FSC Notes Phy1

FULL BOOK TEST
:
Q1. For systematic error, a factor is applied for correction is called:
(a) Error factor (b) Symmetric factor
(c) Correction factor (d) None of these
Q2. The dimensions of torque are same as that of:
(a) Work (b) Force
(c) Momentum (d) None of these
Q3. If two same physical quantities are added then the resultant has uncertainty equal to:
(a) Sum of absolute uncertainty (a) Sum of % uncertainty
(c) Difference of absolute uncertainty (d) Difference of % uncertainty
Q4. Range of magnitude of resultant obtained by 10N & 7N:
(a) 3N 10N (b) 7N 10N
(c) 3N 7N (d) None of these
Q5. The component of is:
(a) Unity (b) Zero
(c) 2 (d) None of these
Q6. Force F is making an angle of 30° with y-axis. Its x-component is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d) None of these
Q7. The slope of velocity time graph represents (quantity):
(a) Distance (b) Displacement
(c) Acceleration (d) Work
Q8. Which one is correct?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q9. Maximum range of projectile is at an angle of:
(a) 30° (b) 60°
(c) 76° (d) None of these
Q10. The time of flight will be larger at same velocity at an angle of:
(a) 80° (b) 76°
(c) 60° (d) 45°
Q11. When angle between force and displacement is less than 90° work is:
(a) +ve (b) -ve
(c) Zero (d) None of these
Q12. CGS unit of work is:
(a) Dynes (b) erg
(c) hp (d) None of these
Q13. If two protons are brought together, P.E
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains same (d) None of these
Q14. One hp is:
(a) 1000 watts (b) 746 watts
(c) 100 watts (d) None of these
Q15. Movement of inertia of thin rod about mid length is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q16. Torque has same direction as that of:
(a) (b)
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) None of these
Q17. The rotational frequency to produce artificial gravity equal to g in the satellite:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q18. Viscosity of water is in equal to:
(a) (b)
Q19. The speed of air at the upper side as compare to lower side of wings of an aeroplane
is:
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Equal (d) None of these
Q20. is instantaneous speed for:
(a) Simple pendulum (b) Spring system mass
c) y component of body in uniform circular motion
d) Tuning fork
Q21. Entropy is a quantity:
(a) Scalar (b) Vector
Q22. Magnification of simple microscope is:
(A) (b)
(c) (d)
Q23. If source is moving towards the listner apparent frequency :
Q24. Number of beats per seconds:
(a) (b)
Q25. Unit of K is (spring constant)
(a) (b) Nm
Q26. Frequency of second pendulum is:
(a) 1Hz (b) 2Hz
(c) 0.5Hz (d) None of these
Q27. In SHM are:
(a) In same direction (b) Opposite to each other
(c) At right angle to each other (d) None of these
Q28. Geostationary satellite completes one rotation (orbiting) around the earth in time:
(a) 1 year (b) 1 month
(c) 1 day (d) 1 hour
Q29. is equation :
(a) Correct (b) Incorrect
(c) May or may not be correct (d) None of these
Q30. At right angle between and velocity gives power:
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum
(c) mgh (d)
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PHYSICS
Test # 1
based on chapter 1 of inter part one
Q1. In the figure, a circle of diameter 2x is fitted enclosed in a square of side length 2x,
the area of the shaded region is:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q2. The dimensions of density are:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q3. Significant figures in 24.00 are:
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 3
Q4. Significant figures in 0.0004 are:
(a) 1 (b) 4
Q5. One inch is equal to:
(a) 2.54mm (b) 2.54cm
(c) 3.54cm (d) 2.54m
Q6. Travel time of light from sun to earth is:
(a) 1 min 20 sec. (b) 8 min 20 sec.
(c) 5 hr 20 min (d) None of these
Q7. Exa is equal to:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q8. 1Km contains cm:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q9. Basic quantity of the following is:
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric current
(c) Plane angle (d) Solid angle
Q10. The system internation SI was established in:
(a) 1980 (b) 1970
(c) 1960 (d) 1950
Q11. The dimensionally correct equation is:
(a) (B)
(c) (d)
Q12. The absolute uncertainty in a measurement of length is equal to:
(a) Least count (b) Measured length
(c) Lease count / measured length (d)
Q13. part of a solar day is equal to:
(a) 1sec (b) 1 min
(c) 1 hour (d) 12 hours
Q14. Exact speed of light in vacuum is:
(a) 29979245800 (b)
(c) (d) All of these
Q15. 43.75 is rounded as:

