SRMEEE 2008

MODEL QUESTIONS FOR B.Tech PROGRAMME

PART 1 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND REASONING

1. Which was the first company that N.R. Narayana Murthy launched?

a) Softronics b) Infosys Technologies

c) Integrated Software Research Ltd. d) Information Systems and Technologies

2. In which country did the world's first paper money appear?

a) China b) The Netherlands c) Canada d) Britain

3. Which was the first bank to introduce ATMs in India?

a) HSBC b) SBI c) ICICI d) UTI

4. Which Indian Software Company is associated with the design of the Super Jumbo
Aircraft - A380?

a) TCS b) Infosys c) Dell d) Microsoft

5. Which company introduced the Blackberry?

a) Motorola b) Nokia c) Research In Motion (or RIM) d) Sony Ericsson

6. Which of these is a hospital ship?

a) Red lion b) Red Cresentc) Red Rover d) Red Cross

7. What is Webjacking?

a) Posting false information on the site b) Hacking a site

c) Destroying the site layout d) Duplicating a popular website

8. Which two countries have pound as the national currency?

a) Britain and Malta b) Switzerland and Britain

c) Britain and Egypt d) Britain and Scotland

9. Lok Sabha Speaker Somnath Chatterjee was awarded gold medal as a “token of esteem and
friendship” by the Parliament of

a) Greece b) Japan c) Ireland d) Cuba

10. Which one of the following Planet lost its planet status recently?

a) Moon b) Neptune c) Pluto d) Saturn

11. The average IQ of a human being is_____.

a) 90 b)110 c)100 d)85

12. The right side of your brain controls the _____________________side of your body and the
left side of your brain controls the _____________________side of your body

a) left; right b) right; left c) right; right d) left; left

13. Who said " To be born English is to win the lottery of life" ?

a) Queen Victoria b) Samuel Johnson c) Cecil Rhodes d) Margaret Thatcher

14. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?

a) V. P. Singh
2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y. B. Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee

a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 onlyd) 1, 2, 3 and 4

15. The Government granted environmental clearance for a South Korean Steel making company
which will set up a 12-million tonne integrated steel project in Orissa. The company
is__________.

a) SK Steel b) Sokor c) Posco d) Alexor

16. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order:

1. Gold 2. Iron 3. Sand 4. Platinum 5. Diamond

a) 3 2 1 5 4 b) 2 4 3 5 1 c) 5 4 3 2 1 d) 4 5 1 3 2

17 ‘BDFH’ is related to ‘JLNP’ in the same way as ‘RTVX’ is related to

a) BDHF b) BDFZ c) ZBDF d) YZAB

18 In the given answers, find out that word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the
given word.

ADMINISTRATION

a) STRAIN b) TRADITION c) SITUATION d) RATION

19. Brajesh, Jayesh, Amar and Praveer are playing a game of cards. Amar is to the right of
Jayesh who is to right of Brajesh. Who is to the right of Amar?

a) Brajesh b) Praveer c) Brajesh or Praveer d) Jayesh

20. Complete the Series.

 ?
Answer Figure:

a) b) c) d)
21. Find that pair of numbers which is not related to other pairs of numbers due to lack of
common property.

a) 47, 59 b) 42, 29 c) 57, 69 d) 73, 61

22. Which of the Answer Figures is related to Figure III in the same way as Figure II is related to
Figure I?

: :: : ?

Answer Figure:

a) b) c) d)

23. In each of the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true and consider both
the conclusions together, then decide which of the two given conclusions logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statements:

No magazine is cap.
All caps are cameras.
Conclusions:

I. No camera is magazine. II. Some caps are magazines.

a) Only conclusion I follows b) Only conclusion II follows

c) Either I or II follow d) Neither I or nor II follow

24. Which number will complete the following series?

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

a) 336 b) 343 c) 330 d) 420

25. If 15 men, working 9 hours a day, can reap a field in 16 days, in how many days will 18 men
reap the field, working 8 hours a day?

a) 15 b) 17 c) 18 d) 16

26. The following question, you are given a related pair of words in capital letters which is
followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair from the answer choices (A-D) that best
expresses the relationship similar to that expressed by the question pair.

