Q.1.

The phenomenon of seeing oneself is called as

a) Autoscopic hallucination
b) Reflex hallucination
c) Functional hallucination
d) Extracampine hallucination

Q.2. The characteristics of schizophrenia are all except

a) Voices commenting about the persons activity
b) Voices discussing about the person
c) Audible thoughts
d) Voices giving command to the person

Q.3. A 35 years old male Pavan suspects that his wife is unfaithful to him and she has sexual relations with other
man he is convinced about this yet there are no evidence to prove it. Probable diagnosis is
a) Declarambault syndrome
b) Ekbome syndrome
c) Othello syndrome
d) Fregoli syndrome

Q.4. An elderly couple had consulted the physician for disagreeable odor of wife body. Initially the wife was
convinced that her body has disaggreable odour then her husband also became convinced about the same .After
repeated reassurance by physician both of them were not able to accept that there’s no problem, the condition is
called as:
a) Folei deux
b) Folei induite
c) Folei simultanei
d) Folei famille

Q.5. All of the following are projective tests for personality assessment except:
a) Rorschach
b) Child apperception test
c) Make a picture story
d) Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory

Q.6. Psychoanalysis is developed by:

a) Sigmund freud
b) Eron Beck
c) Jean piaget
d) Eugen bleuler

Q.7. Delirium is characterized by all except :

a) Delusion
b) Hallucination
c) Clear consciousness
d) Sleep wake cycle disturbances

Q.8. All of the following are markers of heavy drinking except:

a) GGT
b) CDT
c) MCV
d) Sr.Bilirubin

Q.9. Amotivational syndrome is associated with:

a) Cannabis
b) Alcohol
c) Anxiety
d) Morphine

Q.10. A 21 yr Mr. Santosh complaining since last 3 months that his neighbours are plotting to kill him. He hears
voices discussing about him, he had been repeatedly assured by family members that there’s no such problem but
he strongly believe all these things. Most likely diagnosis is:
a) Paranoid Schizophrenia
b) Delusional disorder
c) Brief psychotic disorder
d) Psychosis NOS

Q.11. Which of the following is not correct match:

a) Benzidine test -uric acid
b) Jaffe’s test-creatinine
c) Rothera’s test-Acetone bodies
d) Ehrlich’s aldehyde test-Urobilinogen
e) Fouchet test-bile salts

Q.12. Which of the following drug bulls eye maculopathy

a) Ethambutol
b) Clloroqiune
c) Trimethadione
d) Thioridazine

Q.13. Aminosidine is an orphan drug for

a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Visceral leishmaniasis
c) Malaria
d) Polycythemia vera

Q.14. All the following drugs can cause hyperkalemia, except

a) Amphotericin – B
b) Succinylcholine
c) Candesartan
d) Heparin

Q.15. All the following drugs are neurotoxic except

a) Cycloserine
b) Acylovir
c) Spiramycin
d) Vincristine

Q.16. Drug of choice for vincent’s angina is

a) Benzylpenicillin
b) GTN
c) Metronidazole
d) Diltiazem

Q.17. All the following are prodrugs, except

a) INH
b) Procainamide
c) Ticlopidine
d) Cyclophosphamide

Q.18. Regarding blood pressure following is true

a) Lateral pressure is more than end pressure because of Benoulli’s principle
b) Lateral pressure is more than end pressure of windkessel effect
c) Lateral pressure is less than end pressure of bernoulli’s principle
d) Lateral pressure is less than end pressure because of windkessel effect

Q.19. Starling’s law of the heart

a) Does not operate in failing heart
b) Does not operate during except
c) Explain increase in heart rate during exercise
d) Explain increase in stroke volume when saline is infused

Q.20. A 32-year-old man complains of impotence. On physical examination, he has an elevated jugular venous
pressure, S3 gallop, and hepatomegaly. He also appears tanned, with pigmentation along joint folds. His left knee
is swollen and tender. The plasma glucose is 250 mg/dL, and liver enzymes are elevated. Your next study to
establish the diagnosis should be:
a) Detection of nocturnal penile tumescence
b) Determination of iron saturation
c) Determination of serum copper
d) Detection of hepatitis B surface antigen
e) Echocardiography

