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General Awareness

Q. 1 The Summit of which of the following organizations is popularly know as "London Summit-2009"?

OPEC Summit
1.

Summit of G-20
2.

Ministerial Conference of WTO


3.

Summit of G-8
4.

None of these
5.
-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

As per the reports in various newspapers, India is amongst the top five countries in Asia-Pacific region where
Q. 2 maximum number of mergers and acquisitions have taken place. What are the main motives behind mergers
and acquisitions in business?
A. To increase revenue or market share
B. To get benefit in taxation
C. To have monopoly on the market of a particular product

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

Both A & B
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks


Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

As per the news published in financial newspapers/journals, a "Housing Start-up Index" will soon be launched
Q. 3 in India. How will this Housing Start-up Index help the industry in this country?
A. The index indicates the demand and supply situation as it reflects the actual start of the construction.
B. Housing Start-up Index is a leading indicator of economic activity in the country as it leaves a strong impact
on other sectors also like steel and cement.
C. This will help people in finding houses of their choice within their budgets.

Only A
1.

Both A & B
2.

Only B
3.

Only C
4.

All A, B & C
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Which of the following is/are the recommendations of the Committee on Financial Inclusion chaired by Dr C
Q. 4 Rangrajan?
A. Launching of a National Rural Financial Inclusion Plan (NRFIP) in mission mode.
B. Creation of two funds with NABARD-Financial Inclusion Promotion & Development Fund (FIPF) and Financial
Inclusion Technology Fund (FITF).
C. Shifting of the rural branches of all nationalized banks under the direct control of NABARD as only NABARD
has the expertise in disbursement of rural credit.

Only A
1.
Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

Both A & B
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 5 Who amongst the following has been nominated as the "Automotive Man of the Year 2009"?

Ratan Tata
1.

Anand Mahindra
2.

Rahul Bajaj
3.

Jagdish Khattar
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1
As per the news published in the major financial newspapers/journals/magazines, India's exports and imports
Q. 6 both have come down in the last few years. Which of the following is/are the probable reason(s) for the same?
A. As per the new policy of the WTO, India can import only those commodities, which are not growth/produced
in the country in adequate quantity/volume to meet its total demand. Commodities, which India needs to import,
are very few. Hence import has gone down.
B. Since all the countries are required to pay for their imports partly by exporting some goods in exchange to
other countries exports from India have gone down.
C. This slowdown in imports/export is only because there is a global economic crisis. This is why India's
exports and imports both have come down.

Only A
1.

Only C
2.

Only B
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific in one of it recently published reports has said some
Q. 7 positive things about India's economic refinished in various newspapers/journals.
A. India has played the role of a sheet anchor behind the economic stability of the South Asian region.
B. India is helping other economies or the region to fight the global financial crisis better than some other more
open economies of Asia Pacific Region.
C. India is likely to become the second largest economy of the world in next five years, as it has been the most
favourite destination for Foreign Direct Investment for almost 90% of the countries of the World.

Only A
1.

Only B
2.
Both A & C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Which of the following organizations recently completed 60 years of its existence for which special anniversary
Q. 8 celebration were held in France and Germany?

OPEC
1.

NATO
2.

ASEAN
3.

African Union
4.

European Union
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2
Q. 9 Which of the following was the venue of the Fifth World Water Forum held in March 2009?

Helsinki
1.

Athens
2.

Budapest
3.

Istanbul
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 10 Which of the following pairs of countries has decided to redraw their boundaries as global warming has
dissolved the Alpine Glacier?

Italy-France
1.

France-Switzerland
2.

Switzerland-Italy
3.

Austria-Italy
4.
None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 11 The launch of an indigenous communication satellite recently by which of the following countries has created
an alarming situation in the world and some big nations have started preparations for facing warlike situations
in their regions?

North Korea
1.

China
2.

Pakistan
3.

Iran
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 12 India recently renewed its protocol on Inland Water Transit and Travel with which of the following countries for
two more years?

Pakistan
1.
Bangladesh
2.

Nepal
3.

Myanmar
4.

China
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 13 India recently decided to have a Free Trade Pact with Chile and some other countries. What benefits do
countries get if they go for a "Free Trade Pact" among themselves?
A. It helps them to export/import various goods/commodities on low or no tariff from each other.
B. It helps countries to make the payment of the goods/services imported at their own convenience and also in
the currency desired by them.
C. Countries bound by FTP do not export or import on the basis of any quota system.

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only A & C
3.

Only B & C
4.

All A, B & C
5.

1 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 14 As per some newspaper reports, the Asia-pacific region Is facing various global crises. What are these crises?
A. Financial crisis
B. Fuel & Food crisis
C. Climate Change

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 15 India has recently signed a deal to purchase eight P-81 Boeing Maritime Patrol aircraft worth US$2.1 billion from
which of the following countries?

USA
1.

Russia
2.
France
3.

Japan
4.

Italy
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 16 Which of the following schemes was launched to give a boost and incentives to increase public investment to
achieve 4% growth in the area of agriculture and allied sectors during the 11th plan period?

National Technological Mission


1.

National Bamboo Mission


2.

Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana


3.

National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme


4.

Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana


5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 17 Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana?
A. The scheme was launched in 2001 by merging some of the schemes running that time.
B. In this scheme preference is given to Below Poverty Line families for the jobs.
C. The wages under the scheme are paid partly in cash and partly by giving food grains.

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 18 Which of the following Acts help(s) Union Govt. to control its fiscal deficit?

Finance Act
1.

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act


2.

Banking Companies Act


3.

Both (1) and (2)


4.
None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 19 Which of the following housing schemes was/were launched by HUDCO to give special emphasis on the
development of rural areas of the country?
A. Indira Awas Yojana
B. Adarsh Gram/Adarsh Basti Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 20 Many a time we read in financial newspapers about Public Debt. Which of the following is/are the components of
Public Debt?
A. Market loans
B. External loans
C. Outstanding against saving schemes/provident funds
Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Both A & B
3.

Only C
4.

All A, B & C
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 21 As agriculture is the mainstream of the Indian Economy, what is the contribution of agriculture and allied
sectors in the total Gross Domestic Product of India? About

10%
1.

15%
2.

22%
3.

36%
4.

48%
5.
1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 22 As we know, the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was implemented by Govt. of India. Now Govt. has
made certain changes in the Act so that is can boost up its policy of Financial Inclusion of the beneficiaries.
Which of the following changes is/are done for this purpose?

