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Ans.-(D)
UPSC 2004 Jan 18th paper with answers.
Corrections / omissions mail to 5. In subcapitate fracture of neck femur, the
contribute@aippg.com (CMS 2004 position of the limb is
Exam for central govt. recruitments
in INDIA) (a) Abduction
(b) External rotation
www.aippg.com/pg for UNIFIED (c) Flexion and internal rotation
DOWNLOAD SYSTEM. (d) Adduction
Answers compiled and contributed with help Ans.- (B)
from Dr V. Mathur. To contribute papers/
answers mail contribute@aippg.com 6. Consider the following statements
1. A young woman develops left sided Regarding hip dislocation:
pneumothorax following blunt injury to 1.Hip dislocation occurs in high velocity
Chest. The most appropriate site to injuries.
Insert chest tube would be 2.Posterior dislocation is common.
3.Prompt reduction is required.
(a) 2nd intercostal space in mid 4.Avascular necrosis is infrequent.
clavicular line Which of these statement are correct?
(b) 2nd intercostal space in anterior (a) 1 and 4
axillary line. (b) 2 and 3
(c) 5th intercostal space anterior axillary (c) 1,2 and 3
line (d) 1,3 and 4
(d) 5th intercostal space in posterior Ans.- (C)
axillary line
Ans.- [B] 7. Atlanto-axial subluxation is commonly
encountered in the following conditions
2. A 24 year old man is brought to the EXCEPT
casualty after fall from a height. His (a) Ankylosing spondylits
breathing is laboured and he is cyanotic. (b) Gout
No breath sounds can be heard and right (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
lung field is resonant. The initial (d) Retropharyngeal abscess
management should include
(a) cricothyroidotomy Ans.- (C)
(b) endor\traheal intubation
(c) Obtaining X-ray chest 9. In which of the following conditions is
(d) Tube thoracostomy paradoxical respiratin observed ?
Ans.- (D) (a) Stove-in chest
(b) Flail chest
3. In a motor vehicle accident the seat belt (c) Pneumothorax
leads to following EXPECTED (d) Haemopneumothorax
(a)Reduced incidence of severe thoracic Ans.- (B)
injury
(b) Occurrence of small intestine and 10. Agent of choice for intravesical therapy for
mesenteric injury carcinoma in Situ of bladder cancer following
(c) Increased severity of decelerating endoscpic treatment is
head injury (a) BCG
Trauma to major intra abdominal (b) Mitomycin
vessels (c) Adriamycin
(d) Thiotepa

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Ans.- (A) (b) antrochoanal polyp
(c) Rhinosporidiosis
11. During surgical exploration for hydated cyst (d) Angiofibroma
of the liver , any of the following agents canbe Ans.- (D)
used as scolicidal agent EXCEPT
(a) hypertonic sodium chloride 17. The most common site of carcinoma of
(b) Formalin tongue is
(c) cetrimide
(d) povidone Iodine (a) Posterior one -third
Ans.- (A) (b) Dorsum of anterior two-third
(c) Venral surfce ofanterior two-third
12. Radical nephrectomy for renal cell carci- (d) Lateral border of anterior two-third
noma does NOT involve in the excision of Ans.- (D)
(a) kidney with Gerota's fascia
(b) Pre and Para aortic lymph nodes
(c) Adrenal gland 18.Pathological anatomy of Axonotmesis does
(d) Complete ureter with a cuff of urinary NOT include
bladder
Ans.- (C) (a) Disruption of myelin sheath
(b) Disruptin of perineurium and epineurium
13 The thickness of cornea is measured by (c) Wallerian degeneration
using (d) Axonal regeneration and complete
(a) Schiotz tonometer recovery
(b) Keratometer Ans.- (D)
(c) Pachymeter
(d) Aesthesiometer 19. Laryngeal spasm induced during intubation
Ans.- (C) can be prevented by the following drugs
EXCEPT
14 Most ideal drug in open angleglacoma
with myopia is (a) Fentanyl
(a) 2% pilocarpine (b) Local anaesthetic spray
(b) 10% phenylephrine (c) Rofecoxib
(c) 0.5 % Timolol (d) Dilitiazem
(d) Atropine Ans.- (C)
Ans.- (C)
20. Capnography basically monitors
(a) Central venous pressure
15 Post cricoid carcinoma of the oesophagus (b) Blood pressure during anaeshesia
are best treated by (c) Concentration of exhaled CO2
(a) radiotherapy (d) Concentration of inhaled O2
(b) total oesophagectomy Ans.- (C)
(c) pharyngolaryngectomy with gastric
transposition 21. A newborn boy had a soft, fluctuant,
(d) intubation through growth lobulated mass on the posterior part of the neck ,
Ans.- (C) extending into axilla. The clinical diagnosis is
(a) Spring water cyst
16 . An 18 year old boy presents with (b) Myelocele
apistaxis and unitateral nasal mass. The most (c) Cystic Hygroma
likely diagonosis is (d) Bronchial cyst
(a) Rhinoscleroma Ans.- (C)

