin amat syndrome Phlegmon is: a) STD b) Type of cellulitis c) Type of osteomyelitis Gd) Veneral disease A 6 years old child present with generalized ulceration of mouth, malaise and fever. Treatment is: a) Oral penicillin and peroxide mouthwash b) Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics and mouthwash ©) Gently debride the ulecrs and symptomatic treatment only 4d) Systemic antibiotics only Ifhistologic slide and contents of canal space could be obtained, the most likely finding in the region of radiolucency in a case of internal resorption would be: a) Normal pulp b) Pulpal necrosis ©) Osteoclastic activity 4d) Marked decrease in cellularity A patient with severely discolored teeth; fractured enamel, undefined DEJ and severe attrition may be suffering from: a) Severe fluorosis, b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta ©) Amelogenesis imperfecta 4) Dentin dysplasia Periapical cyst can be differentiated from periapical granuloma by: a) Radiograph b) Vitality testing ©) Histopathology 4) Transillumination Root caries is caused by: a) Lactobacillus b) 8.Viridans ©) Actinomyces sp. dé) S. Sanguis Q99. Qu00. Qo 102 103. Quod Q10s. Q106. uo7. Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth are called: a) Neonatal b) Natal c) Primary 4) Prenatal Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as: a) Klestdats cyst b) Median palatal cyst ©) Epsteins pearls 4d) Nasopalatine duct cyst Which deficiency affects tooth development: a) Vita b) Carbohydrates c) VitE @) VitB Herpangina is caused by: a) Coxsackie virus b) Herpes Zoster c) CMV d) HSV Dentinogenesis imperfecta is inherited as: a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive ¢) Sex linked dominant d) Sex linked recessive Rushton bodies are seen in: a) Periapical granuloma b) Periapical cyst ¢) Dentigerous cyst d) Primordial cyst A child reports with greenish stains on teeth. The most probable cause is: a) Material alba b) Enamel defects c) Dentin defects &) Chromogenic bacteria Most common site for keratoacanthoma is a) Lip b) Buccal mucosa ©) Palate d) Tongue Which is most difficult to diagnose radiographically: a)” Necrosed puip b) Internal resorption ¢) External resorption d) Acute apical abscessQ108. Q109. Qil0. Tumer hypopiasia is caused by a) Hypoplasia due to local trauma/infection b)Hypoplasia due to systemic infection ¢) Hypoplasia due to congenital syphitis 4) Hypoplasia due to fluoride ingestion Most common tumor of parotid gland is: a) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma b) Adenoid cystic carcinoma ¢) Pleomorphic adenoma d) Warthins tumor Ehler Danlos syndrome is: ) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) Sex linked dominant d)_ Sex linked recessive Qui. Qui. Qu3 Quis. RVA’ Lubricating gel used while rubber dam placement are all except: a) Soapy water b) Vaseline c) Shaving Cream, d) Scrub gel Which of the following techniques is aot used in placement of rubber dam with wingless clamps: a) Place the clamp on tooth and insert the dam_ b) Place the dam on the tooth and then position the clamp over it c) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a forcep under the dam. d) Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the ora! cavity and then on tooth using a forcep over the dam. To increase the efficiency and life of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be: a) Run only after touching the tooth b) Run ar high speed before touching the tooth ©) Runat low speed before touching the tooth d) Run before entering the oral cavity While restoring a tooth with composite resin, the etched surface gets contaminated with saliva accidentally. What would be done next: a) Wipe the saliva with cotton and continue to restore b) Wash with water, dry area and continue restoration ©) Dry the area and re-etch before restoring d) Add excess composite material and cure it Quis. Qué. Quy. Quis. QUig, Q120. Qi2i Q122. A patient reports after { hour of restoration of a mandibular molar with a gold inlay with the complaint of shooting pain when the teeth come in contact. What must be the cause: a) Supraocelusion b) Allergic reaction ¢) Galvanic current between opposing amalgam restoration d) Extra cement For a cast porcelain inlay, the facial wall should a) Converge facially b) Parallel to external wall ¢) Atright angle to tooth surface d) Diverge facially Due to phenomenon of abfraction, material of choice for restoration in Class V cavities is: a) GIC b) _RM.GIC ©) Compomer d) Microfilled composite Class V cavity prepared for amalgam and composite differs in: 4) Mesial and distal walls b) Cavosurface margin ©) Position of retentive grooves 4) Depth of