PAINTING : ARTIST

a) Musician : Music b) Author : Novel c) Cook : Meal d) Poem : Poet

27. Which letter will feature in the bottom portion of the last figure?

a) U b) V c) W d) O

28. A train completes a journey with a few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 km
per hour. If the train had not stopped anywhere, it would have completed the journey at an
average speed of 60 km per hour. On an average, how many minutes per hour does the train stop
during the journey?

a) 20 minutes per hour b)18 minutes per hour

c) 15 minites per hour d) 10 minutes per hour

29. If ‘GIRL’ means ‘HJSM’, what does ‘RNES’ mean?

a) BOYS b) COWS c) TOYS d) SOFT

30. If ‘DBMDVUUB’ stands for ‘CALCUTTA,’ how will you write ‘BOMBAY’?
a) DQODDX b) CPNCBZ c) DPNCB d) CPMCBZ

PART 2 – PHYSICS

1. The dimensions of h/e (h = Planck’s constant, e = charge on electron) are same as

those of

a) Magnetic Pole Strength

b) Magnetic Moment
c) Magnetic field
d) Magnetic flux

2. Distance Z travelled by a particle is defined by Z = α + β t+ γ t2. Dimensions of γ

are

a) [ LT −1 ] b) [L −1 T] c) [LT −2 ] d) [LT 2 ]

3. The side of a cubical block when measured with a vernier calipers is 2.50 cm.
The vernier constant is 0.01 cm. The maximum possible error in the area of the
side of the block is

a) ± 0.01 cm2 b) ± 0.02 cm2 c) ± 0.05 cm2 d) ± 0.10 cm2

4. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity 30 ms −1 . If the acceleration

due to gravity is 10 ms −2 , what is the distance travelled by the particle during the
first second of its motion?

a) 10 m b) 25 m c) 30 m d) None of the above

5. The ratio of horizontal range of a projectile with height reached, when angle of
projection is 30 0 is

a) 4 : 3 b) 4 3 : 1 c) 3:4 d)4 : 1

6. A Circular disc is rotating with angular velocity ω. A man standing at the edge
walks towards the centre of the disc then the angular velocity ω.

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) No change
d) Halved

7. The mass and diameter of a planet have twice the value of the corresponding
parameters of earth. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet is

a) 9.8 m / s 2 b) 19.6 m / s 2 c) 980 m / s 2 d) 4.9 m / s 2

8. For a satellite, escape velocity is 11 km / s. If the satellite is launched at an angle
of 60 0 with the vertical, then escape velocity will be

11 11
a) 11 km / s b) 11 3 km / s c) km / s d) km / s
3 2

9. If the temperature increases, the surface tension of a liquid

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains a constant
d) First increases then decreases

10. A partide executes simple harmonic motion with a period of 6 second and
amplitude of 3 cm. Its maximum speed in cm / s is

a) π b) 2 π c) 3 π d) 4 π

1
11. A sound source is moving towards a stationary listener with of the speed of
10 th
sound. The ratio of apparent to real frequency is

2 2
10 ⎛ 10 ⎞ 11 ⎛ 11 ⎞
a) b) ⎜ ⎟ c) d) ⎜ ⎟
9 ⎝9⎠ 10 ⎝ 10 ⎠

12. Waves produced in the prongs and the stem of a vibrating tuning fork are

a) transverse in both prongs and stem

b) longitudinal in both prongs and stem
c) transverse in prongs, longitudinal in stem
d) longitudinal in prongs, transverse in stem

13. First law of thermodynamics is a special case of

a) Law of conservation of energy

b) Boyle’s law
c) Charle’s law
d) Gay Lussac’s law

14. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 30 m. If whole of its mechanical

energy is changed in to heat, then heat produced will be
a) 1400 cal b) 700 cal c) 350 cal d) 175 cal

15. The coefficient of thermal conductivity depends upon

a) Area of plate
b) Material
c) Thickness of plate
 d) Temperature difference

16. For a prism of refractive index 1.732, the angle of minimum deviation is equal to
the angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is

a) 80 0 b) 70 0 c) 60 0 d) 50 0

17. Paramagnetism is

a) Hysteresis effect
b) Domain effect
c) Distortion effect
d) Orientation effect

18. In Young’s double slit experiment, the wavelength of the light used is doubled
and distance between two slits is made half of initial distance. The resultant
fringe width becomes

a) 2 times b) 3 times c) 4 times d) Half

19. The equivalent capacitance in the circuit between A and B will be

a) 1 μ F
b) 2 μ F
c) 3 μ F A B
1 1μ F 1μ F 1μ F
d) μF
3

20. Drift velocity Vd varies with the intensity of electric field E as per the relation

1
a) V d = constant b) V d α c) V d α E −2 d) V d α E
E

21. Two heater wires of equal lengths are first connected in series and then in
parallel. The ratio of heats produced in the two cases is
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 2 d) 4 : 1