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Ans.- (A)
22. A new born baby is brought to hospital with
coplaint of persistent bilious vomitings soon Directions :
after the birth . The baby has passed meconium.
The abdomen shows minimal distension and The following 5 (five ) items consist of two
there is no palpable lump. The most probable statements , one labelled as the 'Asertion (A)
diagnosis is ' and the other labelled as 'Reason (R)' . You
(a) Esophagel asresia are to examine these two statements
(b) infantile pyloric stenosis carefully and select the correct answers to
(c) duodenal atresia these items using the codes given below :
(d) Ileal atresia
Ans.- (C) Codes :
23 Match list i with list II and select the (a) Both A and R are individually true and R
correct answer using the codes given below is the correct explanation of A
the Lists : (b) Both a and R are individually true but R
List I List II is NOT the correct explanation of A
A. Azoospermia 1.Female inguinal canal (c) A is true but R is false
B. Gynecomastia 2. Indirect inguinal hernia (d) A is false but R is true
C. Nuck's hernia 3. Infertility
D. Bubanocoele 4. Young males 26. Assertion (A) : In uncontrolled diabetes
mellitus, the patients ar prone to lactic acidosis
Codes : and ketoacidosis.

(a) A B C D Reason (R) : In such patients, the kidneys


3 1 4 2 cannot excrete lactic acid and ketoacids due to
(b) A B C D dehydration.
2 4 1 3 Ans.- (B)
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2 27. Assertion (A ) : Right internal Jugular
(d) A B C D vein is preferred for central venous
2 1 4 3 pressure monitoring.

24. The following swellings are transilluminant Reason (R) : It has a straight course.
EXCEPT Ans.- (A)

(a) Meningocoele 28. Assertion (A) : Thyroxine (T4) is more


(b) Hydrocoele important physiological hormone than
(c) Thyroglossal cyst Triiodothyronine (T3).
(d) Lipoma
Ans.- (D) Reason (R) : T4 acts more slowly than T3
hormone.
Ans.- (D)
25. Which on of the following solutions is
used to disinfect flxible endoscopes? 29. Assertion (A) 99mTc HIDA, PIPDA
(iminodiacetic acid ) scan is a non invasive
(a) 10 % chlorhexidine tool as Biliary scintigraphy .
(b) Absolute alcohol
(c) 2 % Glutaraldehyde Reason (R): It shows excretion by
(d) 5 % Paracetic acid hepatocytes and displays Biliary anatomy.