A. NREGA functionaries are being trained to conduct social audits and public disclosure of the works
undertaken by State Govt. and Panchayats.
B. Workers who are engaged for various jobs under the scheme are paid their wages through post office and/or
bank accounts.
C. Wages paid to the beneficiaries are revised and it is strengthening their livelihood resources.

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 23 Which of the following is/are the major roles of the Union Ministry of Environment and forests?
A. Prevention and control of pollution
B. Ensuring the welfare of animals
C. Forestation and regeneration of degraded areas

Only A
1.
Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 24 How will the newly passed Gram Nyayalaya Act help the judicial system in the country?
A. It promises to put many more courts at block and tehsil levels.
B. It would make justice quick, particularly in case of small disputes and petty crimes.
C. This will reduce the burden on High Courts and Supreme Court.

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

Only B & C
4.

Both A & B
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 25 Which of the following schemes is NOT a part of National Social Assistance programs?
A. National Old Age Pension Scheme
B. National Family Benefit Scheme
C. services for the for program

Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Both A & B
3.

Both B & C
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 26 As per a recent report, the Tax-GDP Ratio has increased from 9.2 per cent In 2003-04 to which of th following
levels in 2007-08?

10.33%
1.

11%
2.

11.33%
3.
12.5%
4.

12.75%
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 27 Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam has signed agreements with Nepal and Bhutan for various projects. Sutlej Jal Vidyut
Nigam is a joint venture of the Power Ministry and the State of

Punjab
1.

Himachal Pradesh
2.

Haryana
3.

Jammu & Kashmir


4.

Delhi
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 28 Which of the following programs was launched to control urban poverty?


A. Nehru Rozgar Yojana
B. Valmiki Ambedkar Aawas Yojana
C. National Slum Development Programme
Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

Only A & B
4.

All A, B & C
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 29 when Union govt. takes the approval of the parliament regarding expected expenditure for a short period not
more than six months, instead of presenting full budget, it is known as.

Consolidated Fund Budget


1.

Extra Ordinary Budget


2.

Partial Budget
3.

Vote on Account
4.

None of these
5.
-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 30 Which of the following countries is providing support in setting up the Indian Institute of Technology in Jaipur?

USA
1.

Russia
2.

Germany
3.

Britain
4.

France
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 31 which of the following is NOT a social sector program launched by the Govt. of India?

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan


1.

National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme


2.

Mid Day Meal Scheme


3.
National Rural Health Mission
4.

Overseas Indian Citizenship Scheme


5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 32 Which of the following schemes was launched by the Govt. of India to give focused attention to integrate
development of infrastructure and services in urban areas?

Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission


1.

Bharat Nirman
2.

Providing Urban facilities in Rural Areas


3.

Both (1) & (2) above


4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 33 What are the incentives given to the Special Economic Zones (SEZs)?
A. 100% FDI allowed for townships with residential, educational and recreational facilities in the area.
B. Income tax benefits
C. Exemption from Service Tax/Central Sales Tax
Only A
1.

Only B
2.

Only C
3.

All A, B & C
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 34 The first e-court of the country was launched in which of the following places recently?

Ahmedabad
1.

Mumbai
2.

Jaipur
3.

Chennai
4.

None of these
5.
-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 35 Venus Williams won the Dubai Open women's final tennis alter defeating.

Film Zvonareva
1.

Sania Mirza
2.

Flavia Pennetta
3.

Virginia Razano
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 36 Raja J Chelliah, who died recently, was a famous.

Film Producer
1.

Economist
2.
Sports Personality
3.

Journalist
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 37 The National Literacy Mission was set up in 1988 to attain 75% literacy by the year.

2000
1.

2005
2.

2007
3.

2008
4.

2010
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 38 West Zone Cricket team won which of the following trophies/Cups, the matches for which were played in
February 2009?
Duleep Trophy
1.

Ranji Trophy
2.

Vizzy Trophy
3.

Nehru Trophy
4.

None of those
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 39 Which of the following is one of the eight Millennium Development Goals set by the UNO?

Eradication of poverty and extreme hunger


1.

Reduction in nuclear warheads in the world


2.

Total peace in Iraq and Afghanistan


3.

Restoration of peace in Darfur


4.

None of these
5.
-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 40 Which
India?
of the following is a vector-borne disease for which a special program has been launched by the Govt. of

Polio
1.

HIV/AIDS
2.

Malaria
3.

Cancer
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 41 US President Barack Obama made a historic move by re-allowing travel and monetary assistance to a country
after a ban on it for 47 years. The name of the country is

Cuba
1.

Brazil
2.
Peru
3.

Uganda
4.

Myanmar
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 42 Which of the following is NOT a food crop?

Maize
1.

Bajara
2.

Paddy
3.

Wheat
4.

Cotton
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 43 Who amongst the following is the author of the book A Better India: A Better World?
C Rangarajan
1.

G Madhavan Nair
2.

Anil Kakodkar
3.

NR Narayana Murthy
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 44 Which of the following awards is given for excellence in films?

Kalidas Samman
1.

Arjuna Award
2.

Saraswati Samman
3.

Kabir Samman
4.

None of these
5.
1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 45 Agha Khan Cup is associated with the game of

Cricket
1.

Football
2.

Lawn Tennis
3.

Golf
4.

Hockey
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 46 India has the second largest concentration of tribal people in the world. Which of the following countries is the
first in this regard?

France
1.

China
2.
Iraq
3.

Iran
4.

Africa
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 47 Who amongst the following is the author of the book Development as Freedom?

Dr C Rangarajan
1.

Dr YV Reddy
2.

Dr Amartya Sen
3.

Aung San Suu Kyi


4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 48 Who amongst the following is the Finance Minister of India at present?


P Chidambaram
1.

SM Krishna
2.

Pranab Murkherjee
3.

Sharad Pawar
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 49 Which of the following is the full form of ASHA, a scheme of the Govt. of India in the field of health and family
welfare?

Accredited Social Health Activist


1.

American Social Health Association


2.

Association of Social Health Activists


3.

American Social Helpers' Association


4.

None of these
5.
1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 50 The policy of the RBI that influence the monetary and other financial conditions in the country with the
objectives of price stability and sustainable growth is known as the

Monetary Policy
1.

Budget Policy
2.

Growth Policy
3.

Fiscal Policy
4.