22. If mean wavelength of light radiated by 100 W lamp is 5000 A 0 , the number of
photons radiated per second would be

a) 2.5 x 10 20 b) 2.5 x 10 22 c) 3 x 10 23 d) 5 x 10 17

23. The slope of graph between frequency of incident light and stopping potential
for a given surface will be

h
a) h b) eh c) d) e
e
24. An electron of mass m when accelerated through a potential difference V has de
Broglie wavelength λ . The de Broglie wave length associated with a proton of
mass M accelerated through the same potential difference will be

m λm m2 λM
a) λ b) c) λ d)
M M M m

25. Dual Nature of radiation is shown by

a) Diffraction and reflection

b) Photoelectric effect and diffraction
c) Photoelectric effect alone
d) Refraction and diffraction

3
26. Three fourth of the active material decays in a radioactive sample in sec. The
4
half life of the sample is

1 3 3
a) sec b) 1 sec c) sec d) sec
2 8 4

27. If a proton and antiproton come close to each other and annihilate, energy
released will be

a) 1.5 x 10 −10 J b) 3 x 10 −10 J c) 4.4 x 10 −10 J d) None of these

28. In forward biasing of junction diode, the width of depletion layer

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of these

29. For a common base amplifier, the resistance gain and voltage gain are
respectively 3600 and 2700. The current gain will be

a) 1.69 b) 0.63 c) 1.33 d) 0.75

30. Negative feedback

a) Increases stability
b) Decreases stability
c) Produces rectification
d) None of these
PART 3 – CHEMISTRY
1. De – Broglie relationship has no significance for

a) an electron b) a proton
c) a neutron d) an iron ball

2. The effective nuclear charge is equal to -------------

a) Z - S b) Z + S
c) A - Z d) Z + A

3. Which among the following has the garlic taste?

a) P2O3 b) H3PO4
c) PCl3 d) H3PO3

4. Which is pink in color?

a)Ti3+ b) Co2+
c)Cu2+ d) Ni2+

5. 4 Zn + 10 HNO3 (dil.) → 4 Zn (NO3)2 + A + 5 H2O, A is

a) NO2 b) N2O
c) NH4 NO3 d) all of these.

6. Which element in Lanthanides is radioactive

a) Cerium b) Holmium
c) Promethum d) Lutetium

7. The compound formed by the action of excess of NH3 on CuSO4 is

a) a simple salt b) a double salt

c) a complex salt d) an organic salt

8. The t1/2 of 6C14 is

a) 5700 sec b) 5700 minutes

c) 5700 days d) 5700 years

9. The charge carriers in p-type semi conductors are

a) electrons b) protons
c) neutrons d) positive holes

10. The relationship between the standard free energy change and
equilibrium constant is

a) Δ G°r = - Rln KP b) Δ G°r = RTln KP

c) Δ G°r = -2.303 RT log KP d) Δ G°r = 2.303 R log KP
11. In an equilibrium reaction, if Δng is positive then

a) kc = kp b) kc < kp
c) kc > kp d) kc = 0

12. Which one of the following is a second order reaction

a) 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
b) Dissociation of HI on the surface of gold
c) Dissociation of H2 O2 in solution
d) K2 S2 O8 + 2KI → 2K2 SO4 + I2

13. The diameter of the colloidal particle ranges from

a) 1 A° to 10 A° b) 10 A° to 200 A°
c) 10 A° to 2000 A° d) 100 A° to 2000 A°

14. The reaction that takes place at the anode during electrolysis is

a) Reduction b) oxidation
c) Hydrolysis d) redox reaction

15. The activation energy for the conversion of s – cis to s – trans

of 1,3 – butadiene is

a) 12 k cals b) 3 k cals
c)15 k cals d) 9 k cals

16. When acetaldehyde is treated with CH3 Mg Br and hydrolysed,

the final product obtained is

a) n – propyl alcohol b) Iso propyl alcohol

c) Iso butyl alcohol d) I - propanol

17. Lucas reagent is a mixture of

a) conc.HCl + hydrated ZnCl2 b) conc.HCl + anhydrous ZnCl2

c) conc.HNO3 + anhydrous ZnCl2 d) conc.HNO3 + anhydrous ZnCl2

18. Which of the following is treated to get anisole?

a) C6 H5 ONa + CH3 OH b) C6 H5 OH + CH3 Cl

c) C6 H5 ONa + CH3 I d) C6 H5 OH + CH3 OH

19. When acetaldehyde is treated with Fehling’s solution, it gives red precipitate of

a) Cu b) CuO
c) Cu2 O d) Cu + Cu2 O

20. In Knoevenagal reaction for the preparation of Cinnamic acid, the pyridine acts as

a) acidic catalyst b) basic catalyst

c) neutral substance d) reducing agent
21. Acetic acid is less acidic than formic acid because of the

a) inductive effect of – CH3 groups

b) Steric effect of CH3 group
c) electron attracting nature of CH3 group
d) resonance effect of CH3 group