cavity Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of: a) 1 MPa b) SMPa c) 15 MPa d) 30MPa Most common site for caries occurrence a) Atcontact b) Above contact ¢} Below contact point and above gingival level d) Below contact and below gingival level If F2 protaper is cut 1 mm short a! apex, what will be the effective diameter: a) 0.29 mm b) 030mm c) 031mm d) 033mm Ina tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the G.P. cone is sealed a 2) 1mm below the level of recession b) I mm below roof of pulp chamber c) At the level of CE d) 1 mmabove the opening of canalQ123. Q 124. QI2s. Q126, Qi27. Q128, Q129, ORTHODONTI Q130, Action of primer is to: a) Removal of smear layer b) Increases surface free energy of dentin ¢) Forms thin fayer between collagen and resin d) Bonds with composite Tev dek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery is removed in: a) 24-48 hrs b) 48~72 hrs ©) In7 days d) In 10 days While using Calzinol as a temporary cement, what should be the thickness of material: a) Imm b) 2mm c) 3mm 4) 4mm When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam: a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains same d) May increase or decrease To restore stable acid eroded non carious lesion, which is the optimal material a) GIC b) RM-GIC c) Compomer d) Composite ‘The most important aspect in gold inlay cavity design: a) Axiopulpal bevel b) Gingival bevel ©) Occlusal bevel d) Axiofacial bevel Radiographically an extensive carious lesion is seen reaching upto pulp hom, The treatment of choice is: a) Remove caries and give sedative dressing b) RCT ©) Pulptomy d) Remove caries and cap pulpal exposure S & PEDODONTICS When a child patient is not able to hold the film during X-ray, who should hold the film: a) Dental assistant b) Parent ©) Dentist 4) Radiographer Q131 Q132 Qi34 Q135 PERIODON’ Q136. An 8 yr old boy comes to the clinic with the chief complain of 2 large and jagged front teeth, Treatmeutt would be: a) ‘Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity b) Build the teeth to same size with composite c) Extract the teeth d) Reassure the parents that the condition wifi correct by itself and send home ‘A6 year old patient reports with greenish blue swelling distal to deciduous 2’ molar. Treatment would be: 4) No treatment, only observation b) Surgical excision of flap c) Bone graft 4) Injecting proteolytic solution in the area Ina child, failure of inferior alveolar nerve block is caused by: a) Position of mandibutar foramen b) Angle (position) of needle c) Concentration of LA d) None of the above Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done a) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and before canine eruption b) Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and after canine eruption c) After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and after canine eruption d) Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and before canine eruption. Chronic pulpal involvement in a deciduous molar is first manifested as: a) Normal pulp b) Widening of PDL in apical 1/3 rd c) Radiolucency in furcation area d) Radiolucency at apex of root After enamel has been exposed to bacteria, irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in about. a) 24 hours b) Few minutes c) 1-2 hours d) 2-4 hoursQ137. Q139. 140. Qial 142. 4s. iad. Which of the following organisms is NOT implicated in the etiology of periodontal diseases? a) Bacteroides b) Wolinella ©) Neisseria 4d) Bikenella Which of the following is most useful in differentiating an acute periodontal abscess from periapical abscess? a) Type of exudate b) Nature of swelling ©) Intensity of pain d) Result of periodontal probing A periodontometer is a device used to measure a) Gingival bone count b) Tooth mobility ©) Debris and materia alba 4) Gingival bleeding In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes seen are a) Horizontal bone loss b)_ Vertical bone loss c) Angular bone loss d) No change ‘The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is mainly: a) Gram positive aerobic cocci b) Gram positive anaerobic cocci c) Gram negative aerobic rods a) Gram negative anaerobic rods If an osseous fill procedure is successful, the type of bone formed in the defect is: a) Cancellous b) Bundle ©) Spongy 4) None of the above The interdental col is more prone to periodontal disease because it: a) Is covered with non keratinized epithelium b) Is difficult to clean ©) Harbours bacterial plaque d) Allof the above Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingiva results in: a) A shallow sulcus b) Gingival pocket formation c) _Infrabony pocket formation d) Periodontal pocket formation Qi4s: Q146. uaz Qias. Q149. 