(a) 43 (b) 43.8
(c) 43.7 (d) 4
Q16. By measuring length 25.5cm by normal scale of least count 0.1 cm, percentage
uncertainty is:
(a) (b)
Q17. while then is equal to:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q18. Percentage uncertainty for ‘V’ is 2% and percentage uncertainty for ‘I’ is 6%, then
percentage uncertainty in ‘R’ is (where V=IR) is:
(a) (b)
(c) 12% (d) 8%
Q19. Percentage uncertainty in ‘r’ is 0.4% for sphere, then percentage uncertainty in
volume is:
(a) 0.4% (b) 1.2%
Q20. A stop watch has a least count 0.1 sec. We measure 30 vibrations of pendulum by
this stop watch. Absolute uncertainty is:
(a) (b) 0.1 s
(c) (0.1)30 sec (d) None of these
Q21. Mass is a quantity:
(a) Basic (b) Derived
(c) Scalar (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Q22. M°L°T° are the dimensions of:
(a) Mass (b) Length
(c) Time (d) Plane angle
Q23. “1N” is equal to:
(a) (b)
Q24. radian is equal to:
(a) 57.3° (b) 180°
(c) 360° (d) 90°
Q25. Derived quantity is a function of:
(a) Base quantities (b) Physical quantities
(c) Scalars (d) Vectors
Q26. One Km is equal to:
(a) (b)
Q27. One Kelvin is the of the thermo dynamical temperature is the:
(a) Triple point of water (b) Triple point of ice
Q28. Distance covered by light in sec is:
(a) 1m (b) 1Km
(c) 1 ft (d) None of these
Q29. Light year is the unit of:
(a) Time (b) Length
(c) Mass (d) None of these
Q30. Radian is:
(a) Derived unit (b) Base unit
(c) Supplementary unit (d) None of these
PHYSICS
Test # 2
Q1. Two forces of equal magnitude and in opposite direction acting on a body at different
points form a
(a) Torque (b) Equilibrium
(c) Couple (d) None of these
Q2. If = 0 then
(a) a = 0 (b) = 0
(c) a = 0 and = 0 (d) None of these
Q3. Clockwise torque is taken
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Zero (d) Maximum
Q4. If Rx is positive and Ry is negative then resultant lies in quadrant#
(a) 1st (b) 2nd
(c) 3rd (d) 4th
Q5. If and are rectangular components of vector then | | =
(a) (b)
Q6. If , , are unit vectors then
(a) | | = | j | = | | (b) = =
(c) = 1, =1, =1 (d) None of these
Q7. Torque is an example of
(a) Scalar (b) Scalar Product
(c) Vector Product (d) All are correct
Q8. If sum of torque is equal to zero then body is in
(a) Equilibrium (b) Rotational Equilibrium
Linear Equilibrium (d) None of these
Q9. In cross product vectors
(a) Commute each other (b) Does not commute
Sometime commute sometime not (d) None of these
Q10. and are two vectors perpendicular to each other having same magnitude the
resultant has magnitude.
(a) A + B (b) +
(c) A2 + B2 (d)
Q11. means
(a) is parallel to (b) is perpendicular to
(c) | | = | | (d) = -
Q12. The unit of unit vector is
(a) m (b) cm
(c) No Unit (d) None of these
Q13. Unit of Torque is
(a) N (b) Nm
(c) Nm-1 (d) J sec
Q14. Correct statement of the following is
(a) (b)
Q15. is
(a) Commutative law (b) Parallelogram law
Q16. is
(a) Correct statement (b) Wrong statement
(c) Sometime correct sometime wrong (d) None of these
Q17. Ax = -ve, Ay = +ve then A lies at angle where
(a) 0° < < 90° (b) 90° < < 180°
(c) 180° < < 270° (d) 270° < < 360°
Q19. Ax = 2 units, Ay = 3 units, Az = ? of A = 5 units
(a) Az = 0 (b) Az = 10 Units
(c) Az = (d) None of these
Q20. then is
(a) 0 (b)
(c) Unit vectors (d) None of these
Q21. Choose the correct statement

(a) x x (b)
(c) (d) All statements are correct
Q22. Torque is an example of
(d) Dot product (b) Cross product
Scalar product (d) None of these
Q23. In dynamic equilibrium
(a) v = 0, a = 0 (b) v 0, a = 0
(c) v = 0, a 0 (d) v 0, a 0
Q24. and are in
(a) Opposite direction (b) Same direction
(c) Perpendicular (d) None of these
Q25. is a
(c) Both (d) None of these
Q26. is a
Q27. is an example of
(a) Scalar product (b) Vector product
(c) Scalar vector multiplication (d) None of these
Q28. If = 90°
(a) Sin > Cos (b) Cos >Sin
(c) Sin =Cos (d) None of these
Q29. If Ax and Ay are equal in magnitude then
(a) = 30° (b) = 45°
(c) = 90° (d) None of these
Q30. Magnitude can never be
(a) Negative (b) Positive
(c) Square (d) Zero
Q31. Force in vector form ( ) can be added only in

(a) Another force vector (b) Acceleration vector
(c) Velocity vector (d) Mass
Q32. The vector whose magnitude is one called
(a) Unit vector (b) Position vector
(c) Negative vector (d) None of these
Q33. The angle between and is