22. Tertiary amine is less basic than secondary amine because of

a) inductive effect b) peroxide effect

c) steric effect d) resonance effect

23. The IUPAC name of glucose is

a) 1,2,3,4,5 – pentahydroxy hexanal

b) 1,3,4,5,6 – pentahydroxy - 2 - hexanal
c) 2,3,4,5,6 – pentahydroxy hexanal
d) 1,2,3,4,5 – pentahydroxy hexanone

24. Hot drink cups are made up of

a) polyethene b) polystyrene
c) polyterephithalate d) polyacrylonitrile

25. Which of the following is most abundant in earth,s crust?

a) C b) Si c) Ge d) Sn

26. In a first order reaction, the plot of log(a – x) against time ‘t’ gives

a) a straight line with positive slope b) a straight line with negative slope
b) a straight line passing through origin d) a curve.

27. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. Then its rate constant

a) 6.93 x 102 min -1 b) 0.693 x 10-2 min -1

c) 6.932 x 10-2 min -1 d) 69.3 x 10-1 min -1

28. Which is soluble in H2O?

a) Phenol b) Alkenes
c) Alcohols d) Alkanes

29. In the reduction of acetaldehyde using LiAlH4 the hydride ion acts as

a) electrophile b) nucleophile
c) both a) & b) d) a free radical

30. The acid that cannot be prepared by Grignard reagent

a) acetic acid b) formic acid

c) butyric acid d) benzoic acid
 PART 4 – MATHEMATICS

1. Let A and B have 3 and 6 elements respectively what can be the minimum number of
elements in A U B. The answer is
a) 3 b)6 c)9 d)1

2. If f : R → R is given by f ( x ) = x 3 + 3, then f −1 ( x ) is equal to

1 1 1
a) x 3
−3 b) x 3
+3 c) ( x − 3) d) ( x − 3) 3

3. Let R be a relation defined in the set of real numbers by aRb ⇒ 1 + ab > 0 . Then R is
a) Equivalence relation b) Transitive c) Symmetric d)Anti-Symmetric

4. If ( 3 + i)10 = a+ib, then a and b are respectively

a) 128 and 128 3 b)64 and -64 3

c)512 and -512 3 d)8 and -8 3

5. If the complex numbers Z1 = a + i, Z2 = 1 + ib, Z3 = 0 form an equilateral triangle (a, b are real
numbers between 0 and 1) then

3
a) a = 3 −1 , b = b) a = 2 − 3 , b = 2 − 3
2
1 3
c) a = ,b= d) a = 2 + 3 , b = 2 − 3
2 4

6. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and Z is a complex number satisfying the equvation Z n
= (1+Z) n then

a) Re Z > 0 b) Re Z = 0 c) Re (Z) = Im (Z) d) Re (Z) < 0

7. If A,B,C are invertible matrics, then (ABC)-1 equal to

a) A-1B-1C-1 b)B-1C-1A-1 c) C-1A-1B-1 d) C-1B-1A-1

[ ]
8. If A = aij is a square matrices of order n × n and K is a scalar, the KA =

a) K n A b) K A c) K n −1 A d) K n − 2 A

9. If p + q + r = 0 = a + b + c , then the value of the determinant

pa qb rc
qc ra pb is
rb pc qa
a) 0 b) pa+qb+rc c) 1 d) -1
10. The system of equations k x +y+z = 1, x +ky+z = k and x +y+kz = k 2 has no solution if k equals

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) -2

11. If the system of equation x +ay+az = 0 ; bx+y+bz = 0 ; and cx+cy+z = 0 where a,b and c are non-
zero and non-unity, has a non-trivial solution, then the value of

a b c
+ + is
1− a 1− b 1− c

abc
a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d)
a + b2 + c2
2

12. If a ≠ b ≠ c , then the value of x satisfying the equvation

0 x−a a −b
x+b 0 x−c = 0 is
x+b x+c 0
a) a b) b c) c d) 0

13. The condition that one root of the equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 may be double of the other is

a) b 2 = 9ac b) 2b 2 = 9ac c) 2b 2 = ac d) b 2 = ac

14. If find Sinα and Cosα are roots of the equation px 2 + qx + r = 0 , then

b) ( p + r ) = q 2 −r 2
2
a) p 2 − q 2 + 2 pr = 0

d) ( p − r ) = q 2 + r 2
2
c) p 2 + q 2 − 2 pr = 0

15. If x + 1 is a factor of x 4 + ( p − 3) x 3 − (3 p − 5) x 2 + (2 p − 9) x + 6, then the value of p is

a) -4 b) 0 c) 4 d) 2

16. If eight persons are to address a meeting, then the number of ways in which a special speaker is
to speak before another specified speaker is