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Ans.- (A) (d) retroctove [attemn of ventilatory
defect shown by pulony function
30. Assertion (A) : Co- trimoxazole is Ans.- (B)
contraindicated in subject with G-6 -PD 35. Which one of the following statements
deficiency. regarding secundum Atrial - Septal
defect is true ?
Reason (R) : Co- trimoxazole is the drug (a) E.C.G. shows a left -ward axis
of choice in P carinii pneumonia. (b) Atrial arrhythmias are uncommon
Ans.- (B) (c) Surgical correction is advisable
when pulmonary -to-systemic flw
31. A 26 year old man complains of ratio has reached 2
abdominal distension . swelling of the (d) Affected persons are usually
legs and easy fatigability . His blood symptomatic in childhood
pressure is 90/70 mm Hg and pulse Ans.- (c)
becomes difficult to feel on inspiration.
He has pedal oedema, ascites and tender 36. Cystic fibrosis characteristically has
hepatomegaly. Precordium is quite with following features EXCEPT
loud and somewhat early apical third (a) Low levels of sodium and
heart sound. The probable diagnosis is chloride in the sweat
(a) Cor Pulmonale (b) Pancreatic insufficiency
(b) Tricuspid stenosis (c) Biliary cirrhosis
(c) Constrictive pericarditis (d) bronchial obstuuction
(d) Pulmonary stenosis Ans.- (a)
Ans.- (C) 37. A systolic murmur that becomes more
32. Which one of the following prominent on standing is
E.C.G. finding represents a manifestation feature of
of digitalis Toxicity? (a) valvular aortic stenosis
(b) rheumatic mitral regurgitation
(c) idiopathic hypertrophic
(a) ST segment depression (d) pulmonary stenosis
(b) Atrial Tachycardia with variable Ans.- (c)
block 38. The anti tubercular drug safe in liver
(c) Atrial Flutter disease is
(d) Shortening of PR interval (a) INH
Ans.- (B) (b) Rifampicin
(c) Ethambutol
33. Giant 'a' Waves in JVP are seen in (d) Phrazinamide
(a) Pulmonaryu stenosis Ans.- (c)
(b) Mitral stenosis 39. Kartagener's syndrome is NOT
(c) Complete associated with
(d) Ebstein's anomaly (a) Situs inversus
Ans.- (B) (b) Sublaxation of lens
(c) Bronchiectasis
34. Recognized features of asbestosis does (d) sinusitis
NOT include Ans.- (b)
(a) calcification of pleura 40. Match list I (Symptoms ) with List II
(b) egg shell calcification of hilar (Diagnosis) and select the correct answer
lymph nodes using the codes given below the Lists:
(c) clubbing of f8ingers
List I List II

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(Symptoms) (Diagnosis) (a) seminoma
A. 1. Allergic (b) Metastatic carcinoma of liver
Hemoptysis bronchopulmonary (c) 'Cirrhosis of liver
aspergillosis (d) Oat cell tumour of lung
Ans :- (B)
B. Shortness 2. Bronchiectasis
of breath 44. Secretory diarrhoea does NOT occur in
without (a) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
wheeze (b) Maliganant carcinoid syndrome
C. Snoring 3. Hamman rich (c) Villous adenoma of the rectum
syndrome (d) congenital chloridorrhea
D. Audible 4. Sleep apnea Ans :- (C)
wheeze syndrome
45. Indicators of active multiplication of
Codes : hepatitis B virus is
(a) A B C D (a) HbsAg
1 4 3 2 (b) HbcAg
(b) A B C D (c) HbeAG
2 3 4 1 (d) Anti Hbs
(c) A B C D Ans :- (C)
1 3 4 2 46. anaemia of advanced renal insufficiency
(d) A B C D is best treated by
2 4 3 1 (a) blood transfusions
Ans: - - (B) (b) recombinant human
erythropoietin
41. Which one of the following treatement (c) pareteral iron therapy
mofisliyird id NOT used for (d) folic acid
management of acute blood loss due to Ans :- (B)
ruputured esophageal varices ?
(a) Emdpscopic sclerotherapy 47. Nephrotic syndrome is the hall mark of
(b) Endoscopic band ligation the following primary kidney diseases
(c) Octreotide EXCEPT
(d) Propranolol
Ans: - - (D) (a) Membranous glomerulopathy
(b) IgA nephropathy (Berger's
disease)
(c) Minimal change disease
(d) Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
42. Tender hepatomegaly is NOT seen in Ans :- (B)
(a) Viral hepatitis
(b) Typhoid fever 48. The term 'end stage renal disease
(c) Right heart failure (ESRD)' is considered appropriate when
(d) Liver abscess GFR falls to
Ans :- (B) (a) 50 % of normal
(b) 25% of normal
43. Which one of the following is a frequent (c) 10-25% of normal
cause of serum alpha foeto protien level (d) 5-10% of normal
greater than 10 times the normal upper Ans :- (D)
limit ?