Control Policy
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

English

Q. 51 English:
Directions (51-65 ): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:

A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut
emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70%this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the
national centre for atmospheric research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous
potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of arctic sea ice and permafrost
and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided,?this research indicates that we can not longer avoid
significant warming during this century?, said NCAR scientist warren Washington, the study papers leading
authour. ''but if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts we should stabilize the threat of climate
change, he added.
Average global temperatures have warned by floes to 1 degree celcius since the pre- industrial era. Much of the
warming is due to human-produced emissions of green house gases, predominantly carbon di-oxide. This heat
trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million(ppm) in the atmosphere to
more than 380 ppm today. With the research showing the additional warming of about 1 degree celcius may be
the threshold of climate change, the European union has called for dramaticcuts in emissions of carbon dioxide
and other greenhouse gases.

To examine the impact of such cuts on the world?s climate Washington and his colleagues ran a series of
global studies with the NCAR based community climate system model(CCSM).

They assumed that the carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast
emissions now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. the teams results showed that if carbon
di oxide were hailed to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degree Celsius of our current
readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost 4
times that amount, to 22 degree Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their
present course .holding carbon di-oxide levels to 450ppm would have other impacts according to the climate
modeling study.

Sea level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 cm(5.5 inch) instead of
22cms (8.7 inch).Also, arctic ice in the summer time would shrinkabout a quarter in volume had stabilize by
2100, as posed to shrinking at least three quarters and continuing to melt and arctic warming would be reduced
by almost half.

Ques.
Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions?

As global warming is not an issue of concern


1.

As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change
2.

As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts
3.

As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 52 What would NOT be one of the impact of cutting greenhouse gas omissions?
Temperatures will stop soaring.
1.

Ice in the Arctic sea would be lesser.


2.

The rise in sea level would be lesser.


3.

All of the above would be the impact


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 53 What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions?

The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius.
1.

The sea level would rise by about 5.5 inches.


2.

The Arctic ice would stabilize by 2100.


3.

The Arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth.


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 54 What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage?

A study of the rise in water level


1.

A study of rise in temperatures


2.

A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions


3.

A study of the Arctic region


4.

A study of change in seasons


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 55 Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?

At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm.


1.

The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
2.

The carbon dioxide emission was about 330 ppm during the pre-industrial era.
3.
The carbon dioxide emission will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 56 What does the scientist warren Washington mean when he says "we could stabilize the threat of climate
change"?

Climate change can be stopped completely.


1.

Climate change can be regularied.


2.

Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively.


3.

The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized.


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 57 Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies?


Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about 1 degree
1.

So that they could stabilize the climate change


2.

So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions
3.

Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70%
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 58 What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century?
A. Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius
B. Arctic warming would be reduced by half
C. Thermal expansion will stop completely

Only (A)
1.

Only (A) and (B)


2.

Only (B) and (C)


3.

All the three (A) , (B) and (C)


4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 59 Directions (59- 62): choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in the meaning to the word printed in
the Underline as used in the passage

DRAMTIC

Unprecedented
1.

Thrilling
2.

Spectacular
3.

Effective
4.

feeble
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 60 SHRINK

Contract
1.

Physician
2.
Spectacular
3.

Shrivel
4.

Reduce
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 61 PREDOMINANTLY

Clearly
1.

Aggressively
2.

Mainly
3.

Firstly
4.

Reduce
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3
Q. 62 MASSIVE

Tall
1.

Tough
2.

Total
3.

Little
4.

Sever
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 63 Directions (Q 63.65): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word printed in
the Underline as used in the passage.

Ques.
SIGIFICANT

Substantial
1.

Minuscule
2.

Incoherent
3.

Unimportant
4.
Irrelevant
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 64 OPPOSED

resistant
1.

Against
2.

Favoring
3.

Similar
4.

Agree
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 65 DIMINISED

Created
1.
Rose
2.

increased
3.

Similar
4.

Agree
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 66 Directions (Q 66 - 70): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in the Underline in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it
is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer

Ques.
Although scared of heights she gathers all her courage and stood atop the 24 storey building to participate in
the activities.

Gathered all her courage


1.

gathered all courageous


2.

Gather all courageous


3.

Is gathered all courage


4.

No correction required
5.

0 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 67 Natural, with every thing gone so well for them it was time for celebration.

Go so well
1.

Going so well
2.

Gone as well
3.

Going as well
4.

No correction required
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 68 The ban imposed by the state's commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community,
which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial move.

Had threats of burning


1.

Had threatened of burning


2.

Had threatened to burn


3.
Had threatened to burning
4.

No correction required
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 69 Rakesh an avid football player who captained his team in school and college will inaugurate the match
tomorrow

Come forward
1.

Come to the fore


2.

Will inaugurating
3.

Came to the fore


4.

No correction
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 70 At a musical night organized for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward as they sang beautifully
and made the evening truly memorable
Come forward
1.

Come to the fore


2.

Came to the forth


3.

Came to the fore


4.

No correction required
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 71 Directions (Q 71- 75): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set of the words for each blank which best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole
Ques.
Behaving in a_______ and serious way even in a____ situation makes people respect you.

Calm difficult
1.

Steady, angry
2.

Flamboyant tricky
3.

Cool, astounding
4.
Silly sound
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 72 Along
______
with a sharp rise in____ a recession would eventually result in more men, woman and children living in

Crime, apathy
1.

Fatalities, poor
2.

Deaths, slums
3.

Unemployment, poverty
4.

Migrations, streets
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 73 The government's has_____ to provide financial aid to the ones______ by severe floods in the city.

Desired, troubled
1.

Promised havoc
2.
Failed affected
3.

Wanted struck
4.

Decided ill
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 74 An airplane with_____ passengers on board made an unscheduled_____ as the airport to which it was heading
was covered with thick fog.

irritable, slip
1.

Faulty, stop
2.

Variety, halt
3.

tons, wait
4.

Numerous, landing
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5
Q. 75 Deemed universities_____ huge fees, but have not been successful in providing_____ education to our
students.

Collect maintaining
1.

Pay, belted
2.

Ask, good
3.

Charge, quality
4.

Demand, quantitative
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 76 Direction (Q 76- 80): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) In fact, today, social entrepreneurship is no different from starting a profit-motivated company.
(B) The major challenge they face is employee selection and retention.
(C) For decade's social development in India meant charity.
(D) However, the challenges social organizations experience are tougher.
(E) This is because while volunteering for social work is not new, attracting talented people and tapping their
potential at lower costs is difficult.
(F) In recent years, however, economic changes have brought business sense and professionalism to the
sector.