Q.21. A 50-year-old female is 5 ft 7 in. tall and weighs 165 lb. There is a family history of diabetes mellitus.
Fasting blood glucose is 150mg/dL on two occasions. She is asymptomatic, and physical exam shows no
abnormalities. The treatment of choice is
a) Observation
b) Medical nutrition therapy
c) Insulin
d) Oral hypoglycaemic agent (Sulphonylureas)
e) Acarbose

Q. 22. The most common cause of Tinea capitis is

a) M canis
b) T rubrum
c) T verrucosum
d) None of the above

Q. 23. All are the characteristic features of hyper eosinophillic syndrome except?
a) More than 1500 eosinophills per microliter
b) Duration of more than 3 months
c) Multisystem organ failure
d) Lack of evidence of parasitic or allergic disorder.

Q.24. A 27 year old young female complaints of breathlessness for past 2 years , no h/o orthopnea and PND. She
also has history of recurrent pnuemothorax ( 3 times in past 6 months) for which repeated pleurodesis was done.
History of haemoptysis is also present. Chest x-ray suggestive of emphysema. Diagnosis in this case is
a) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
b) Pulmonary lymphangiomyomatosis
c) Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis
d) None of the above

Q.25. Indication of IVC filters in treatment of pulmonary embolism are ?

a) Contraindication to anticoagulant
b) Recurrent pulmonary embolism
c) Both of the above
d) No role of IVC filter

Q. 26. All of the following are the cause of significant (>10%) eosinophils in pleural fluid except?
a) Blood in the pleural cavity
b) Air in the pleural cavity
c) Viral infection
d) Parasitic infection

Q.27. All the following statement are correct regarding chylothorax except ?
a) Pleural fluid is milky white in color
b) Triglyceride levels are more than 110mg/dl
c) Demonstration of chylomincrons in the pleural fluid are diagnostic
d) Large amount of cholesterol and lecithin globules are present.

Q. 28. Which of the following statement regarding pleural effusion is wrong?

a) Hepatic hydrothorax is more common on the left side
b) Hepatic hydrothorax can be bilateral
c) In hepatic hydrothorax pleural fluid proteins slightly higher than ascetic fluid.
d) TIPS is superior to serial thoracocentesis in hepatic hydrothorax.

Q. 29. All the following statements about thyroid physiology are true except
a) T4 is more strongly bound to proteins in blood
b) Major binding protein is pre-albumin
c) Receptor’s for thyroid hormones are nuclear receptors
d) Preoperative use of iodine in hyperthyroid patients to make them euthyroid is physiologically k/a Wolff-
Chaikoff effect.
e) T3 resin uptake test is a measurement of free T4.

Q. 30. All the following are criteria used in assessing disease activity in patients with ulcerative colitis except
a) No. of stools/ day
b) Temperature
c) WBC count
d) Pulse rate
e) Hemoglobin level

Q. 31. All true about management of variceal bleeding in portal hypertension except
a) Sclerotherapy is better that banding
b) Beta blockers are effective as primary prophylaxis to prevent bleeding
c) Non-shunt operative procedures can also be used in acute event of bleeding
d) TIPSS controls acute bleeding very effectively
e) In segstaken-blakemore tube gastric balloon is inflated first and esophageal balloon is inflated only when
bleeding still continues after inflating gastric balloon

Q. 32. Allografts (skin grafts) used in dressing of burns. All true except.
a) used in patients with large area burns to cover the wounds
b) Provide a good biological cover for healing to take place
c) Are eventually rejected in all cases
d) Subsequent autologous skin grafting can be avoided.
e) Patients being immunosuppressive these allografts stick for long periods

Q.33. All true about gastric volvulus except

a) Mesentroaxial is more common
b) Organoaxial is more serious than mesenteroaxial
c) Mesentroaxial is often partial
d) Borchardt’s triad is classically seen with organoaxial
e) Organoaxial is often associated with diaphragmatic defects

Q. 34. Most sensitive investigation for acute post-op intestinal obstruction is.
a) X-ray abdomen
b) USG
c) Ba studies
d) CT abdomen
e) Endoscopy.