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49. Normal sized to enlarged kidneys in a 54. Which one of the following is NOT ture
patient with chronic renal failure is in the case of myotonic dysrophy?
indicative of (a) Cardiac defects
(a) Benign nephrosclerosis (b) Cataract
(b) Chronic glomerulonephritis (c) Enlarged testis
(c) Chronic interstitial nephritis (d) frontaL BALDNESS
(d) Primary amyloidpsis Ans :-(C)
Ans :-(D)
55.Which one of the following is likely to be a
50. Which one of the following is likely to neoplasm of T-Lymphocytic lineage?
be found in a patioent weith Wernicke's (a) Chronic Lyumphocytic Leukemia
aphasia (b) Burkitt's Lyumphoma
(a) Flunt speech output (c) Mycosis fungoides
(b) Normal repetition (d) small Lyumphocytic (well
(c) acalculia differenteated ) Lumphoma
(d) dyusarthric speech pattern Ans :- (C)
Ans :- (A)
56. Consider the following :
51. Most common presention finding of 1.Cystinuria
multiple sclerosis is 2.Cystinosis]
3.Hartnup's disease
(a) Intrancuclear opthalmoplegia 4.renal glycosuria
(b) Optic neuritis Disorders of amino acid transport
(c) transverse myelitis include
(d) Cerevbellar ataxia (a) 1 and 2
Ans :- (B) (b) 1and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
52. friedreich Ataxia is usually NOT (d) 1,2,3 and 4
associated with Ans :- (D)
(a) CNS abnormalities
(b) Peripheral nerve involvement 57. In patients with Glucose 6- phosphate
(c) Cardiovascular abnormalities dehydrogenase dificiency ( G-6-PDdificiency ) ,
(d) Acid-peptic disorders haemolysis may be induced by the folowing
Ans :-(D) EXCEPT

(a) primaquine
(b) nitrofurantoin
(c) tetracycline
(d) chloramphenicol
53. The most common cause of Spontanous Ans :-(C)
sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is
(a) rupture of an arterio-venous 58. Bleeding time is NOT usually prolonged in
malformation (a) Haemophilia
(b) saccular aneurysm (b) secondary thrombocytopenia
(c) Extension form intra-cerebral (c) scurvy
haemorrhage (d) Von willebrand';s disease
(d) Head injury Ans :-(A)
Ans :-(B)
59. Consider the following :
1. alcohol excess

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2. Hypothyroidism (d) 1,2 and 3
3. Thiazide therapy Ans :-(B)
4. Chronic renal failure
Hypertriglyceridaemia may be a feature 64. Regarding HIV infection , which one of the
of following statements is true?