Ques.
Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the paragraph?

A
1.

B
2.
C
3.

D
4.

E
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 77 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence in the paragraph?

A
1.

C
2.

D
3.

E
4.

F
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 78 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the paragraph?


B
1.

C
2.

D
3.

E
4.

F
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 79 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the paragraph?

A
1.

B
2.

C
3.

D
4.

E
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 80 Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence in the paragraph?

A
1.

B
2.

C
3.

D
4.

E
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 81 Directions (Q 81-90): Read each sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentences. The number of that part is the answer. It there is no
error, the answer is 5. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Ques.
(1) The President has denied/ (2) that the economy is in recession / (3) Or was go into one/ (4) despite a spate of
downcast reports/ (5) No error

1
1.
2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 82 (1) The angry at being/ (2) left out of the bonanza/ (3) is palpable among/ (4) employees of the organization. /(5)
No error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1
Q. 83 (1) His comments came after/ (2) the research group said that
slumped to its Lowest. (5) No error
(3) Its consumer confidence index were/ (4)

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 84 (1) If all goes well/ (2) the examination scheduled for next month/ (3) is all set to be completely free/ (4) from
annoying power cuts and disruptions./ (5) no error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.
5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 85 (1) There are Just too few trains/ (2) for the ever- grow/ (3) number of Passengers/ (4) in the city./ (5) No error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 86 (1) the buzz at the party was that a famous/ (2) film star (3) And Politician would/ (4) probable drop by for a
While/ (5) No Error.

1
1.
2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 87 (1) The opposition disrupted proceedings/ (2) in both Houses of Parliament/ (3) for the second consecutive day
above/ (4) the plight of farmers in the country. /(5) No error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4
Q. 88 (1) In response to the growing crisis/ (2) the agency is urgently asking for/ (3) more contributions, to make up
for/ (4) its sharp decline in purchasing power./ (5) no error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 89 (1) The tennis player easy through/ (2) the opening set before Her opponent,/ (3) rallied to take the final two sets/
(4) for the Biggest victory of her young career /(5) no error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.
5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 90 (1) Aggression in some teenage boys/ (2) may be linkage to Overly/ (3) large glands in their brains, / (4) a new
study has Found. (5) No error

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 91 Directions (Q 91-100): in the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of which first the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word
in each case.

In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a country's Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) FOR at least two quarters. A recession is (91) by rising unemployment increase in government borrowing,
(92) of share and stock prices, and falling investment all of these characteristics have effects on people. Some
recessions have been anticipated by stocks such as financial. However, real-estate market also usually (93)
before a recession. However, real-state declines high-(94) stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals
and tobacco (95) to hold up better. However, when the economic starts to recover growth, stocks tend to
recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to (96).
In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These
(97) high oil prices which led to (98) high food prices due to a dependence of food production on petroleum; as
well as using food crop product such as ethanol and bio-diesel as an (99)and global inflation; a substantial
crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of large and well (100) investment banks as well as commercial banks in
various diverse nations around the world; increase unemployment; and signs of contemporaneous economic
downturns in major economics of the world a global recession.

Ques.

Imagined
1.

Depict
2.

Shown
3.

Visualized
4.

Characterized
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 92 Refer Question 91

Increase
1.

Variance
2.

More
3.
Decrease
4.

Abundance
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 93 Refer Question 91

Weakens
1.

Initiates
2.

Awakens
3.

Strengthens
4.

Volatile
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 94 Refer Question 91

Maintained
1.
Yield
2.

Heavy
3.

Result
4.

Made
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 95 Refer Question 91

Are
1.

Want
2.

Yearn
3.

Made
4.

stand
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 96 Refer Question 91

Distribute
1.

Recover
2.

Wait
3.

Increased
4.

Fight
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 97 Refer Question 91

Meant
1.

Show
2.

Numbered
3.
Included
4.

Encompass
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 98 Refer Question 91

Fearful
1.

Dangerous
2.

Abnormally
3.

Healthy
4.

Nutritious
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 99 Refer Question 91

Alternative
1.
Variant
2.

Substitute
3.

Substitute
4.

Integral
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. Refer Question 91
100

Wealthy
1.

Costly
2.

Stand
3.

Created
4.

Established
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (101-110): What will come in place of the question, mark (?) in the following questions?
Q.
101 Ques.
23*23*25/23*5=?

115
1.

117
2.

132
3.

150
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 3895-1563+1089=?
102
3321
1.

3527
2.

3329
3.

3429
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 45*390/26=?
103

645
1.

675
2.

765
3.

745
4.

None of these
5.
1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 2.2*5.6+17.8=?
104

30.12
1.

30.012
2.

31.12
3.

31.012
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 3/5 of 5/6 of 2/7 of 9450=?


105

960
1.

480
2.
450
3.

900
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 2025*225/961=?
106

474.11
1.

547.43
2.

444.44
3.

435.87
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1
Q. 358.085+42.91+25.55=?
107

425.565
1.

426.545
2.

426.555
3.

425.545
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 140%of 56+56% of 140=?


108

78.4
1.

158.6
2.

156.6
3.

87.4
4.
None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. 27/8+9/4-33/8=?
109

1
1.

1/2
2.

3/2
3.

7/4
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 65% of 240+ ? % of 150=210


110

45
1.
46
2.

32
3.

36
4.

None of these
5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. The area of rectangle is equal to the area of circle whose radius is 14cm. If the breadth of the rectangle is 22 cm,
what is its length?
111

24 cm
1.

28 cm
2.

26 cm
3.

Cannot be determined
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. The ages of A and B are presently in the ratio of 5:6 Six years hence this ratio will become 6:7 What was B's age
5 years ago ?
112

25 years
1.

30 years
2.

36 years
3.

31 years
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?
113

5040
1.

2520
2.

720
3.
1440
4.

None of these
5.

-0.25 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. If the digits of a two- digit number are interchanged, the number formed is greater than the original number by
45. if the differences between the digits is 5 what is original number ?
114

16
1.

27
2.

38
3.

Cannot be determined
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. If the compound interest accrued on an amount of RS 15000 in two years is Rs 2,496, what is the rate of interest
p.c.a ?
115
8
1.

10
2.

6
3.

Cannot be determined
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 75% of a number is equal to four- fifths of another number. What is the ratio between the first number and the
second number?
116

5:3
1.

15:16
2.

3:5
3.