a) 2520 b) 40320 c)8! d) 20160

17. The number of five digit numbers which are divible by 4 that can be formed from the digits
0,1,2,3,4 is

a) 125 b) 30 c) 40 d) 25

18. If nC r −1 = 36, nC r = 84 and nC r +1 = 126, then

a) r = 3, n = 9 b) n = 8, r = 4 c) n = 7, r = 5 d) r = 6, n = 16
19. Let Pm stand for m Pm . Then 1 + 1.P1 +2. P2 + 3.P3 +…….. n.Pn is equal to

a) (n-1)! b)n! c) (n+1)! d) (n+2)!

20. The number of 10 digit numbers that can be written by using the digits 1 and 2 is

a) 10C1 + 9C 2 b) 210 c) 10 C 2 d) 10!

21. The Sum of digits in the unit’s place of all the numbers formed with the help of 3,4,5,6 taken all at
a time is

a) 432 b)36 c) 18 d) 108

22. If the coefficients of second, third and fourth terms in the expansion of (1 + x) n are in A.P, then the
value of n is

a) 2 b) 7 c) 6 d) 8

10
23. The Sum of the series ∑ 20
r =0
C
r is

1 1
a) 2 20 b) 2 19 c) 219+ 20 C10 d) 219 − 20 C10
2 2

24. If A and B are coefficient of x n in the expansions of (1 + x) 2 n and (1 + x) 2 n −1 respectively, then

a) A = B b) A – B = 0 c) 2A = B d) A = 2B

1 1 1
25. If , , are in A.P, then
b+c c+a a+b

a) a,b,c are in A.P b) a 2 , b 2 , c 2 are in A.P

1 11 1 1 1
c) , , are in A.P c) , , are in A.P
a b c a+b b+c c+a

b+a b+c
26. If a,b,c are in H.P, then the value of + is
b−a b−c

a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2

x2 x4
27. The coefficient of x n in the expansion of (1 + + + ....) 2 when n is odd is
2! 4!

2n 2 2n (−1) n 2 n
a) b) c) 0 d)
n! (2n)! n!
 dy
28. If 1 − x 2 + 1 − y 2 = a ( x − y ) , then equals
dx

1− y2 1− x2 1
a) (1 − x 2 ) (1 − y 2 ) b) c) d)
1− x2 1− y2 (1 − x 2 ) (1 − y 2 )

dy
29. If x y = e x − y , then is equal to
dx

a) (1 + log x) −1 b) (1 + log x) −2 c) log x.(1 + log x) −2 d) 1+ log x

dy
30. If ax 2 + 2hxy + by 2 = 1 , then equals
dx

h 2 + ab h 2 − ab
a) b)
(hx + by ) 2 (hx + by ) 2

h 2 + ab h 2 − ab
c) d)
(hx + by ) 3 (hx + by ) 3

31. Let y = x 2 e − x , then the interval in which ‘y’ increases with respect to x is

a) (−∞, ∞) b) (-2,0) c) (2, ∞) d) (0,2)

32. A differentiable function f (x) has a relative minimum at x = 0, then the function
y = f ( x) + ax + b has a relative minimum at x = 0 for

a) all a and all b b) all b if a = 0 c) all b > 0 d) all a > 0

33. Let a,b be the two distinct roots of a polynomial f (x ) . Then there exists atleast one root lying
between a and b of the polynomial

a) f (x) b) f 1 ( x) c) f 11 ( x) d) none of these

(sin x )
34. ∫ Cos 3 x e log dx is equal to

Sin 4 x Cos 4 x
a) − +c b) − +c
4 4

Sin 4 x
c) +c d) none of these
4
1
35. The value of ∫ x x dx is
−1
a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) none of these
36. The area bounded by the curve y = x 2 , y = [x + 1], x ≤ 1 and the y-axis is

1 2 7
a) b) c)1 d)
3 3 3

dy x 2
37. The general solution of a differential equation = is
dx y 2
a) x 3 − y 3 = C b) x 3 + y 3 = C c) x 2 + y 2 = C d) x 2 − y 2 = C

38. The order of the differential equation whose solution is y = aCosx + bSinx + ce − x is

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4

7 1
39. The equation of a curve passing through (2, ) and having gradient 1 − 2 at ( x, y ) is
2 x
a) y = x + x + 1 b) xy = x + x + 1
2 2
c) xy = x + 1 d) none of these