(a) 1,2, and 3 (a) In the latent phase, patients will have few
(b) 2,3 and 4 HIV particles
(c) 1,3 and 5 (b) Infected T cells survive for a month in
(d) 1,2 and 4 infected patients
Ans :- (C) (c) CD4 counts are the best predictors for
disease progression
60. Hypersegmente Neutrophils are a feature of (d) Needle stick injury leads to infection in
0.3 % cases
(a) aplastic anaemia Ans :- (C/D)
(b) Megaloblastic anaemia
(c) Iron deficiency anaemia 65. Which one ofthe followingis NOT true
(d) Leukemia regarding Homocystinuria?
Ans :- (B)
(a) downward dislocation of lans
61. a woman has secondary amenorrhea, (b) Marked osteoporosis
hirsutism and raised serum testeserone level. (c) Stroke in young
Which one of the following is NOT a possible (d) autosomal dominant inheritance
cause ? Ans :- (D)
(a) Self administration of testesterone
(b) anorexia nerovsa 66. Consider the following conditions:
(c) Polycystic ovary syndrome
(d) testicular feminisation 1. Copper absorption is high
Ans :- (B) 2. Urinary ezxcretion of copper is high
3. Ceruloplasmin is high
62. which one of he following oral 4. Tissue deposition is high
hypoglycemic agents is NOT an insulin Which of these are true in the case of
secretogogue ? Wilson's disease?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(a) Gliclazide (b) 3 and 4
(b) Glimiperide (c) 1,2 and 4
(c) repaglinide] (d) 1,2,3 and 4
(d) Rosiglitazone Ans :- (C)
Ans :- (D) 67. The breeding ground for the vectors of
Japanese B virus is
63. Consider the following :
1. Generalised oedema (a) Paddy field
2. Hyper tention (b) Mixed garbage
3. Hypokalemia (c) Cooler water
which of these is / are present in Conn's (d) State food
syndrome ? Ans :- (A)

(a) 1 and 2 68. Which one of the following diseases is


(b) 2 and 3 transmitted by a tick ?
(c) 3 Only

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(a) Rickettsial pox Abnormality)
(b) Epidemic typhus A. Raised alkaline 1. Pheochromo
(c) Q fever Phosphatase cytoma
(d) Trench fever B. Raised serum 2. Grave's
Ans :- (C) amylase disease
C. Rised urinary 3. Obstructive
69. Match List I ( Viruses ) with List II VMA levles jaundice
(Desease States ) and select the correct answer D. Rised serum 4. Acute
using the codes given below the Lists : T4 pancretitis

List I List II Codes :


Viruses Disease States (a) A B C D
3 4 1 2
A. Hepatitis B 1.Burkitt's (b) A B C D
Virus lymphoma 3 4 2 1
B. Epstein Bar r 2. Carcinoma (c) A B C D
Virus of Cervix 4 3 2 1
C. HSV 2 3. Adult T cell (d) A B C D
lukemia- 4 3 1 2
lyumphoma Ans :- (A)
D. Human 'T' lymphotropic 4. Hepato-
virus III ( HTLV III ) cellular 72. Consider the following :
carcinoma Thromobolytic therapy is contraindicated

Codes : 1. Irreversible ischaemia


(a) A B C D 2. Potential source of haemorrhage
3 2 1 4 3. suprainguinal occlusion
(B) A B C D 4. Critical ischaemia with neurological
3 1 2 4 defict
(C) A B C D
4 1 2 3 Which of these statement are correct ?
(D) A B C D (a) 1,2 and 3
4 2 1 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
Ans :- (C) (c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 1,3 and d4
70. The most common site of lyumphangio Ans :- (B)
sarcoma is

(a) Liver 73. Following thyroid surgery, a patiend


(b) spleen develoed hoarseness. weakness,
(c) Post mastectomy oedema of arm decreased range of pitch or volume and
(d) retroperitoneum fatigue after extensive use of voice .
Ans :- (C) The nerve injured is
(a) Transverse cutaneous nerve of
71. Match List I (Biochemical abnomality) the neck (C2 and C3)
with List II (Clinical diagnosis ) and select (b) External branch of the superior
the correct answer using the codes given laryngeal nerve
below the Lists : (c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
List I List II (d) Cervical sympathetic plexus
(Biochemical ( Clinical diagnosis) Ans :- (C)

