You are on page 1of 8

Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination

University of South Australia

DIVISION OF
HEALTH SCIENCES

SCHOOL OF PHARMACY AND MEDICAL SCIENCES

Subject Catalogue
MEDI 3003
Area: Number:

MICROBIOLOGY 300

Examination Day: Thursday Examination Date: 3.8.06

Examination Time: 1530 Length of Exam: 2.5 HOURS

Instructions to Candidates

1. The examination consists of 20 multiple choice questions in Section A and


short answer/essay type questions in section B.

2. Answer Section A on the separate answer sheet attached to the back of this
paper. You may detach the answer sheet and pass it up inside the
answer booklet with your written answers.

For the multiple choice questions, there is only one correct answer and
marks are not deducted for incorrect answers.
30 minutes has been allocated for this section, hence each question is
worth 1.5 marks.

3. Section B should be answered in the answer booklet. Start each question


on a new page. There may be internal choice within each question.

4. ALL question papers, answer sheets and answer booklets must be handed
up at the end of the examination.
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (30 MINUTES)

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be differentiated from members of the


Enterobacteriaceae because

(a) P. aeruginosa is nitrate reductase negative


(b) Enterobacteriaceae are nitrate reductase negative
(c) P. aeruginosa is oxidase positive
(d) Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive
(e) P. aeruginosa is fermentative with respect to lactose

2. What medium would you use to grow Neisseria gonorrhoeae from a urethral
swab?

(a) Elek’s plates


(b) tellurite blood agar
(c) Bordet-Gengou plates
(d) chocolate agar
(e) Thayer-Martin agar

3. Salmonella spp. would produce black colonies on:

(a) MacConkey CM7 agar


(b) MacConkey CM115 agar
(c) XLD agar
(d) Urea, motility, indole agar
(e) CIN agar

4. A selective and differential medium for the growth and identification of


Staphylococcus aureus would be

(a) MacConkey CM7 agar


(b) mannitol salt agar
(c) methicillin mannitol salt agar
(d) methicillin blood agar
(e) DNA agar

5. Streptococcus pneumoniae would

(a) not grow on MacConkey agar


(b) not be soluble in bile salts
(c) grow on MacConkey agar
(d) be resistant to optochin
(e) be resistant to bacitracin
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

6. Yersinia enterocolitica is:

(a) urease positive and motile


(b) H2S positive and a lactose fermenter
(c) urease negative and motile
(d) urease positive and non-motile
(e) H2S negative and a lactose fermenter

7. E. coli is normally:

(a) a lactose non-fermenter


(b) non motile
(c) indole positive
(d) H2S positive
(e) urease positive

8. Which of the following miscellaneous gram negative bacilli is most associated


with contamination of hospital fluids including disinfectants?

(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa


(b) Stenotrophomonas multophilia
(c) Pseudomonas fluorescens
(d) Aeromonas hydrophila
(e) Burkholderia cepacia

9. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be distinguished from other species of


miscellaneous gram negative bacilli by

(a) growth anaerobically


(b) beta haemolysis
(c) growth on MacConkey agar
(d) no growth at 42oC
(e) blue/green pigmented colonies

10. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is now routinely used to diagnose

(a) Chlamydial genital infections


(b) Genital warts
(c) Syphilis
(d) Gonorrhoea
(e) All sexually transmitted diseases
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

11. Sensitivity to bacitracin is a useful test to identify

(a) Staphylococcus epidermidis


(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(e) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

12. A negative catalase test reaction is useful in differentiating

(a) Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium diphtheriae


(b) Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Salmonella from E. coli
(e) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus aureus

13. Adding blood to sensitivity test agar is not recommended because

(a) addition of blood alters the pH


(b) additives in the medium affect the density of the agar
(c) antibiotics can bind non specifically to protein in blood
(d) the blood may contain antimicrobial substances
(e) all of the above