(a) 0° (b) 90°
(c) 180° (d) 45°
Q34. When a vector is multiplied by ‘-2’ its direction
(a) remains same (b) changes by 180°
(c) Becomes vertical (d) None not change
Q35. Position vector for pt P(x,y,z) in 3-dimension space is
(a) (b)
Q36. Horizontal and vertical components (of a vector) are equal at an angle
(a) 0° (b) 30°
(c) 45° (d) 60°
(e) 90° (f) 180°
Q37. Two forces of magnitudes F1 and F2 acting at an angle gives resultant of magnitude
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q38. The reverse process of vector addition is
(a) Vector multiplication (b) Vector resolution
(c) Subtraction of vectors (d) Negative of a vector
Q40. If then is
(a) Zero (b) Greater than both and
(c) Double than (d) Null vector
Q41. The dot product of two vectors vanishes if vectors are

(a) Parallel (b) Anti-parallel
(c) Perpendicular (d) None of these
Q42. If two non-zero vectors and are parallel to each other than
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q43. The cross product of vector A with itself i.e. is equal to
(a) A (b) 1
(c) 2A (d) A2 (e) None of these
Q44. is equal to
(a) 0 (b)
(c) - (d) 1
Q45. In IIIrd quad Rx and Ry are respectively

(a) + and + (b) - and +
(c) + and - (d) - and –
Q46. When two forces and making an angle of 180° with each other, the magnitude of
their resultant is
(a) F (b) ½F
(c) 0 (d) 2F
Q47. The formula of unit vector is
(a) (b)
(c)
Q48. is equal to
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q49. If Fy = 22.32N and Fx =18.66N fine = (appx.)

(a) 45° (b)
(c) (d)
Q50. Torque of a body can find with

(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q51. When torque is
(a) Minimum (b) Maximum
(c) Quarter (d) Half
Q52. The counter clockwise torques are
(a) Zero (b) -ve
(c) +ve (d) Infinite
Q53. If , what is correct
(a) Both are equal and opposite (b) Both are at right angle
(c) Both are parallel (d) Both are at 45°
PHYSICS
Test # 3
Q1. If velocity time graph is a straight line, then:

(a) Velocity is uniform (b) Acceleration is uniform
(c) Velocity is increasing (b) Acceleration is non-uniform
Q2. The slope of graph between displacement-time represents:
(a) Acceleration (b) Velocity
(c) Torque (D) Work
Q3. Dimensions of force are:
(a) (b)
Q4. Impulse is a quantity:
Q5. The trajectory of a projectile is:
(a) Half circle (b) Parabola
(c) Linear (d) None of these
Q6. The force required for 5Kg mass to accelerate it by is:
(a) (b) (5)(3)N
(c) N (d) Zero
Q7. The area of v-t graph along time axis represents:
(a) Acceleration (b) Distance
(c) Work (d) None of these
Q8. Laws of motions are valid in:
(a) Inertial fame of reference (b) Non-inertial frame of reference
Q9. The average and instantaneous acceleration will be equal when a body moves with:
(a) Constant velocity (b) Constant acceleration
(c) Variable acceleration (d) Variable velocity
Q10. When very small massive body collide with heavier body at rest, the velocity gained
by second body is:
(a) (b)
(c) Zero (d)
Q11. A body is thrown vertically upward with initial velocity . It will reach the height:
(a) 19.8m (b) 29.4m
(c) 9.8m (d) 4.9m
Q12. A force of 10N acts on a body for 5 sec., change in momentum is:
(a) (b) 50Ns
(c) 2NC (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Q13. One Newton is equal to:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q14. Acceleration of expressed in is:
(a) 324 (b) 5.4
(c) 5400 (d) 19440
Q15. Positive acceleration is in the direction of:
(a) Velocity (b) Displacement
(c) Momentum (d) All of these
Q16. The change in position of a body with respect to origin is:
(a) Displacement (b) Velocity
(d) Acceleration (d) S
Q17. In IIIrd quadrant:
(a) (b) Ax=+ve, Ay=-ve
(c) Ax=-ve, Ay=+ve (d) Ax=-ve, Ay=-ve
Q18. When a body is thrown upward, it has:
(a) +ve acceleration (b) -ve acceleration
(c) Zero acceleration (d) None of these
Q19. Maximum range of a projectile is at:
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 90°
Q20. Range of 60° is equal to range of:
(a) 30° (b) 90°
(c) 10° (d) 120°
Q21. Acceleration of different masses falling freely under gravity is:
(a) Same (b) Different
(c) Different at different heights (d) Different for different masses
Q22. Weight of a body having mass 5Kg is:
(a) 5N (b) 9.8N
(c) 19.6N (d) Zero
Q23. A body starts from rest after time ‘t’. Distance covered is:
(a) at (b)
(c) vt (d)
Q24. Force due to water flow depends upon speed and:
(a) (b) s/t
(c) ma (d) mg
Q25. Rocket motion is application of Newton’s:
(a) 1st law (b) 2nd law
(c) 3rd Law (d) None of these
Q26. In projectile motion:
(a) ax = 0 (b) ay = -g
Q27. Height of 60° is as compared with 30° at same velocity:
(a) Large (b) Small
(c) Equal (d) All of these
Q28. Range of a projectile is:
(a) (B)
(c) (d)
Q29. Area of , t graph represent (along t-axis):
(a) Velocity (b) Acceleration
(c) Distance (d) None of these
Q30. Unit of impulse is:
(a) Ns (b)
(c) N (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
PHYSICS
Test # 4
Q1. Work will be maximum if angle between and is