16:15
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Mr More spent 20% of his monthly income on food and 15% on children's education. 40% of the remaining he
spent on entertainment and transport together and 30% of medical. He is left with an amount of Rs 8775 after all
117 these expenditures. What is Mr More's monthly income

Rs 40,000
1.

Rs 35,000
2.

Rs 42,000
3.

Rs 38,000
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 25% and the denominator is doubled, the fraction thus obained is
5/9 What is the original fraction ?
118

2/3
1.

4/9
2.
8/9
3.

Cannot be determined
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. P,Q and R invested Rs 45,000, Rs 70,000 and Rs 90,000 respectively to starts a business. At the end of two years
they earned a profit of Rs 1, 64,000. What will be Q's share in the profit ?
119

Rs 56,000
1.

Rs 35,000
2.

Rs 72,000
3.

Rs 64,000
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1
Q. Harsha bought 15 pieces of DVD players @ Rs 4,500 each and sold all of them at the total price of Rs 81,000.
What is the cent profit earned in the deal ?
120

50/3
1.

20
2.

25
3.

20.5
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Directions (Q121-125): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
Q.
121 Ques.
5 11 32 ? 444

108
1.

109
2.

96
3.
98
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. 7 15 ? 63 127
122

32
1.

29
2.

33
3.

31
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. 2 3 10 ? 172
123
45
1.

39
2.

36
3.

42
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 8 4 6 52.5
124

9
1.

12.5
2.

15
3.

16
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. 5 6 ? 45 184
125

15
1.

12
2.

16
3.

9
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Directions (Q 126-130): what approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
Q. question ? (You are expected to calculate the exact value)
126
Ques.
5687.285 + 4872.35 ÷12= ?

5995
1.

5905
2.
6095
3.

6093
4.

6295
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. (35.95)2 - (24.001)2 = ?
127

680
1.

240
2.

720
3.

740
4.

730
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3
Q. 367.85 ÷ 22.95 × 14.99= ?
128

280
1.

240
2.

220
3.

740
4.

290
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. 75% of 230-? =64% of 249


129

14
1.

17
2.

22
3.
18
4.

20
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. (24.99)2 + (31.05)2 = (?)2


130

45
1.

36
2.

32
3.

30
4.

40
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Directions (Q 131-135): study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Q.
131 Strength (number of students) of seven institutes over the years
Ques.
The strength of institute F in 2004 is what per cent of the total strength of that Institute for all seven years
together? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

14.28
1.

14.98
2.

12.90
3.

14.75
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. What is the difference between the total number of students in 2006 for all the institutes together and the total
number of students in 2008 for all institutes together ?
132
50
1.

70
2.

10
3.

30
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. What is the ratio between the total strength of Institutes A.B and G together in 2003 and the total strength of
Institutes E. F and G together in 2005 ?
133

103:101
1.

101:103
2.

53.51
3.

52:51
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. If in 2002 the overall percentage of students passed from all the institutes is 70% how many students passed in
2002 in all from all the institutes together?
134

3402
1.

3420
2.

3422
3.

3382
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. If from Institute B overall 60% students passed for all the given years approximately what is the average number
of students passed?
135

430
1.

425
2.
390
3.

395
4.

405
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Directions (Q 136 -140): study the following graph carefully to answer these questions
Q.
136

Ques. What was the percent rise in A 's investment in 2004 from the previous years ?

25%
1.

20%
2.

33%
3.

30%
4.
None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Investment of B in 2003 is approximately what percent of his total investment for all the years together ?
137

12
1.

18
2.

20
3.

17
4.

14
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. What is the ratio of the total investment of A in 2001, 2002 and 2003 together to the total investment of B in these
three years together respectively ?
138

5:6
1.
6:5
2.

15:7
3.

17:5
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. What is the percent rise investment of B in 2004 from 2001?


139

45.6
1.

6:5
2.

30
3.

60
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. What is the percent rise/ fall in the total investment of A &B together from 2002 to 2005? (rounded off to two
digits after decimal)
140

8.33% fall
1.

9.09% rise
2.

8.33% rise
3.

9.09% fall
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Directions (Q 141- 145 ): study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Q. Number of students appeared and passed in an examination from five different schools over the years
141

Ques.
What is the ratio between the average number of students passed from Schools B and C respectively for all the
given years
70: 51
1.

70:53
2.

53:70
3.

51:70
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. What is the ratio between the total number of students appeared from all the school together in 2007? (Rounded
off to the next integer)
142

286:295
1.

277:286
2.

286:277
3.

295:286
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. What was the overall percentage of student passed with respect to the number of students appeared from all the
school together in 2007? Rounded off to the next integer)
143

74
1.

73
2.

72
3.

71
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. For school, which year had the lowest percentage of students passed with respect to those appeared ?
144

2004
1.

2005
2.
2006
3.

2007
4.

2008
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. During 2006 which school had the highest percentage of students passed with respect to those appeared ?
145

C
1.

B
2.

A
3.

D
4.

E
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5
Directions (Q 146-150): Study the following graph carefully lo answers these questions.
Q. Average Monthly Expenditure of an Organization under Various Heads
146 Total Expenditure Rs 18, 50,000

Ques.
What is the amount spent on transport subsidy and canteen subsidy together?

Rs 3, 34000
1.

Rs 3, 43000
2.

Rs 3, 30,000
3.

Rs 3, 33,000
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. What is the difference between the expenditure on salary to staff and that on loans to staff ?
147
Rs 37,200
1.

Rs 35,700
2.

Rs 37,500
3.

Rs. 35,000
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. The amount spent on medical to staff is what per cent of amount spent on salary ?
148

30%
1.

33%
2.

25%
3.

22%
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. What is the amount spent on telephone?


149

Rs 2,75,500
1.

Rs 2,70,500
2.

Rs 2,77,500
3.

Rs 2,77,000
4.

None of These
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. What is the total expenditure on electricity and water together


150

Rs. 4,25,000
1.

Rs 4,25,500
2.
Rs.4,22,500
3.

Rs 4,25,800
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. Test of Reasoning
151 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ELRU using each letter only once in each
word?

None
1.

One
2.

Two
3.

Three
4.

More than three


5.

1 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3
Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
152

Plastic
1.

Nylon
2.

Polythene
3.

Terelyne
4.

Silk
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. M is sister of D.R is brother of D. F is father of M and T is mother of R. How is D related to T ?


153

Brother
1.

Son
2.

Daughter
3.
Data inadequate
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. JM is related to 'PS' in the way as 'BE' is related to


154

HJ
1.