14. The MIC of an antibiotic

(a) is the maximum effective concentration you can give to a patient


(b) is the minimum concentration which will inhibit the growth of the
test organism
(c) can be determined from a Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test
(d) is the minimum effective concentration you can give a patient
(e) can only be performed via a broth dilution technique

15. Which of the following organisms is commonly associated with food poisoning
from paté?

(a) Bacillus cereus


(b) Clostridium perfringens
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Listeria monocytogenes
(e) human calicivirus
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

16. Which of the following organisms would grow on potassium tellurite agar?

(a) Clostridium perfringens


(b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(c) Listeria monocytogenes
(d) Propionibacterium acnes
(e) Bacillus cereus

17. The causative agent of scrub typhus is

(a) Rickettsia typhi


(b) Rickettsia australis
(c) Orientia tsutsugamushi
(d) Rickettsia prowazekii
(e) Coxiella burnettii

18. Which of the following antibiotics (choose one only) would be most suitable for
the treatment of an infection caused by a β-lactamase producing Staphylococcus
aureus?

(a) penicillin
(b) ampicillin
(c) vancomycin
(d) augmentin
(e) gentamicin

19. Which of the following organisms would be suitable as positive and negative
controls respectively, for the oxidase test?

(a) E. coli and P. aeruginosa


(b) P. aeruginosa and E. coli
(c) E. coli and Proteus mirabilis
(d) P. aeruginosa and Aeromonas hydrophila
(e) Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

20. Super antigen toxins commonly act by

(a) inserting a pore into host cell membranes


(b) ADP-ribosylating G proteins
(c) non-specifically stimulating T-cells
(d) lysing red blood cells
(e) causing diarrhea
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

SECTION B : SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS and ESSAY

1. Briefly discuss six (6) of the following:

(a) Pertussis toxin


(b) Virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(c) Infections associated with Streptococcus pyogenes
(d) Laboratory diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori infection
(e) Culture of obligate anaerobes
(f) Community acquired MRSA
(g) Cholera
(h) Microbiology of gas gangrene

5 marks each

2. A 23 year old male presents to the emergency section of his local hospital
with a 2 day history of vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain. What are the
two most likely bacterial causes of his symptoms? Outline procedures to
identify each of these causes. What are the public health implications of these
diseases?

30 marks

3. (a) What diagnostic criteria are used to assess a urine specimen for the
presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
4 marks
(b) Outline methods for quantifying the numbers of bacteria in a urine
specimen and suggest a method suitable for a routine diagnostic laboratory.

6 marks
(c) List five organisms which are common causes of UTI.
5 marks
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

4. (a) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of electron microscopy for


viral diagnosis.
8 marks
(b) In relation to an infectious disease, define incidence and prevalence.
2 marks

5. (a) Discuss the pathogenesis and diagnosis of pneumonia caused by


Streptococcus pneumoniae. How could this disease be prevented?

10 marks

(b) Name two common causes of community acquired atypical bacterial


pneumonia and outline methods by which you would diagnose infections
caused by these organisms.

10 marks

6. Outline the difficulties encountered in the isolation and identification of


Mycobacterium spp. How are molecular techniques overcoming these
problems?

5 marks

7. Compare and contrast acute versus chronic viral infection. Give one (1)
example for each category.
5 marks

8. Viruses with genomic RNA can be classified into positive or negative stranded
RNA. Describe these two terms and name one (1) virus for each.

5 marks
Study Period 2, 2006 Deferred Examination
University of South Australia

MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEET

MICROBIOLOGY 300

NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

ID NUMBER………………………………………………………………………………..

1. A B C D E 11. A B C D E

2. A B C D E 12. A B C D E

3. A B C D E 13. A B C D E

4. A B C D E 14. A B C D E

5. A B C D E 15. A B C D E

6. A B C D E 16. A B C D E

7. A B C D E 17. A B C D E

8. A B C D E 18. A B C D E

9. A B C D E 19. A B C D E

10. A B C D E 20. A B C D E

You might also like