(a) 0° (b) 90°
(c) 45° (d) None of these
Q2. The S.I. unit of work is
(a) Joule (b) Newton
(c) Erg (d) Dyne
Q3. The dimensions of power are
(a) (b)
(c) (d) (e) None of these
Q4. One erg is equal to
(a) 105J (b) 107J
(c) 10-5J (d) 10-7J (e) None of these
Q5. A body is moving along horizontal its P.E. (gravitational)
(a) Remains same (b) Increasing
(d) Decreasing (d) None of these
Q6. The consumption of energy by 60 watt bulb in 2 sec is
(a) 120 joules (b) 30 joules
(c) 0 joules (d) 58 joules
Q7. The escape velocity on the surfaces of earth is
(a) (b)
(b) (d) 2gRe
Q8. The dimension of work are same as
(a) Force (b) Energy
(c) Momentum (d) Power
Q9. The energy stored in water dam is
(a) P.E (b) K.E
(c) Heat (d) Nuclear
Q10. Kilo watt hour is the unit of
(a) Power (b) Work
(c) Force (d) Momentum
Q11. Power is quantity
Q12. is equal to
(a) Work (b) Negative work
(c) Power (d) Negative power
Q13. A body of mass 2Kg has velocity of 10ms-1 when its height is 10 meter. Its total
energy is
(a) 296J (b) 196J
(c) 100J (d) None of these
Q14. Energy in dam water
(a) K.E (b) P.E
(c) Electric energy (d) None of these
Q15. Force and displacement are at right angle to each other, what is power
(a) (b) Maximum
Q16. Angle between F and d is 60°, work will be

(a) (b)
(c) Fd (d)
Q17. The dimensions of work are
(a) M2LT-1 (b) ML2T-2
(c) ML-1T (d) MLT-2
Q18. The energy stored in catapult is
(a) P.E (b) K.E
(c) Electric energy (d) None of these
Q19. The dot product of force and displacement is called
(a) Momentum (b) Work
(c) Power (d) None of these
Q20. π radian is equal to
(a) 0° (b) 90°
(c) 180° (d) 360°
Q21. Absolute value of gravitational P.E. on the surface of the earth is:
(a) Independent of mass of the bodies (b) Different for bodies at different mass
(c) Constant for all bodies (d) None of these
Q22. Escape velocity on the earth is given by:
(a) (b)
Q23. Work-energy principle can be put in mathematical form as:
(a) Work = (b) Work =
(c) Work = (d) Work =
Q24. Gravitation potential energy is a
(a) Negative quantity (b) Positive quantity
(c) Sometime +ve sometime –ve (d) None of these
Q25. The value of g at the center of earth is
(a) Zero (b) Maximum
(c) Minimum (d) None of these
Q26. Work is a quantity
(c) Both scalar and vector (d) None of these
Q27. If force and displacement are perpendicular to each other then power is:
(a) Maximum (b) 0
(c) Negative (d) None of these
Q28. ML2T2 are the dimensions of:
(a) Work (b) Force
(c) Energy (d) None of these
Q29. 1Kwh is equal to
(a) 3.6MJ (b) 3.6KJ
(c) 36MJ (d) 36KJ
Q30. hp is the unit of:
(a) Work (b) Power
(c) Force (d) None of these
PHYSICS
Test # 5
Q1. In one rotation body in angular motion covers angular displacement:

(a) 360° (b) radian
Q2. Angle between and is
(a) (b) 0 rad
(c0 rad (d) None of these
Q3. Moment of inertia is a
(a) Scalar quantity (b) Vector quantity
(c) Linear quantity (d) Basic quantity
Q4. is always in the direction of:
(a) Angular displacement (b) Angular velocity
Q5. Body in accelerated upward with acceleration ‘a’ having actual weight is equal to:
(a) w (b) w+ma
(c) w-ma (d) None of these
Q6. By increasing height from surface of earth orbital speed of a satellite becomes:
(a) Large (b) Small
(c) Same (d) None of these
Q7. Rotational KE of hoop is given by:
(a) (b)
Q8. If a disc and hoop of same mass and radius start moving down an inclined plane then:
(a) They will reach bottom of incline together (b) Hoop reached the bottom earlier
(c) Disc will reach the bottom earlier (d) None of these
Q9. The minimum velocity necessary to put a satellite into orbit is called:
(a) Orbit velocity (b) Terminal velocity
(c) Critical velocity (d) None of these
Q10. Real and apparent weight of an object in certain frame are:
(a) Always the same (b) Always different
(c) Some times different (d) All of these
Q11. When an elevator is accelerating upwards the apparent weight of a body of mass m
in it will be:
(a) mg (b) mg – ma
(c) mg + ma (d) 2mg
Q12. Direction of angular displacement is given by:
(a) Head to tail rule (b) Left hand rule
(c) Right hand rule (d) None of these
Q13. If s = 1m and r = 1m, then is:
(a) 1 radian (b) 57.3°
(c) Both 1 radian and 57.3° (d) All of these
Q14. Angular displacement is a:
(a) Vector quantity (b) Scalar quantity
(c) Unitless quantity (d) None of these
Q15. The rate of change of angular displacement is called:
(a) Velocity (b) Angular velocity
(c) Speed (d) None of these
Q16. The time rate of change of angular velocity is called:
(a) Acceleration (b) Linear acceleration
(c) Angular acceleration (d) All of these
Q17. In the fig. central angle is:

(a) 0° (b) 180°
(c) 57.3° (d) None of these
Q18. is equal to
(a) (b)
(c) Angular momentum (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
Q19. Unit of moment of inertia is:
(a) Kg m-2 (b) Kg m-1
(c) Kg m (d) None of these
Q20. The moment of inertia for rod of mass 3m and length l about the line through its
center and perpendicular to the rod is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q21. The rotational KE is given as:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q22. The period of a circular motion is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q23. The circumference subtends an angle
(a) radian (b) radians
(c) radians (d) radians
Q24. The angle subtended at the center of a circle by an arc equal in length to its radius is
called:
(a) Plane angle (b) Steradian
(c) Solid angle (b) Radian
Q25. When a body rotates in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity V and angular
speed w is:
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 90° (d) 180°
Q26. The angular speed for daily rotaion of the earth in rad/sec is:
(a) rad/sec (b) rad/sec
(c) rad/sec (d) rad/sec
Q27. The dimensions of moment of inertia are:
(a) [ML-2] (b) [ML-1]
(c) [ML2] (d) [M2L]
Q28. The angular momentum is given by
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q29. The minimum velocity required to put a satellite into the orbit is given by the
relation:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q30. The orbital velocity of a satellite is given by the relation:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
PHYSICS
Test # 6
Q1. Unit of velocity is:

(a) kgm-1s-1 (b) Kgm-1s-2
(c) Kgms-1 (d) None of these
Q2. When body moves with terminal velocity, net force is:
(a) Maximum (b) mg-ma
(c) Zero (d) All of these
Q3. Dimensions of ( Avt) are:
(a) LT-1 (b) L
(c) M (d) ML-3
Q4. 1 torr is equal to
(a) 1 atm (B) 1.33 Nm-2
(c) 133.3Nm-2 (d) 120Nm-2
Q5. At the stage of terminal velocity, a falling drop has acceleration equal to:
(a) Zero (b) g
(c) -g (d) Less than g
Q6. According to equation of continuity, velocity of a fluid is ______ to area of pipe.
(a) Directly proportional (b) Inversely proportional
Q7. Where the speed is high, pressure will be:
(a) Low (b) High
(c) Equal as (d) Negative
Q8. According to torricells theorem is equal to:
(a) v1 (b) v2
(c) P (d) P1
Q9. The irregular or unsteady how is called:
(a) Laminar flow (b) Streamline How
(c) Turbulent How (d) None of these
Q10. When body attains terminal velocity, its acceleration:
(a) Becomes large (b) Becomes small
(c) Remains constant (d) Is zero
Q11. Where cross-sectional area is large in a pipe, there pressure of moving fluid is:
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Constant (d) None of these
Q12. It is difficult to move
(a) For large size body in fluid (b) At large velocity of body in fluid
(c) In viscous medium (d) All of these
Q13. Density of water is:
(a) 100Kg/m3 (b) 1g/cm3
(c) 10g/dm3 (d) None of these
Q14. Pressure difference in venturi relations is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q15. Viscosity of water as compared with air is:
(a) Small (b) Large
Q16. Systolic pressure of normal human body is equal to:
(a) 180 torr (b) 90 torr
(c) 80 torr (d) 120 torr
Q17. Viscosity of air in (Nsm-2) is
(a) 0.295 x 10-3 (b) 0.510 x 10-3
(c) 1.6 x 10-3 (d) 0.019 x 10-3
Q18. Law of conservation of mass gives which of the equations?