40. The incentre of a triangle whose vertices are (-36,7),(20,7) and (0,-8) is
1
a) (0,-1) b) (-1,0) c) ( ,1) d) none of these
2

41. Three vertices of a rhombus taken in order are (2,-1), (3,4) and (-2,3) then the fourth vertex is
a) (-3,-2) b) (3,2) c) (2,3) d)(1,2)

42. The angle between two lines represented by 2 x 2 + 5 xy + 3 y 2 + 7 y + 4 = 0 is tan −1 m , then m is

equal to

1 7
a) b) 1 c) d) 7
5 5

43. The centre of a circle passing through (0,0), (a,0) and (0,b) is
a b a b
a) (a,b) b) ( , ) c) (− , − ) d) (−a,−b)
2 2 2 2

44. The length of the chord cut off by y = 2 x + 1 from the circle x 2 + y 2 = 2 is

5 6 6 5
a) b) c) d)
6 5 5 6
45. The slope of the tangent at the point (h,h) of the circle x 2 + y 2 = a 2 is

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) none of these

46. If the parabola y 2 = 4ax passes through (3,2) then the length of its latus rectum is
2 4 1
a) b) c) d) 4
3 3 3
 x2 y2
47. The eccentricity of an ellipse 2 + 2 =1 whose lactus-rectum is half of its major axis is
a b
1 2 3
a) b) c) d) none of these
2 3 2
x y x y 1
48. The focus of point of intersection of the straight lines + = λ and − = ( λ is a variable) is
a b a b λ
a) Circle b) Parabola c) Ellipse d) Hyperpola

49. If the vectors a + λ b + 3c , − 2a + 3b − 4c and a − 3b + 5c are co-planer, then the value of λ is

a) 2 b) -1 c) 1 d) -2

50. If a + b = a − b , then
a) a is parallel to b b) a is perpendicular b

c) a = b d) none of these

51. If a, b, c are three vectors then (b × c) × a equals

a) (a . b) c − (b . c) a b) (a . b) c − (a . c) b

c) (b . a ) c − (c . a ) b d) none of these
52. The Geometric mean of the series 1,2,4,8,16…… 2 is
n

1 n
n+
a) 2 2
b) 2 n+1 c) 2 2 d) 2 n

53. In a moderately shewed distribution the values of mean and median are 5 and 6 respectively. The
value of mode in such a situation is approximately equal to

a) 8 b) 11 c) 16 d) none of these

54. The mean of the distribution in which the values of x are 1,2,3……..n, the frequency of each being
unity is

n n +1 n −1
a) b) c) d) none of these
2 2 2

55. 3 identical dice are rolled. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is

1 1 1 3
a) b) c) d)
6 36 18 28
56. A pack of playing cards was found to contain only 51 cards. If the first 13 cards which are
examined are all red, then the probability that the missing cards is black is

1 2 1 1
a) b) c) d)
3 3 2 5

57. If 10% bolts produced by a machine are defective then the probability that out of a sample selected
at random of 10 bolts, not more than one bolt will be defective is

a) 0.736 b) 0.632 c) 0.533 d) none of these

Cos A Cos B Cos C

58. In a triangle ABC, if = = and the side a = 2 then area of the triangle is
a b c
3
a) 1 b) 2 c) d) 3
2

59. The Perimeter of a triangle ABC is 6 times the arithmetic mean of sines of its angles. If the side ‘a’
is 1, then the angle A is

π π π
a) b) c) d) π
6 3 2

⎛C ⎞ ⎛ A ⎞ 3b
60. If in a triangle a Cos 2 ⎜⎜ ⎟ + cCos 2 ⎜⎜ ⎟ = then the sides of the triangle are in
⎝2⎠ ⎝2⎠ 2
a) A.P b) G.P c) H.P d) none of these