150. Qisl Tobacco chewing is thought to be a contributing, predisposing factor in which condition a) Desquamative gingivitis b) ANUG ¢) Juvenile periodontitis d) Erythema multiforme The attached gingiva is: a) Always stippled b) Non keratinized c) Resistant to masticatory stress and forces d)_ Resistant to inflammatory changes A probable etiology of gingivosis is: a) High progesterone levels b) Deficiency of estrogen and testosterone ©) Pregnancy d) Aldosterone deficiency Supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time: a) Plaque mass decreases 'b) Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive ¢) Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative d) Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal The difference in the color between subgingival and supraginagival calculus is related to: a) pH of the saliva b) Death of the leukocytes ©) Haemolysis of erythrocytes d) Allofthe above Which is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in humans a) Motile bacteria are predominant b) Spirochetes are evident microscopically c) Gram negative bacteria are predominant 4) Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption Delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have: a) IgG antibody reactive with plaque bacterial antigens b) T-lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens ©) Soluble immune complexes within involved gingival tissue 4) Allofthe aboveQ152. Qus3. QIs4. QIs5. Q156 Qis7. Q153. The type of bone present in the interdental area is: a) Cortical b) Cancellous ©) Osteophytic d) Exophytic The type of bone present in the labial anterior teeth is: a) Cortical b) Concellous ©) Osteophytic d) Exophytic The gingival fiber group which inserts into 2 adjacent teeth is the: a) Horizontal group b) Circular group ©) Trans ~ septal group a) Oblique group The most common cause of dry mouth in the adult patient is a) Tranquilizers b) Antihistamines ©) Insulin 4) Birth control pills The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of; a) Wear facets b) Tooth mobitity c) Enamel cracks ¢) Cuspal fracture Dental floss should ideally be used in a) Type | embrasures b) Type Il embrasures c) Type Ill embrasure d) Allof the above The severe alveolar bone loss seen in patients with juvenile periodontitis is associated with: a) Impaired osteoblastic activity b) Increased phagocytosis c) Increased macrophage migration 4) Impaired neutrophil chemotaxis ORAL SURGERY Q159. Champy plate is: a) Monocortical compressive b) Monocortical non compressive c) Bicortical non compressive 4) Bicortical compressive Q160. Qi61 Q162. Q163 QI64 Q165. Q166 Most common third molar impaction is: a) Mesioangular b) Distoangular c) Horizontal a) Vertical When a case is transferred to ICU, mandibular fractures are evaluated in: a) Primary survey b) Secondary survey ©) Primary survey with IMF 4) Away from resuscitation room According to rule of tension and compressional forces acting along the condylar border, best way to stabilize a condylar fracture against these forces would require: a) One plate at anterior border and one at posterior b) A plate at anterior border ¢) A plate at posterior border d) A plate at lateral border Based on Champy’s principle of tension and compression, angle fracture is best treated with a) Fixation of segments with bone plates according to AO principles b) Compression plating c) IMF d) External pin fixation ‘Treatment of comminuted fracture of mandible would require use of: a) Reconstruction plates with centric screws b) Dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws ) Multiple miniplates Single miniplate which gives functional union Type of healing seen after compression plating is a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) All A case of subcondylar fracture with fragment overlap of > § mm and deviation of > 37" degrees would require: a) Closed reduction and IMF b) ORIF c) Soft diet d) No treatmentQ167. ‘A patient had a fall resulting in midsymphyseal guardsman fracture. While reducing the fracture lingual splaying of the segments was noted. This will cause increase in: a) Interpupillary distance b)_Intercanthal distance ¢) Imterangular distance 4) Go-Gn distance GENERAL AND ORAL RADIOLOGY Qi68. 