Q. 35. An 8 year-old female can bend her thumb back to touch to touch her forearm. She can pull her skin out
from her abdomen about 8 cm and a cut to her skin gapes open and are difficult to repair. He underlying disease
process results from an inherited defect in
a) Alpha antitrypsin
b) Retinoblastoma (Rb) protein
c) LDL receptor
d) Collagen
e) Factor VIII

Q. 36. Begging is related to

a) Starvation
b) Street begging of money.
c) A method of substance abuse
d) Use of bag to smuggle cocaine.

Q. 37. Growth factor receptor for oncogenes is

a) Sis
b) Kit
c) Fos
d) Myc
Q. 38. Coverings of complete indirect inguinal hernia will include all EXCEPT:
a) Internal spermatic fascia
b) Cremasteric fascia
c) Conjoint tendon
d) Internal spermatic fascia

Q. 39. All the following are effective against Bacteriods fragilis, except
a) Metronidazole
b) Sulfamethoxazole
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Clindamycin

Q. 40. Female patient was prescribed tetracycline 250mg qds x 7 days. She is also on low dose OC pills. However
she became pregnant. Identify the cause.
a) Enzyme induction by tetracycline
b) Inhibition of enterohepatic circulation of OC pills by tetracycline
c) Increased renal elimination of OC pills
d) Sequestration of OC pills

Q. 41. All the following are prodrugs, except

a) Metrifonate
b) Clopidogrel
c) Propranolol
d) Lovastatin

Q. 42. Which of the following does not show disulfiram reaction with alcohol?
a) Niclosamide
b) Cephamandole
c) Griseofulvin
d) Adefovir

Q. 43. Pyridoxine can be used in all the following, except

a) Pregnancy vomiting
b) Suppression of lactation
c) Parkinsonism
d) Cycloserine neuritis

Q. 44. Which of the following is a microsomal enzyme inducer as well as inhibitor?

a) Phenobarbital
b) Ketoconazole
c) Ethanol
d) Chloramphenicol

Q. 45. Topical drug that acts by release of cytokines is

a) Terbinafine
b) Imiquimod
c) Alitretinoin
d) Sisomicin

Q. 46. DOC for oat cell carcinoma of lung is

a) Paclitaxel
b) Etoposide
c) Irinotecan
d) Gefitinib

Q. 47. Half life of a drug is 5 hours. At what hour will plasma level show maximum drug effects?
a) 20 – 22 hours
b) 25 – 30 hours
c) 10 – 15 hours
d) 5 hours
Q. 48. DOC for mild hypertension is
a) Propranolol
b) Nifedipine
c) Hydrochorothiazide
d) Enalapril

Q. 49. Diuretic that does not have vasodilator property is

a) Indapamide
b) Amiloride
c) Chlorthalidone
d) Furosemide

Q. 50. Which of the following is diabetogenic?

a) Quinidine
b) Quinine
c) Tolbutamide
d) Olanzapine

Q. 51. Which of the following is not a phosphodiesterase inhibitor?

a) Dipyridamole
b) Amrinone
c) Drotaverine
d) Tadalafil

Q.52 52. Which of the following is used for stress echo?

a) Nitrates
b) Dobutamine
c) Acebutolol
d) Isoprenaline

Q.53 53. DOC for infantile spasms

a) Topiramate
b) ACTH
c) Clonazepam
d) Vigabatrin

Q.54 54. All the following are antibiotics, except

a) Doxycycline
b) Imipenem
c) Gentamicin
d) Amphotericin-B

Q.55 55. Which of the following is not an inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase?

a) Brinzolamide
b) Bumetanide
c) Mafenide
d) Thiazides

Q.56 56. Patient with CCF has severe edema. His creatinine clearance is 10ml/min. What is the diuretic of choice
in this patient?
a) Polythiazide
b) Metolazone
c) Spironolactone
d) Furosemide