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(c) Endoscopic sphincterotomy and
74. The ideal management for squamous stone extraction
cell carcinoma of middle 1/3rd of lower (d) No active treatment is required
lip (1 x 1 cm size ) without lymph node Ans :- (C)
involvement would be
78. Clinical feature of choledochat cyst in
(a) chemo radiotherapy an adult aare
(b) Local resection followed by radio (a) pain , lump and intermittent
therapy jaundice
(c) Excision with primary repair (b) pain, fever and progressive
(d) Primary irradiation jaundice
Ans :- (C) (c) pain, lump and progressive
jaundice
75. A 75 year old hypertensive lady has a (d) pain , fever and progressive
2x2 cm infiltrating duct cell carcinoma jaundice]
in the subareolar region . There are no Ans :- (C)
palpable lymph nodes and distant
metastases However, she had been 79. Consider the following conditions:
treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 20 1. Acute fluid collection
yers ago. The besty cause of 2. Persistent seudocyst
management for her would be pancreas
(a) modified radical mastectomy 3. Pancreatic abscess
followed by radiotherapy 4. Infective pancreatic necrosis
(b) modified radical mastectomy Which of these are indicative of
followed by 6 cycles of surgery in acute pancreatitis ?
chemotherapy
(c) brest conservation surgery (a) 1, 2 and 4
followed by radiotherapy (b) 2,3 and 4
(d) modyfied radical mastectomy (c) 3 and 4
followed y hormone therapy (d) 1,2, and 3
Ans :-(D) Ans :- (B)

76. Consider the following : 80. Which one of the following statement is
1. Rise in the level of IgA NOT true about Direct Inguinal Hernia?
2. Fall in the level of opsonin (a) The sac is medial to inferior
epigastric artery
Which of these is ./are the immunological (b) The coverings of sac include
change(s) following splenectomy? crematoria and internal spermatic
(a) 1 only fascia
(b) 2 only (c) The sac is antero-lateral to cord
(c) Both 1 and 2 structures
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) The direct hernias are rarely
Ans :- (B) congenital
Ans :-(C)
77. a retained stone impacted in distal
common bile duct is seen on T-tube 81 an elderly male patient has come with
cholangiogram. what is the best progressive dysphaia, particulary for solids with
management of stone? marked loss of weight . The most likely
(a) Dissolution therapy diagnosis is
(b) Operative rem oval (a) Achalasia cardia

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(b) Carcinoma of oesophagus
(c) Reflux oesophagitis 86. A 65 year old woman with known
(d) stricture oesophagus duodenal ulcer being treated by H2
Ans :- (B) blocker therapy is admitted with upper
gastro intestinal bleeding. After blood
82.An important complication of pyloric replacement is begun the next step in her
stenosis is management should be
(e) Metabolic acidosis (a) institute anti H. pylori
(f) Hypochloremic alkalosis treatement
(g) Hypochloremic acidosis (b) Repeated gastric lavage
(h) Hyperchloremic alkalosis (c) Endoscopy and coagulation
Ans :- (B) ofbleeding vessel
(d) pyloroduodenotomy and
83. Consider the following : oversewing of the bleeding
Upper gastro intestinal endoscopy may vessel
reveal smooth mucosa in Ans :-(C)
1. Linitis plastica
2. Lymphoma of stomach 87. The most common cause of death in
3. Stromal tumour thermal burns is
4. Chronic atrophic gastritis (a) Convulsion
Which of these are corroct ? (b) Aspiration Pneumonia
(a) 1 and 4 (c) Hypovolemic shock
(b) 1 and 3 (d) Arrhythmias
(c) 2 and 4 Ans :-(C)
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans :- (C) 88. Duffy antigen on erythrocytes are
receptors for
84. Lower gastrointstinal bleeding is defined
as (a) P. falciparum
(b) P. vivax
(a) bleeding distal to junction of (c) P. ovale
proximal 1/3rd and distal 2/3rd (d) p. malariae
of transverse colon Ans :- (B)
(b) bleeding distal to junctin of
proximal 2/3rd and distal 1/3rd
of transverse colon 89. Which one of the following is NOT true
(c) Bleeding from large bowel about enteric fever ?
beyond ileocaecal junction (a) Blood culture is diagnostic
(d) Bleeding from small bowel (b) Bone marrow cultures are
from beyond ligament of Treitz positive in the second week
Ans :- (D) (c) Widal test is diagnostic at 7th
day
85. Which one of the following condition (d) four fold rise in widal titre is an
isdiagnosed by Tc99 Pertechnetate indication of enteric fever
scintigraphy? Ans: - (C)
(a) Phryngeal diverticulum
(b) Duodenal diverticulum 90. In a patient with enteric fever bone and
(c) Meckel's diverticulum joint infection is seen specially in
(d) Colonic diverticulum children having
Ans :-(C) (a) Aplastic anaemia