HK
2.

IL
3.

JM
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. In a certain code DENIAL is written as MDCMBJ. How is SOURCE written in that code ?
155
TNRFDS
1.

RNTFDS
2.

TNRSDF
3.

TRNDBQ
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. What should come next in the following letter series?


MLKJHGFMLKJIHGMLKJIHMLKJI
156

K
1.

N
2.

H
3.

M
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is MEAN written in that code ?
157

5216
1.

3126
2.

3216
3.

9126
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53261489 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of
the second and the sixth digits are interchanged, and so on which of the following will be the second from the
158 rights end after the rearrangement?

8
1.

2
2.
3
3.

4
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STORM each of which has as many letters between in the
word a in the English alphabet?
159

None
1.

One
2.

Two
3.

Three
4.

More than three


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4
Q. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does belong to
that group?
160

Blue
1.

Green
2.

Yellow
3.

Violet
4.

Black
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Directions (Q 161- 166): In each question below are there statements followed by three conclusions numbered
Q. I,II and III. You have to take the three given statements to do true even if they seem to be at variance with
161 commonly known fact and than decide which of the given conclusions logical followers from the three given
statements disregarding commonly know facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2),(3),(4) and (5) is the
correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

Ques.
Statements:
All stamps are packets
some packets are buckets
all buckets are tubes
Conclusions:
I. some tubes are stamps
II. Some buckets are stamps
III. Some tubes are packet.

None follow
1.

Only I follow
2.
Only II follow
3.

Only III follow


4.

Only II and III follow


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Statements:
Q. Some bags are trunks
162 All trunks are shirts
Some shirts are books
All books are shops.
Conclusions:
I. Some shops are bags
II. Some books are bags
III. Some shops are shirts
IV. Some shirts are bags

Only I and II follow


1.

Only I and III follow


2.

Only III and IV follows


3.

Only II and IV follows


4.

none of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Statements:
Q. All pens are chairs.
163 All flowers are chairs.
All chairs are trucks.
All trees are trucks
Conclusions:
I. some trucks are pens
II. Some trucks are chairs
III. Some trees are pens
IV. Some trees are chairs

only I and III follows


1.

only I and II follows


2.

only III and IV follows


3.

only II and IV follows


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Statements:
Q. All desks are pillars
164 some pillars are towns
All towns are benches
some benches are cars
Conclusions:
I. some cars are towns
II. some benches are desks
III. some benches are pillars
IV. some cars are pillars
none follows
1.

only I follow
2.

only II follow
3.

only III follow


4.

only IV follow
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Statements:
Q. All stations are houses
165 No house is a garden
some gardens are rivers
All rivers are ponds
Conclusions:
I. Some ponds are gardens
II. Some ponds are stations
III. Some ponds are houses
IV. No pond is station

Only I follows
1.

Only either II or IV follows


2.

Only I and II follows


3.

Only I and IV follows


4.
None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Statements:
Q. Some desks are mirrors
166 Some mirrors are combs
Some combs are pins
Conclusions:
I. some pins are desks
II. Some combs are desks
III. Some pins are mirrors
IV. Some pins are either desks or mirrors

None follow
1.

Only II follow
2.

Only I follow
3.

Only IV follows
4.

Only III follow


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Statements:
Q. Some towers are lanes
167 Some lanes are roads
Some roads are rivers
Some rivers are jungles
Conclusions:
I. some jungles are roads
II. some roads are lanes
III. some jungles are towers
IV. no jungle is road

only I follow
1.

only II follow
2.

only either I or IV follow


3.

only IV follow
4.

only either I or IV and II follow


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Directions (168-172):study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Q.
168 E%3R5#A6BIJ@29HU4©M1*F7$W8PND

Ques.
What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
35A I@ 9 4M* ?

7 WP
1.

7W8
2.

$8N
3.
FWP
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangements each of which is immediately preceded by
consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
169

None
1.

One
2.

Two
3.

Three
4.

More than three


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangements
170
©
1.

@
2.

3
3.

%
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. If all the numbers in the above arrangements are dropped which of the following will be the fourteenth from the
left end ?
171

J
1.

C
2.

*
3.

@
4.

None of these
5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on there positions in the above arrangements and so
from a group. Which is the one of the does not belong to that group
172

4UC
1.

8 WP
2.

6BA
3.

R35
4.

H9U
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Directions (173-178): In the following questions, the symbols @, © ,%,$, and * are used with the following
Q. meaning as illustrated below.
173 'P@Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P*Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P ©Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
'P$Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'.
'P%Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.

Ques.
Statements: R'@ V,V$ J, J*K
Conclusions:
I. K%R
II. J@R
III. K%V
Only I is true
1.

Only II is true
2.

Only I and II are true


3.

Only III is true


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Statements: D%H, H@ V, V $ W
Q. Conclusions:
174 I. H%W
II. D%V
III. D%W

Only I is true
1.

Only II is true
2.

Only III is true


3.

All are true


4.
None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Statements: M $ T, T * J, J © N
Q. Conclusions:
175 I. N%M
II. J%M
III. M $ N

Only I is true
1.

Only II is true
2.

Only I and II are true


3.

All are true


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Statements: N $ R, R © D, D * K
Q. Conclusions:
176 I. K%R
II. D%R
III. D@R
Only either II or III and I are true
1.

Only either II or III is true


2.

Only III is true


3.

All are true


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Statements: F © K, K%M, M © T
Q. Conclusions:
177 I. T * K
II. F%M
III. T * F

Only I is true
1.

Only II is true
2.

Only I and II are true


3.

Only II and III are true


4.

All are true


5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Statements: M © T, T @ J, J % D
Q. Conclusions:
178 I. D%T
II. M$T
III. T%J

All are true


1.

Only I is true
2.

Only II is true
3.

Only either I or II is true


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Directions (179-183): Study the following information care-fully and answer the questions. P;Q, R, S, T, V, W and
Q. Z are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is third to the right of Z, who is second to the right of P. S is
179 not an immediate neighbor of Z and R. T is third to the left of S. Q is third to the right of W, who is not an
immediate neighbor of S.

Ques.
Which of the pairs of persons are the immediate neighbors of P?

VQ
1.
VW
2.

VS
3.

SR
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

What is Q's position with respect to Z?


Q. (1) Fourth to the right
180 (2) Fourth to the left
(3) Third to the right

Only (1)
1.

Only (2)
2.

Only(3)
3.

Either (1) or (2)


4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Who is second to the right of T?