Q.57 57. DOC for crptosporidiosis is

a) Azithromycin
b) Fluconazole
c) Nitazoxanide
d) Paromomycin

Q.58 58. Male patient with complicated UTI has severe dysuria. What drug would you prescribe preferably for pain
relief?
a) Flavoxate
b) Diclofenac
c) Phenazopyridine
d) Dicyclomine

Q.59 59. Lindane is

a) Gammabenzene hexachloride
b) Methoxalen
c) Permethrin
d) Organophosphorus compound

Q.60 60. Which of the following drug is called suicide inhibitor?

a) Clavulanic acid
b) Diazepam
c) Heroin
d) Methenamine mandelate

Q.61 61. Antidote to cisplatin renal toxicity is

a) Nabilone
b) Amifostin
c) Dicobalt edetate
d) Cilastatin

Q.62 62. All the following drugs have diagnostic use, except
a) Clonidine
b) Desmopressin
c) Oxytocin
d) Dexamethasone

Q.63 63. Volatile oil used as pulmonary antiseptic is

a) Turpentine oil
b) Clove oil
c) Hydnocarpus oil
d) Eucalyptus oil

Q.64 64. All the following can cause cholestatic jaundice, except
a) Erythromycin estolate
b) Sodium valproate
c) Mesterolone
d) Chlorpromazine

Q.65 65. Which of the following drug requires basic urinary pH for elimination?
a) Phenytoin
b) Warfarin
c) Morphine
d) Ephedrine

Q.66 66. BDZ which is not sedative - hypnotic is

a) Temazepam
b) Buspirone
c) Zopiclone
d) Clobazam

Q.67 67. Laxative that is photosensitive is

a) Phenolpthalein
b) Isaphgul
c) Castor oil
d) Senna

Q.68 68. Botulinum toxin A is used therapeutically in all, except

a) Facial wrinkles
b) Blepharospasm
c) During ECT
d) Spasmodic torticollis

Q.69 69. DOC for vincent’s angina is

a) Nitroglycerine
b) Pinacidil
c) Metronidazole
d) Amlodipine

Q.70 70. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of the patient in all the following conditions
except:
a) Difficult intubation
b) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
c) Child undergoing elective eye surgery
d) Patient with al large tumor in oral cavity

Q.71 71. Which of the following agents increase intraocular tension?

a) Thiopentone
b) Halothane
c) Morphine
d) Trimethaphan

Q.72 72. Atracurium is a suitable relaxant in all the following conditions except:
a) Organophosphorous poisoning
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Hypersensitive airway disease
d) Patient with atypical cholinesterase

Q.73 73. A 52 year old male diagnosed as triple coronary vessel disease with poor left ventricular function. A
coronary artery bypass was decided. During maintenance of anaesthesia which of the following agents should be
preferred?
a) Isoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) IV opioids

Q.74 74. Trendelenberg position produces a decrease in all the following except:
a) Vital capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Compliance
d) Respiratory rate

Q.75 75. Propofol is the agent of choice for day care surgery because all except :
a) Short half life
b) Inactive metabolites
c) Antiemetic effect
d) Lipid emulsion

Q.76 76. The concentration of oxygen in adequate anaesthesia is :

a) 15%
b) 21%
c) 33%
d) 50%

Q.77 77. The potency of a local anaesthetic is given by its :

a) Dose
b) pKa
c) Plasma protein binding
d) Lipid solubility

Q.78 78. True about post spinal headache include all except:
a) relieved in majority of cases by 3 weeks
b) incidence is more with Whitacre type dural separating needle
c) high incidence at high altitude
d) incidence is decreasing nowadays with the use of 25G and above spinal needles

Q.79 79. All are causes of postoperative hypertension except:

a) Pain
b) Hypocapnia
c) Full bladder
d) Emergence delirium

Q.80 80. All are true about nitrous oxide except:

a) First prepared by Priestley
b) Good analgesic
c) Good muscle relaxant
d) Increases ICT

Q.81 81. Balanced anaesthesia , the term coined by John Lundy , includes all except:
a) Amnesia
b) Abolition of reflexes
c) Muscle relaxation
d) Delirium