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(b) HIV disease 96. Which one of the following antibiotics is
(c) Sickle cell disease NOT effective against Pseudomonas
(d) HbsAg +ve hepatitis aeruginosa ?
Ans: -(C) (a) Ceftazidime
(b) Piperacillin
91. Black dot ring worm is caused by (c) Vancomycin
(d) Aztreonam
(a) Microsporum Ans: - (C)
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton 97. Propranolol is indicated in the following
(d) Candida conditions EXCEPT
Ans: -(B) (a) Intermittent claudication
(b) Portal hypertension
92. Infectious stage of plasmdium is (c) Migraine
(a) Trophozoite (d) Benign essential tremors
(b) Cryptozoite Ans: -(A)
(c) sporozoite
(d) Merozoite 98. Match List I ( Antibiotic ) with List II
Ans: -(C) ( Mechanism of Action ) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
93. Reservoir of Kala Azar in India is below the lists :
(a) Man List I List II
(b) Dog (Antibiotic) (Mechanism of
(c) Pig Action)
(d) Cattle A. Penicillin 1. Inhibit
Ans: -(A) Dihydrofolate
reductase
94. In secondary syphilis , which oneof the B. Tetracyclin 2. Inhibit cell
following features is NOT found? wall synthesis
(a) Maculopapular rashes C. Supphonamide 3. Inhibit RNA
(b) Generalised binding to
nontenddrlymphadenopathy ribosomes
(c) Aortitis D. Quinolone 4. Inhibit
(d) Follicular syphilides DNA gyrase
Ans: -(C)

95. Consider the following: Codes :


1. Girdiasis (a) A B C D
2. Microfiaria 2 1 3 2
3. Macrofilaria ( b) A B C D
4. Cestodes 2 3 1 4
In the treatment of which of these is (c) A B C D
alvendazole the preferred drug? 4 1 3 2
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 (d) A B C D
(b) 2 and 4 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 and 4 Ans: - (B)
(d) 1 only
Ans: - (B) 99. Prolonged allopurinal thearpy in a
patient wiht gout is NOT indicated for
(a) Acute gouty arthritis

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(b) Tophi 2. syunovial fluid mucin clot test is good.
(c) Urate nephropathy 3. synovial fluid complement level is
(d) Evidence of bone/joint damege decreased.
Ans: -(A) 4. Synovial membrane histology
characteristically shows severe synovial
100. Hyper triglyucridemia is NOT lining proliferation and presence of
caused by lymphoid follicles.
(a) diabetes mellitis Which of these statements are correct ?
(b) Obesity (a) 1,2 and 3
(c) Alcohol (b) 1,3 and 4
(d) Cigarette smoking (c) 1,2 and 4
Ans: - - (D) (d) 2,3 and 4
Ans: - - (B)
101. Pseudo fractures are seen in
(a) osteomalacia 106. Palpable purpura mayu be seen in
(b) multiple myeloma the following EXCEPT
(c) osteoporosis (a) Scurvy
(d) skeletal metastasis (b) acute meningococcemia
Ans: - - (A) (c) Vasculitis
(d) Essential mixed
102. Mycosis fungoides is a cryoglobulinemia
(a) B cell lymphoma Ans: - - (A)
(b) T cell lymphoma
(c) T cell leukemia 107. Early onset rhematoid arthritis
(d) B cell leukemia with positive rheumatoid factor is more
Ans: - - (B) likely to have
(a) Self limiting disease
103. The earliest sensation to be list in (b) more persistent disease activity
Hansen's disease is (c) liss systemic involvement
(a) Touch (d) distal inter-phlangeal
(b) Temperature involvement
(c) Pain Ans: - - (B)
(d) Vibration
Ans: - - (B) 108. Lithium is the drug of choice in
the management of
104. A 30 years old nurse whose job (a) Bipolar disorder
requires frequent hand washing; has (b) Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
noted a small erosive skin lesion (c) Anxiety neurosis
between third inter digital web of right (d) Schizophrenia
hand. The best therapy for this condition Ans: - - (A)
would be
(a) Topical 5 flurouracil 109. Anxiety neurosis is characterized
(b) Topical clotrimazole by all EXCEPT
(c) Oral griseofulvin (a) suicidal intent
(d) Topical hydrocortisone (b) panic attacks
Ans: - - (B) (c) multiple somatic complaints
(d) over-concern
105. Consider the following Ans: - - (A)
statements regadingrheumatoid arthritis: 110. Match List I (Clinical Condition )
1. The syunovial fluid is turbid . with List II (Drug Management ) and