181

Z
1.

Q
2.

W
3.

Data inadequate
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. In which of the following pairs is the second sitting on the immediate left of the first person?
182

RT
1.

TW
2.
QR
3.

PS
4.

none of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Who is on the immediate left of Z?


183

V
1.

W
2.

P
3.

Data inadequate
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1
Directions (184-190) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Q. Seven friends H, I, J, K, V, W and X study different disciplines, viz Arts, Commerce, Science, Engineering,
184 Architecture, Management and Pharmacy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to a different
state, viz Anshra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, madhya Pradesh and Punjab, but not
necessarily in the same order.
J studies Engineering and does not belong to either Uttar Pradesh or Punjab. The one who belongs to Madhya
Pradesh does not study Architecture or Pharmacy. H belongs to Maharashtra. V belongs to Kerala and studies
Science. The one who belongs to Andhra Pradesh studies Commerce. K studues Management and X studies
Arts. I belongs to Karanataka and does not study Architecture. The one who studies Arts does not belong to
Punjab.

Ques.
Who studies Architecture?

V
1.

X
2.

W
3.

Cannot be determined
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Which of the following combination of state and subject is correct?


185

Uttar Pradesh-Arts
1.

Uttar Pradesh-Science
2.
Kerala-Management
3.

Punjab-Science
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. Which subject is study by I?


186

Arts
1.

Commerce
2.

Pharmacy
3.

Management
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3
Q. Who belongs to Madhya Pradesh?
187

W
1.

J
2.

K
3.

X
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. Who belongs to Andhra Pradesh?


188

W
1.

J
2.

K
3.

X
4.
None of these<
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. W belongs to which state?


189

Kerala
1.

Madhya Pradesh
2.

Uttar Pradesh
3.

Andhra Pradesh
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Who belongs to panjab?


190

W
1.
X
2.

K
3.

J
4.

None of these
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Directions (191-200) : For recruiting Management Trainees in an organization, the following criteria have been
Q. laid down. The candidate must:
191 (a) be a first-class graduate in Commerce with at least 65% marks.
(b) have secured at least 70% marks in SSC.
(c) be not more than 26 years and not less than 21 years of age as on 1.8.2007.
(d) have secured at least 60% marks in selection test.
(e) have secured at least 50% marks in selection interview
However, if a candidate fulfils all the above-mentioned criteria except
(i) at (a) above but is an Economics graduate with at least 70% marks, the case may be referred to the GM of the
organization,
(ii) at (e) above but has secured at least 40% marks in selection; interview and at least 70% marks in selection
test, the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five
decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume
anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.08.2007.
You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows:

Ques.
Abhishek has passed degree examination in Commerce with Economics as one of the subjects in first class
with 68% marks in 2006 at the age of 22 years. His marks in SSC was 73%. He has cleared the selection test with
64% marks and selection interview with 62% marks.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.
Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.
3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. Sharad Bhatia has passed B Com in first class with 69% marks and SSC with 78% marks. He joined a private
organization as an Officer in Jun 2005 immediately after completing 23 years of age. He has scored 65% marks
192 in selection test and 48% marks in selection interview.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2
Q. Priyanka Ghate has passed graduation in Arts with specialization in Economics in first class with 75% marks.
Her date of birth is 8.7.1985. She had scored 89% marks in SSC, 63% in selection interview and 61% marks in
193 selection test.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. Rakesh has passed SSC with 85% marks and graduation in Arts with specialization in Economics with 72%
marks. His date of birth is 12.6.1985. He has scored 65% marks in selection test as well as in interview.
194

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.
Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. Sarita Dere is a postgraduate in Commerce passed in first class with 62% marks. Her score in SSC was 75%.
She completed 23 years of age on 23rd December, 2006. She has scored 64% marks in selection test and 55%
195 marks in selection interview.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Ashish Gharpure is a Commerce graduate passed out in June 2006, at the age of 21 years with 72% marks and
first class. Presently he is pursuing his post-graduation in Economics. He had scored 82% marks in SSC. He has
196 cleared the selection test with 67% marks and selection interview with 56% marks.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.
Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q. Radhika has pass BA examination with specialization in Economic securing 76% marks and first class. She has
topped her class in SSC examination with 82% marks. She has completed 24 years of age on 25th May, 2007.
197 She has cleared the selection test with 66% marks and the selection interview with 54% marks.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. Ashwlni is a B. Com. passed in first class with 68%marks! She had scored 75% marks in SSC. Her date of birth
is 14.9.1984. She has cleared the selection test with 74% marks! and selection interview with 45% marks.
198

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Rajesh is a graduate the post-graduate in Commerce and has J! passed both these examination in first class, tie
had scored 75% marks in SSC. He has completed 23 year of age on 23rd June 2007. He has scored 65% marks in
199 interview as well as selection test.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.
Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.
4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Rashmi is B. Com. in first class with 62% marks and M.Com. also in first class with 67% marks. He marks in SSC
were 85%. She has completed 24 years of age on 3rd October 2006. She has scored 66% marks in selection test
200 and 56% marks in interview.

Give Answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.


1.

Give Answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.


2.

Give Answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GM.


3.

Give Answer (4) if the case is to be referred to President.


4.

Give Answer (5) if the data is inadequate to decide the course of action.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Directions(Q 201-205): In making decision about important question, it is desirable to be able to distinguish
Q. between "strong" argument and "weak" argument." strong "arguments are those which are both important and
201 directly related to the question. "Weak" argument are those which are of minor important and also may not be
directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered 1 and 2. You have to decide which of the
arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'Weak" argument.

Ques.
Statement: Should the sale of all toys made in China be banned in India?
Arguments: 1 Yes, these are very cheap and hence will put the local toy manufacturers out of business.
2. No, Indian toys are of much better quality and their sale will not be affected.

Give answer (1) if only argument 1 is strong.


1.

Give answer (2) if only argument 2 is strong


2.

Give answer (3) if either argument 1 or 2 is strong


3.

Give answer (4) if neither argument 1 nor 2 is strong


4.

Give answer (5) if both arguments 1 and 2 are strong.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. Statement: Should there be no examination up to Std IX in all the schools in India?


Arguments: 1. No, students need to go through the process of giving examinations right from young age.
202 2. Yes, this will help students to think laterally and achieve then creative pursuits.

Give answer (1) if only argument 1 is strong.


1.

Give answer (2) if only argument 2 is strong


2.