Q.82 82. True about xenon include all except:

a) Higher density and viscosity than air
b) Decreases airway resistance
c) Lowest blood gas coefficient among all inhalational agents
d) Better analgesic than nitrous oxide

Q.83 83. Which is true of desflurane?

a) Coughing, breath holding is least during induction
b) Contains no fluorine
c) Increases ict
d) Not to be used in obese

Q.84 84. Dual block is seen with :

a) Lidocaine
b) Bupivacaine
c) Succinyl choline
d) Neostigmine

Q.85 85. All the following are risk factors for Mendelson syndrome except:
a) Gastric ph <2.5
b) Gastric volume > 0.4 ml/kg
c) Solid particles
d) Gastric peristalsis stimulators

Q.86 86. True regarding adrenaline in CPR:

a) Can be given intratracheally
b) I.V. route better than intracardiac
c) Converts coarse fibrillation into fine fibrillation
d) Dose is 1mg IV every 3-5 minutes in ventricular fibrillation

Q.87 87. True about venous air embolism include all except:
a) Transesophageal ECHO is most sensitive to diagnose
b) Hypotension, tachycardia and cyanosis is seen
c) A rise in end tidal CO2 followed by a fall is characteristic
d) Increased pulmonary artery pressures

Q.88 88. The features of infant airway include all except:

a) Short, stubby epiglottis
b) Obligate nasal breather
c) Larynx is place posteriorly and is higher
d) Large tongue

Q.89 89. Image of choice of invasive fungal sinusitis is

a) CT scan of paranasal sinus
b) MRI of paranasal sinus
c) Sinoscopy
d) X-ray paranasal sinuses

Q.90 90. Functions of videostroboscopy includes all except :

a) Visual assessment of glottal closure
b) Unilateral vocal fold impairment
c) Vocal fold biomechanical disturbances
d) Evaluate the location, extent, or compression of the stenosis

Q.91 91. Otologic involvement has not been reported in

a) Autoimmune inner ear disease
b) Relapsing polychondritis
c) Mixed connective tissue disease
d) Polyarteritis nodosa

Q.92 92. Mutations in which gap junction protein gene account for the highest percentage of nonsyndromic
congenital sensorineural hearing loss?
a) Connexin 43
b) Connexin 30
c) Connexin 26
d) Connexin 32

Q.93 93. 75 yrs old male presented with nasal bleed;on examination person was too anaemic.Bleeding didn’t
responded to anterior nasal packing.Most common site of bleed in such clinical situation would be?
a) Little’s area
b) Retro-columellar region
c) Woodruff’s plexus
d) Both little’s area and retro-columellar region

Q.94 94. 67 old presented with hoarseness, aspiration, dysphagia and odynophagia. Indirect laryngoscopy revealed
growth involving right vocal cord and anterior commissure. Involvement of which structure will favour the
diagnosis of supraglottis carcinoma stage T-4b?
a) Postcricoid
b) Preepiglottic space
c) Para-glottic space
d) Prevertebral space

Q.95 95. Study the audiogram

Diagnosis is?
a) CSOM
b) Otosclerosis
c) Noise induced hearing loss.
d) Meniere’s disease

Q.96 96. An inner longitudinal layer of pharynx includes all except :

a) Stylopharyngeus.
b) Palatopharyngeus.
c) Salpingopharyngeus.
d) Inferior constrictor.

Q.97 97. Earliest nerve to be involved in acoustic neuroma:

a) Vth nerve
b) VIIth nerve
c) X1 nerve
d) X11 nerve

Q.98 98. A patient presents presents with carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords,left arytenoids and
the left aryeepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords.Treatment of choice is :
a) Vertical hemilaryngectomy
b) Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
c) Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
d) Total larynegectomy

Q.99 99. Structure difficult to visualize or examine on indirect laryngoscopy is :

a) True vocal cord.
b) Anterior commissure.
c) Epiglottis
d) False vocal cord.

Q.100 100. Hypoaesthesia over the area of posterior-superior aspect of the external auditory canal(Histelberger
sign) is feature of :
a) Mastoiditis.
b) Glomus tymour.
c) Vestibular schwannoma.
d) Otosclerosis.