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select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists: 114. A patient is admitted with
List I List II history of overdose of
(Clinical Condition) (Drug warfrin.Prothrombin time is
Management) significantly prolonged and the patient
A. Delirium 1. Resperidone has echymosis and hemetemosis.
B. alzheimer's disease 2. Donepezil Therapeutic choices should include
C. Schizophrenia 3.Benzodiazep ines 1. Vitamin K
D. Acute extra 4. Haloperidol 2. Naloxone
Pyramidal 3. Fresh fozen plasma
Symptoms in 4. N acetylcysteine
Schizophrenic patient Select thecorrect answer using the codes
Under treatment given below:

Codes :
(a) A B C D Codes :
3 2 1 4 (a) 1 only
(b) A B C D (b) 1 and 3
3 1 2 4 (c) 2 and 4
(c) A B C D (d) 1,2 and 3
4 1 2 3 Ans: - - (B)
Ans: - - (A) 115. N- acetyl Penicillamine is
used in the treatment of poisoning by
111. Drug of choice in (a) Mercury
obsessive compulsive neurosis is (b) Lead
(a) Clomipramine (c) Cadmium
(b) Haloperidol (d) Arsenic
(c) Clonazepam Ans: - (A)
(d) Carbamezapine
Ans: - - (A) 116. HLA B 27 is usually
detected in the following condition
EXCEPT
112. The mode of inheritance (a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
of familial adenomatosis polyposis is (b) Ankylosing spondylitis
(a) autosomal dominance (c) Psoriatic arthritis
(b) autosomal recessive (d) Reactive arthritis
(c) X liked recessive Ans: - - (A)
(d) polygenic
Ans: - - (A) 117. The use of which one of
the following may cause
113. The most likely cardiomyopathy?
diagonosis in the case of a patient with (a) adriamycin
multiple pulmonary cavities, haematuria (b) Carboplatin
and red cell casts is (c) Dactinomycin
(a) anti GBM disease (d) Etoposide
(b) Chrug-struss allergic Ans: - (A)
granulomatosis
(c) systemic lupuserythematosus 118. A 60 years old lady
(d) Wegner's granulomatosis underwent abdominal surgery and on the
Ans: - - (A) 4thpost -operative day she was

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diagnosed to have Systemic
Inflammatory Response Syndrome AIPPG.com 2001-2004 ALL
(SIRS). What are the features of SIRS? RIGHTS RESERVED.
1. Normal body temperature and normal
respiratory rate
2. WBC>12x109 /L (OR)
<4x109/L
3. Respiratory rate > 20 breaths/ minute and
heart rate >90 beats/minute
4. Respiratory rate <10 breaths/ minute
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :

Codes :
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: - - (C)
119. Which one of the
following is NOT a principle followed
in the management of missile injuries?
(a) Excision of all dead muscles
(b) Removal of foreign bodies
(c) Removal of fragments of bone
(d) Leaving the wound open
Ans: - - (C)
120. The pathjogenesis of
which one of the following infections
does NOT occur through an exotoxin?

(a) Staphylococcus aureus


(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Clostridum botulinum
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes
Ans: - - (D)
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