Give answer (3) if either argument 1 or 2 is strong


3.
Give answer (4) if neither argument 1 nor 2 is strong
4.

Give answer (5) if both arguments 1 and 2 are strong.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. Statement: Should there be only a uniform rate of income tax irrespective of the level of income?
Arguments: 1. Yes, this will substantially reduce the work of the officials of the income tax department.
203 2. No, this will reduce Govt tax collection to a large extent.

Give answer (1) if only argument 1 is strong.


1.

Give answer (2) if only argument 2 is strong


2.

Give answer (3) if either argument 1 or 2 is strong


3.

Give answer (4) if neither argument 1 nor 2 is strong


4.

Give answer (5) if both arguments 1 and 2 are strong.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. Statement: Should there be only two political parties in India?


Arguments : 1. Yes, in many developed countries there are only two political parties.
204 2. No. Indian electorate is not mature to select between only two political parties.
Give answer (1) if only argument 1 is strong.
1.

Give answer (2) if only argument 2 is strong


2.

Give answer (3) if either argument 1 or 2 is strong


3.

Give answer (4) if neither argument 1 nor 2 is strong


4.

Give answer (5) if both arguments 1 and 2 are strong.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. Statement: Should the sale of tobacco products be restricted to only a few outlets in each city/town?
Arguments: 1. Yes this will substantially reduce consumption of tobacco products.
205 2. No, those who want to purchase tobacco products should get them at convenient locations.

Give answer (1) if only argument 1 is strong.


1.

Give answer (2) if only argument 2 is strong


2.

Give answer (3) if either argument 1 or 2 is strong


3.

Give answer (4) if neither argument 1 nor 2 is strong


4.

Give answer (5) if both arguments 1 and 2 are strong.


5.
0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Directions (Q.206-210): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered 1
Q. and 2. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the
206 following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Ques.
Statement: A major retail store announced thirty percent reduction on all food items during the weekend.
Assumption:
1. People may still prefer buying food items from other stores.
2. A large number of customers may visit the retail store and buy food items.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption 1 is implicit.


1.

Give answer (2) if only Assumption 2 is implicit.


2.

Give answer (3) if either Assumption 1 or 2 is implicit.


3.

Give answer (4) if neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit.


4.

Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Statement: The railway authority has rescheduled the departure time of many long- distance trains and put up
Q. the revised timing on its website.
207 Assumptions:
1. the passengers may note the change in departure times from the websites
2. The passengers may be able to notice the change and board their respective trains before departure.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption 1 is implicit.


1.
Give answer (2) if only Assumption 2 is implicit.
2.

Give answer (3) if either Assumption 1 or 2 is implicit.


3.

Give answer (4) if neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit.


4.

Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Statement: The school authority has decided to give five grace marks in English to all the students of Std IX as
Q. the performance of these student in English was below expectation.
208 Assumption:
1. Majority of the students of Std IX may still fail in English even after giving grace marks.
2. Majority of the students of Std IX may now pass in English after giving grace marks.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption 1 is implicit.


1.

Give answer (2) if only Assumption 2 is implicit.


2.

Give answer (3) if either Assumption 1 or 2 is implicit.


3.

Give answer (4) if neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit.


4.

Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.


5.

0 out of 1 marks
Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Statement: The civic administration has asked the residents of the dilapidated buildings to move out as these
Q. buildings will be demolished within the next thirty days.
209 Assumptions:
1. The civic administration may be able to demolish these buildings as per schedule.
2. The residents of these buildings may vacate and stay elsewhere.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption 1 is implicit.


1.

Give answer (2) if only Assumption 2 is implicit.


2.

Give answer (3) if either Assumption 1 or 2 is implicit.


3.

Give answer (4) if neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit.


4.

Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

statement: The captain of the school football team selected only fourteen players to play all the eight matches of
Q. the interschool football competition.
210 Assumptions:
1. there may be adequate number of football players for all the matches.
2. The captain may be able to play in all the matches.

Give answer (1) if only Assumption 1 is implicit.


1.

Give answer (2) if only Assumption 2 is implicit.


2.
Give answer (3) if either Assumption 1 or 2 is implicit.
3.

Give answer (4) if neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is implicit.


4.

Give answer (5) if both Assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.


5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Directions (Q. 211-215): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be
Q. either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
211 statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the
following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Ques.
A. Govt has decided to distribute part of the food grain stock through Public Distribution System to people
below poverty line.
B. There has been bumper kharif crop for the last two seasons.

if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effects.


1.

if statement (B) is (the cause and statement (A) is its effects


2.

if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.


3.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effect of independent causes
4.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q. A. Most of the students enrolled themselves for the educational tour scheduled for next month.
B. The school authority cancelled the educational tour scheduled for next month.
212

if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effects.


1.

if statement (B) is (the cause and statement (A) is its effects


2.

if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.


3.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effect of independent causes
4.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q. A. The prices of fruits have dropped substantially during the last few days.
B. The prices of food grains have increased substantially during the last few days.
213

if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effects.


1.

if statement (B) is (the cause and statement (A) is its effects


2.

if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.


3.
if both the statement (A) and (B) are effect of independent causes
4.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q. A. The road traffic between the two towns in the state has been disrupted since last week.
B. The rail traffic between the two towns in the state has been disrupted since last week.
214

if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effects.


1.

if statement (B) is (the cause and statement (A) is its effects


2.

if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.


3.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effect of independent causes
4.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q. A. Heavy showers are expected in the city area during the next forty-eight hours.
B. The inter-club cricket tournament scheduled for the week was called off.
215
if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effects.
1.

if statement (B) is (the cause and statement (A) is its effects


2.

if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.


3.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effect of independent causes
4.

if both the statement (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Directions (216-220): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures between the
Q. unmarked figure are wrong i.e not according to the series followed by the unmarked figure.
216
Ques.

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.
4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3

Q.
217

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 3
Solution:
Ans. 3
Q.
218

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 4
Solution:
Ans. 4

Q.
219

1
1.

2
2.
3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q.
220

1
1.

2
2.

3
3.

4
4.

5
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5
Directions (221-225): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right
Q. should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were to be continued ?
221 Ques.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 2
Solution:
Ans. 2

Q.
222
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q.
223

1.
2.

3.

4.

5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5

Q.
224

1.

2.

3.
4.

5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 1
Solution:
Ans. 1

Q.
225

1.

2.

3.

4.
5.

0 out of 1 marks

Correct Answer: 5
Solution:
Ans. 5