PART 5 – BIOLOGY

1. Glucose is an
a) Oligosaccharide
b) Aldohexose
c) Aldopentose
d) Ketohexose
2. Amylopectin is
a) A branched polymer of glucose
b) A linear polymer of glucose
c) One of mucopohy saccharides
d) An animal starch
3. Hydrolysis of a triglyceride is also known as:
a) Saponification
b) Hydrogenation
c) Esterification
d) Dehyetration
4. Cholesterol is a:
a) β – Globulin
b) Normal constituent of Blood and other tissues
c) Mucopolusaccharide
 d) Phospholipids
5. The most abundant protein in the human body
a) Collagen
b) Keratin
c) Myosin
d) Albumin
6. The word “Aliment “ is related with
a) Elementary
b) Water
c) Food
d) None
7. It is not a part of the digestive system.
a) Buccopharynx
b) Nasopharynx
c) Teeth
d) None
8. The formation of HCL takes place in
a) Oxyntic cells
b) Stomach
c) Gastric
d) Heart
9.The bile juice does not contain a
a) Bile pigment
b) Bile salt
c) Digestive enzyme
d) Saliva
10. The structural and functional unit of a nerve is
a) a nephron
b) amine
c) neuron
d) axon
11. The axon hillock gives rise to
a) Dendrite
b) Axon
c) Both
d) Schwann cells
12. Cranial nerves are functionally
a) Mortor
b) Sensory
c) Mortor and Sensory
d) Locomotive
13. The Spinal cord is part of the
a) Autonomic division
b) Peripheral somatic
c) Central somatic
d) Sympathetic
14. The functional unit of the kidney is
a) Neuron
b) Nephron
c) Axon
d) Bone
15. Which part of the brain is called the Master of Endocrine orchestra.
a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Cerebrum
d) Basal ganglion
16. The myofibrils are:
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Actin and Myosin
d) C-protein
17. The total number of chrosomes present in a somatic cell
a) 46
b) 44
c) 2
d) 8
18. The chromosomal sex of a body depends upon
a) Autosomes
b) Sex chromosomes
c) Both
d) None
19. On which plant Mendel had carried out his investigations:
a) Garden-pea
b) Wild pea
c) Horse gram
d) Pigeon pea
20. Green pod homozygous pea plant crossed with yellow pod plant the F1 generation.is
a) Green
b) Yellow
c) Grey
d) Ebony
21. Mendelian monohybrid Phenotypic ratio is:-
a) 1:2:1
b) 2:3:1
c) 3:9:3:1
d) 4:9:3:4
22. ABO Blood group is an example of-
a) Epitasis
b) Multiple alleles
c) Pleiotropism
d) Complementary genes
23. How the sex of offspring is determined in human:
a) Sex chromosome of mother
b) Size of ovum
c) Size of sperm
d) Sex chromosome of father
24. An important green house gas causing global warming.
a) Co
b) Co2
c) So2
d) No2.
25. Main source of atmospheric Nitrogen is
 a) Photo synthesis by plants
b) Cigarette smoking
c) Burning of fossil fuels
d) Microorganisms of the soil
26. Largest pollutant of waters is
a) Radioactive sulostances
b) Agricultural wastes.
c) Industrial effluents
d) Sewage
27. Metallic pollutants whose poisoning causes paralysis, loss of vision and deafness
a) Lead
b) Cadmium
c) Mercury
d) Nickel
28. Oil eating bacteria used to clean up oilspills
a) Salmonella
b) Shigella dysenterial
c) E.coli
d) Pseudomonas putida
29. Bio-indicators of marine water pollution
a) Corals
b) Sponges
c) Echinoderms
d) Mollusca.
30. Disposal of hospital wastes can be done by
a) Incinerators
b) Electrical heaters
c) Electrical burners
d) Incubators
31. Which of the following ovules is found in 82% of angiospermic families?
a) Anatropous
b) Orthotropous
c) Amphitropous
d) Circinotropous
32. Angiospermic female gametophyte is also known as
a) Embryo
b) Ovule
c) Ovary
d) Embryo sac
33. The pesticide pollutants, which are highly toxic and recalcitrant in nature are
a) Organophosphates
b) Organochlorides
c) Carbomates
d) Synthetic pyrethroids