169. Q170. Qi7l qu72. Q173, Qi74, Qi7s. Radiographically level of normal alveolar crest, is related to: a) CEJ b) DES ©) Gingival margin d) None Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in: a) Fibrous dysplasia b) Osteitis deformans c) Osteomyelitis 4d) Ewing’s sarcoma Staghorn pattern is seen in: a) Hemangioma b) Hemangiopericytoma ©) Neurofibroma d) None Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar could be: a) Periapical granuloma b) Condensing oste' ©) Periapical cyst d) Cementoma Which of the following is identified only by radiographs: a) Acute pulpitis b) Periapical granuloma ©) Mentai foramen d) Cementoma Radiographs alone can detect in a pocket: a) Number of remaining bony walls }) Shape of bony defect ¢) Extent of bone loss 4) None of the above Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes: a) Erosion of bone b) Clouding of antra ©) Fluid level d) Fluid level and clouding Ground glass appearance of bone in radiograph is seen in a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Hyperthyroidism ©) Hypothyroidism d)_ Fibrous dysplasia Q176. Qi. Qi7s. Q179. Qi80. Qisi. Qis2. Q183. On a radiograph, irregularities were found on the roots of lower incisors. It may be a) Subgingival calculus b) Root caries c) Epithelial attachment ) CEJ Which is the best technique for detecting proximal caries in children with miniumum radiation exposure: a) Bitewing with paralleling technique b) Bitewing with bisecting angle technique ©) Bitewing with RVG d) Panoramic radiography Bisecting angle technique is based on: a) Rule of isometry b) ALARA c) SLOB 4) Cizynski’s rule ‘Me Gregor and Trapnell lines are seen ona a) SMV b) PA view skull c) Water’s view d) True lateral view Radiograph alone can diagnose: a) Periodontal pocket b) Periodontal abcess ©) Anatomic root length d) Bifurcation involvement Ina radiograph, the buccal root of maxillary 1" premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root, The angulation of the cone was: a) From mesial to premolar b) From distal to premolar ©) 10 degrees from above in vertical angulation d) 10 degrees from below in vertical angulation On the radiograph, the mesial site of mandibular 1* molar reveled bone loss of 2-3mm, On probing, 6 mm pocket was revealed. The discrepancy could be due to: a) Angulation of radiograph b) Superimposition of bone remaining on facial and lingual surfaces c) Bone remaining on mesial aspect d) Taurodontism Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except a) Osteomyelitis b) Hemorrhagic bone cyst ©) OKC d) OsteosarcomaCD/PSM Qs. iss Q186, Qi87, QI188. Q189. Qi90, Quoi. Sampling unit represents: a) Sample group b) Subset of sample ¢) Every individual in sample 4) All Which of these represent a normal distribution: 2) Mean is 1, SD is 0 >) Mean=median=miode ¢) Curve skewed towards left d) Curve skewed towards right Best way to prevent caries by APF gel application in a patient with high caries index; a) 2 times per year >) 4 times per year ©) Every 4 weeks d) 6 times per year Absorbed fluoride is eliminated mainly by: a) Kidney b) Lung ©) Liver 4) Saliva Occupational cancers involves following organs except a) Lung b) Breast ©) Bladder 4) Liver Specificity of a screening test measures: a) True positives b) False positives ©) False negatives d) True negatives BMI to classify obesity should be a) 220 b) 330 ©) 240 d= 50 Measure of relative variability: a) Standard deviation b) Coefficient of variance c) Standard error of mean d) None of the above Q192 Q193. Q 194. Qi9s Q196, Qi97, 198. In national water supply and sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except: a) Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km b) Water is exposed to the risk of cholera c) Water source has excess iron and heavy metals 4) Water infested with guinea worm Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of a large population: a) PMA index b) Gingival index ©) Periodontal index 4) Sulcus bleeding index The following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas: a) Patient hygiene performance index b) Plaque index by Silness and Loe ¢) Modified navy plaque index d) Glass criteria for scoring debris In India the leading cause of maternal mortality is: a) Anemia b) Hemorrhage ©) Abortion d) Sepsis In which of the following diseases the overall survival rate is increased by screening procedure: a) Prostate Ca b) Lung Ca ©) Colon Ca 4) Ovarian Ca Ina study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in death due to asthama. This is an example of: a) Ecological study b) Cohort study c) Case reference study 4) Experimental study Which of the following is an example of disability limitation a) Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization b) Arranging for schooling of children from PRPP ¢} Resting affected limbs in neutral position 4) Providing calipers for walkingQ199. Life cycle of filaria is: Q200, Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is: a) Cyclodevelopmental a) Zine b) Cyclopropagative b) Aluminum ¢) Propagative ©) Copper 4) Transovarian d) Magnesium,