34. What is a ‘vector’ in gene cloning?

a) An organism which transmits a parasite from one host to another
b) A foreign DNA which is attached to a plasmid
c) A transposable element moving from region to region of DNA
d) A replicon, like plasmid or phage DNA to which a gene(target DNA) is attached.
35. DNA is a molecule
a) Composed of two antiparallel chains of nucleotides
b) Which is helically coiled
c) Which is the hereditary material in all organisms, except certain viruses
d) Which is attributable with all the above features
36. The pairing bases of DNA
a) Adenine and uracil
b) guanine and thymine
c) guanine and cytosine
d) cytosine and thymine
37. The combined DNA from different organisms is known as
a) Passenger DNA
b) Vector DNA
c) Target DNA
d) Chimaeric DNA
38. The DNA that is useful for DNA-fingerprint investigation is
a) the DNA, coding for polypeptides
b) Hyper variable ‘tandem repeats’ region
c) nucleolar organizer region
d) centromeric region of DNA
39. Cell theory was proposed by
a) Schleiden and Schwan
b) Watson and Crick
c) Darwin and Wallace
d) Mendel and Morgan
40. Mitosis actually means
a) Division of nucleus only
b) Division of cytoplasm only
c) Both nuclear and cytoplasmic division
d) Reduction in number of chromosomes
41. DNA duplication occurs in
a) Only mitosis
b) Only meiosis
c) Both mitosis and meiosis
d) Only end mitosis
42. Chromosomes having equal arms are known are
a) Metacentric
b) Acentric
c) Eurocentric
d) Polycentric
43. Mitochondria is absent in
a) Green Algae
b) Blue green algae
c) RBC of mammals
d) WBC of mammals
44. Evolution is regarded as a
a) Fact
b) Theory
c) Principle
d) Hypothesis
45. Mendal’s law was rediscovered by
 a) H. de Vries
b) Tschermak
c) T.H. Morgan
d) Correns
46. A hybrid F - 1 generation crossed back by a recessive parent, it is called as
a) Back cross
b) Test cross
c) Dihybrid cross
d) None of the above
47. The sugar present in DNA is
a) Pentose
b) Hexose
c) Heptulsoe
d) Xylulose
48. Crossing over occurs in
a) Leptotene
b) Zygotene pachytene
c) Diplotene Diakinesis
d) Anaphase
49. Photolysis of water means the
a) Splitting of water by light
b) Synthesis of ATP
c) Evolution of O2
d) Evolution of hydrogen on the splitting of H2o
50. Which one is limiting factor for photosynthesis
a) Oxygen
b) Carbondioxide
c) Chlorophy and light
d) b)and c) both factors
51. Leaves appear green because
a) They absorb green light
b) Reflect green light
c) Both absorb and reflect green light
d) None of the above
52. Rate of photosynthesis in scarcity of water will
a) Decrease invariably
b) Increase
c) May increase or decrease depending on other factors
d) Is not affected at all
53. Kreb cycle results in the synthesis of
a) Lactic acid
b) Pyruvic acid
c) Glucose and ATP
d) Fumaric acid
54. ATP synthesis occurs on the
a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
 b) Inner membrane of mitochondria
c) Matrix
d) None of the above
55. The end product of E.M.P. pathway is always
a) Kreb’s cycle
b) Anaerobic respiration
c) Glycolysis
d) Fermentation
56. Auxin in smaller amount inhibit the growth of
a) Stem
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
57. Flowering in short day is promoted by
a) Auxins
b) Gibbrellins
c) Cytokinins
d) Ethylene
58. Maximum amount of growth in roots occurs in
a) The root tap region
b) Presence of light
c) The region behind the apex
d) Darkness

59. Dormancy is broken by

a) Auxins
b) Giberellins
c) Ethylene
d) All the above
60. Synthesis of ATP In mitochondria requires
a) Oxygen
b) NADP
c) FMN
d) Pyruvic acid
 SRMEEE 2008
ANSWER KEYS FOR MODEL QUESTIONS

PART 1 – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND REASONING

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE REASONING

1 A 1 A
2 A 2 C
3 A 3 C
4 B 4 B
5 C 5 D
6 C 6 B
7 B 7 B
8 C 8 D
9 A 9 A
10 C 10 A
11 C 11 D
12 A 12 D
13 C 13 A
14 D 14 D
15 C 15 B

PART 2 – PHYSICS

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15.
(b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28.
(a) 29. (d) 30. (a)

PART 3 – CHEMISTRY

1) d 2) a 3) d 4) b 5)b 6) c 7) c 8) d 9) c 10) c
11) b 12) d 13) c 14) b 15) d 16) b 17) b 18) c 19) c 20) b
21) a 22) c 23) c 24) b 25) b 26) b 27) c 28) c 29) b 30) b

PART 4 – MATHEMATICS

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5 (b) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9(a) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14.(a) 15. (c) 16.(d)
17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23.(c) 24. (d) 25.(b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44.
(b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (a)
58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a)
PART 5 – BIOLOGY

Q.NO ANSWER Q.NO. ANSWER

NO. NO.
1. 2 31 1
2. 1 32 4
3. 1 33 2
4. 2 34 4
5. 1 35 4
6. 3 36 3
7. 2 37 4
8. 3 38 2
9. 3 39 1
10. 3 40 3
11. 2 41 3
12. 3 42 1
13. 3 43 2
14. 2 44 1
15. 2 45 3
16. 3 46 2
17. 1 47 1
18. 2 48 2
19. 1 49 1
20. 1 50 4
21. 2 51 2
22. 2 52 1
23. 4 53 4
24. 2 54 2
25. 4 55 2
26. 4 56 1
27. 3 57 3
28. 4 58 4
29. 2 59 2
30. 1 60 1