(a) Continuity (b) Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) Blood flow (d) None of these
Q19. The SI unit of viscosity is:
(a) Kgm-1S-2 (b) Kgm-1S-1
(b) KgmS-1 (d) Kgm-1S-1
Q20. Human blood pressure is measured in:
(a) Nm-2 (b) mm
(c) Pascal (d) cm
Q21. Blood is an
(a) Compressible fluid (b) Incompressible fluid
(c) Ideal fluid (d) Perfect fluid
Q22. Cross-sectional area of cylinder of radius “r” is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q23. A two meter high tank is full of water. A hole appears at its middle, what is the
speed of efflux?
(a) 3.75ms-1 (b) 1.91ms-1
(c) 4.42ms-1 (d) 5.11ms-1
Q24. The terminal velocity of water droplet of radius 1 x 10-4m and density 1000Kgm-1
descending through air of viscosity 19x10-6Kgm-1S-1 is:
(a) 2.5ms-1 (b) 3.2ms-1
(c) 4.3ms-1 (d) 1.1ms-1
Q25. Stock’s law holds for:
(a) Spherical bodies (b) Cylindrical bodies
(c) Cubical bodies (d) Body of any shape
Q26. According to equation of continuity:
(a) A1v2=A2v1 (b) A1A2=v1v2
(c) (d)
Q27. Bernollis theorem is written as:
(a) constant (b) AV=constant
(c) constant (d) None of these
Q28. Air always moves from a region of;
(a) Lower pressure to higher pressure (b) Higher pressure to lower pressure
(c) Greater height to less height (c) None of these
Q29. Bernolli’s theorem is:
(a) Law of conservation of energy (b) Law of conservation of mass
(c) Law of conservation of pressure (d) None of these
Q30. Dimensions of viscosity are:
(a) [MLT-1] (b) [ML2T-1]
(c) [ML-1T-1] (d) [ML-1T-2]
PHYSICS
Test # 7
Q1. The oscillatory motion which repeats itself after equal intervals of time is called:
(a) Periodic motion (b) Orbital motion
(c) Circular motion (d) None of these
Q2. Motion of a simple pendulum is:
(a) Periodic (b) S.H.M.
(c) Vibratory (d) All of these
Q3. In S.H.M. f and are related as:
(a) (b)
(b) (d) None of these
Q4. Time period of a simple pendulum depends upon:
(a) Length of pendulum (b) Acceleration due to gravity
(C) Both (d) None of these
Q5. Time period of second’s pendulum is:
(a) 2 second (b) 1 second
(c) second (d) None of these
Q6. The acceleration at mean position of simple harmonic oscillator is:
(a) Zero (b) Max
(c) -ve (d) None of these
Q7. If time period of oscillator is increased, then frequency will:
(a) Increased (b) Remains same
(c) Decreased (d) None of these
Q8. Angular frequency of oscillator of time period sec is:
(a) 50Hz (b)
(c) (d)
Q9. If length of simple pendulum is increased 4 times then time period becomes:
(a) 2 times (b) times
(c) 4 times (d) times
Q10. Such oscillations in which the amplitude decreases steadily with time, are called:
(a) Harmonic oscillations (b) Damped oscillations
(c) Free oscillations (d) None of these
Q11. Maximum velocity of spring attached body is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q12. The time taken to complete one vibration is called:
(a) Frequency (b) Time period
(c) Amplitude (d) Revolution
Q13. The maximum KE of the mass attached to an elastic spring is given by:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q14. The length of second pendulum is:
(a) 2m (b) 0.5m
(c) 0.992m (d) 4m
Q15. In damped oscillations, the decrease in amplitude caused by:
(a) Frictional forces (b) Oscillation
(c) Time period (d) Frequency
Q16. A toy train runs around a circular track of diameter 10 feet at a constant speed of 1
ft/sec. What is period of the motion
(a) sec (b)
(c) sec (d) sec
Q17. The relation between frequency and time period is:
(a) (b)
(c) (c)
Q18. The unit of spring constant “K” are:
(a) Joule sec (b) Newton sec
(c) Newton-meter-1 (d) Newton meter
Q19. According to Hooks law
(a) (b) F=-kx
9c) F=ma (d)
Q20. All vibratory motions are:
(a) To and Fro (b) S.H.M.
(c) Restoring (d) None of these
Q21. 30 vibrations are calculated in 3 seconds then time period is:
(a) 10 Hz (b) 10 Sec
(c) 0.1Hz (d) 0.1 Sec
Q22. If a spring is cut into two equal halves, then spring constant of each becomes:
(a) Half (b) Doubled
(c) Remains same (d)
Q23. Time period of mass attached to spring is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q24. S.H.M. are:
(a) In same direction (b) In opposite direction
(c) Equal (d) In phase
Q25. If a pendulum is shifted from Muree to Karachi then its period will be:
(a) Remains same (b) Decrease
(c) Increase (d) Slightly decreased
Q26. At mean position, the K.E of simple pendulum is:
(c) Zero (d) None of these
Q27. The resonance curve for heavily damped system is:
(a) Abrupt (b) Flat
(c) Straight line (d) None of these
Q28. for oscillator in SHM is at
(a) x=0 (b)
(c) At extreme position (d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Q29. Time period of same simple pendulum on the moon as compared with earth is:
(a) Large (b) Small
Q30. , when phase is:
(a) Zero (b)
(c) (d)
PHYSICS
Test # 8
Q1. It is difficult to recognize the beats if beat frequency is more than:
(a) 2Hz (b) 10Hz
(c) 512Hz (d) 3Hz
Q2. A string is vibrating in two loops, its frequency is:
(a) (b)
Q3. Value of at STP is:
(a) 1.4 (b)
(c) 333ms-1 (d) None of these
Q4. Water waves are:
(a) Mechanical (b) Transverse
Q5. When source is moving towards listner then wavelength (apparent) for listner
Q6. When listner is moving away from source then apparent wavelength for listner:
Q7. The waves which does not require any medium are called:
(a) Matter waves (b) Mechanical waves
(c) Electromagnetic waves (d) None of these
Q8. The correct formula for velocity of sound is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q9. The velocity of sound in solids is ________ than in air:
(a) Less (b) Greater
(c) Neither less nor greater (d) Very less
Q10. The standard value of velocity of sound in air at 0°C is:
(a) 0 (b)
Q11. When listner moves towards source, apparent frequency is:
(a) Decreased (b) Increased
Q12. The waves in which particle medium vibrate perpendicular to propagation of waves:
(a) Transverse waves (b) Longintudal waves
(c) E.M.W (d) None of these
Q13. Product of frequency and wavelength is:
(a) Velocity (b) Acceleration
(c) Time period (d) None of these
Q14. Laplace’s formula for speed of sound is:
(a) Correct (b) Incorrect
(c) Correct at 0°C (d) None of these
Q15. In stationary waves, distance between two consecutive nodes is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q16. Apparent change in frequency due to relative motion of source and observer is:
(a) Doppler’s effect (b) Accoustics
(c) Beats (d) None of these
Q17. Water waves are:
(a) Longitudinal (b) Transverse
Q18. Node and Anti-node are in:
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Standing waves
Q19. Ratio between is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d) Pressure
Q20. By increasing density of medium, velocity of sound:
(a) Remains constant (b) Increases
(c) Decreases (d) None of these
Q21. Beats are formed by:
(a) One source (b) Two sources
(c) Three sources (d) Four sources
Q22. It is difficult to recognize the beats if beats frequency is:
(a) Larger than 20Hz (b) Less than 20Hz
(c) Larger than 10Hz (d) Less than 5Hz
Q23. Time required to pass three wavelengths through a certain point:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q24. Amplitude of node is:
(C) Either maximum or minimum (d) None of these
Q25. When the amplitude of a wave becomes double, its energy becomes:
(a) Double (b) Four times
(c) One-half (d) Nine times
Q26. The distance between a node and anti-node is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q27. The wavelength of the fundamental mode of vibration of a closed end pipe is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q28. The distance between two consecutive troughs or crests is equal to:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q29. Increase in velocity of sound in air for 1°C rise in temperature is:
(a) 1.61ms-1 (b) 61.0 ms-1
(c) 0.61 ms-1 (d) 2.00 ms-1
Q30. Sounds of frequencies higher than 20000Hz are called:
(a) Supersonic (b) Infrasonic
(c) Ultrasonic (d) Audible soundwaves
Q31. Two forces of frequencies 260Hz and 257Hz are sounded together, the number of
beats per second is:
(a) Zero (B) 4
(c) 3 (d) 257
Q32. If 20 waves pass through in the medium in 1 sec, with speed 20 ms-1, then
wavelength is:
(a) 20m (b) 2m
(c) 400m (d) 1m
Q33. The speed of sound in air is independent of:
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure
(c) Medium (d) Source producing sound
Q34. Dog can hear the sound in the range of (in Hz):
(a) 150-150,000 (b) 60-70,000
(c) 15-50,000 (d) 20-20,000
Q35. The waves which propagate by re-oscillation of material particles are known as:
(a) E.M Waves (b) Mechanical waves
(c) Progressive waves (d) None of these
Q36. At S.T.P. value of is:
(a) (b)
Q37. If a transverse wave is reflected from waves medium, it is reflected:
(a) By a phase change of (b) Without any change in phase
(c) By a phase change of or 180° (d) None of these
Q38. In reaction (speed of stationary wave) is the unit of m is:
(a) Kg (b) Kgm3
(c) Kgm-1 (d) None of these
Q39. Listner is moving towards source, the actual wavelength emitted by source is , the
apparent wavelength is:
(a) (b)
Q40. Effect of pressure “P” on the speed of sound “v” is:
(a) No effect (b)
PHYSICS
Test # 9
Q1. To rotate a polarized light we use:

(a) Polaried (b) Certain organic substances like sugar
(c) Slits (d) None of these
Q2. The scientist who study atomic structure by using x-rays diffrection is:
(a) Young (b) Huygen
(c) Bragg brothers (d) None of these
Q3. is equation given by:
(a) Young (b) Huygen
(c) Bragg brothers (d) Newton
Q4. The distance between two adjacent bright fringes in Young’s experiment as
compared with the distance between dark fringes is:
(a) Large (b) Small
Q5. Gratings are used for the most precise measurement of:
(a) Wavelength (b) Atomic size
(c) Interference (d) None of these
Q6. For small value of
(a) (b)
Q7. For distractive interference, the path difference will be:
(a) (b)
Q8. A surface passing through all points undergoing a similar disturbance (i.e. having
same phase) at a given instant is called:
(a) Wavelets (b) Wave front
(c) Resultant wave (d) None of these
Q9. In case of point source, the wave fronts are:
(a) Circular (b) Plans
(c) Spherical (d) Cylindrical
Q10. Electromagnetic waves transport:
(a) Energy (b) Momentum
(c) Both energy and momentum (d) None of these
Q11. In Young’s double slit experiment, path difference for two bright fringes is given
by:
(a) (b)
Q12. In Michelson interferometer, the displacement covered by mirror is given a:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q13. is condition obtained in:
(a) X-rays diffrection (b) Young double slit experiment
(c) Diffrection grating (d) Newton’s rings
Q14. The wave nature of light was proposed by:
(a) Young (b) Fresnel
(c) Maxwell (d) Huygen
Q15. The speed of light in vacuum depends upon:

(a) Time period (b) Frequency
(c) Wavelength (d) None of all
Q16. Huygen’s principle is used to find:
(a) Explain polarization (b) Locate wave front
(c) Speed of light (d) Index of refraction
Q17. The velocity of light was determined accurately by:
(a) Newton (b) Michelson
(c) Huygen (d) Young
Q18. A white light beam when passed through a prism is:
(a) Emerge (b) Diffracted
(c) Dispersed (d) Polarized
Q19. The fringe spacing in a double slit experiment can be increased by decreasing:
(a) Wavelength of light (b) Width of slits
(c) Slit separation (d) None of these
Q20. Resolving power has unit:
(a) Meter (b) Radian
(c) No unit (d) Degree
Q21. Bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is called:
(a) Refraction (b) Polarization
(c) Interference (d) Diffraction
Q22. Which one of the following cannot be polarized:
(a) Radio wave (b) Ultraviolet rays
(b) X-rays (d) Sound waves
Q23. The index of refraction of a medium depends on:
(a) Nature of medium (b) Wavelength of light
(c) Frequency of light (d) Velocity of light
Q24. Optics is the branch of physics in which we study the properties of light as its:
(a) Wave nature (b) Particle nature
(c) Dual nature (d) None of these
Q25. Two ore more than two sources having a constant phase difference of emitted
monochromatic waves are called:
(a) Similar sources (b) Coherent sources
(c) Individual sources (d) None of these
Q26. In Young’s fringes result, dark fringes called:
(a) Maxima (b) Minima
(c) Coherent (d) Monochromatic
Q27. The first dark fringe in Young’s experiment having:
(a) m=0 (b) m=1
(c) m= (d)
Q28. The center of Newton’s rings for reflected light is always:
(a) Bright (b) Dark
(c) Either dark or bright (d) None of these
Q29. The phenomenon shows the transverse behaviour of light is:
(a) Interference (b) Differection
(c) Refraction (d) Polarization
Q30. Laser beam propagate:
(a) Spherically (b) Cylindrically
(c) Conically (d) None of these
PHYSICS
Test # 10
Q1. The diameter of a lens is called:

(a) Focal length (b) Principal axis
(c) Optical center (d) Aperture
Q2. In going from a denser to rarer medium, a ray of light is:
(a) Undeviated (b) Bent away from normal
(c) Bent towards the normal (d) Diffracted
Q3. Least distance of distinct vision for normal human eye is:
(a) 15cm (b) 25cm
(c) 30cm (d) 40cm
Q4. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is M=
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q5. For glass-air boundary, the value of critical angle
(a) 37° (b) 50°
(c) 41.8° d) 48°
Q6. The diameter of single mode step fibre core is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q7. The magnifying power of a convex lens of focal length 5cm is:
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 20
Q8. The focal length ‘f’ and radius of currature are related by:
(a) (b)
(c) R=f (d) None of these
Q9. The resolving power is expressed by a formula:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q10. The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is:
(a) 2f (b) 2.5f
(c) 3f (d) 4f
Q11. The magnifying power of a convex lens of focal length 5cm is:
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 20
Q12. The real image formed by a convex lens of focal length 10cm is twice the size of
object. The position of the object from lens is:
(a) 15cm (b) 20cm
(c) 50cm (d) 30cm
Q13. If an object is placed away from 2f of a converging (convex) lens, then the image
will be:
(a) Virtual (b) Real and erect
(c) Real and inverted (d) Virtual and erect
Q14. The unit of power of lens is:
(a) Meter (b) Watt
(c) Newton (d) Dioptre
Q15. The distance between principal focus and the optical center of the les is called:
(a) Radius of curvature (b) Focal length
(c) Aperture (d) Principal axis
Q16. In human eye, the natural lens is:
(a) Concave (b) Convex
(c) Plano convex (d) None of these
Q17. Magnifying power of astronomical telescope is:
(a) (b)
Q18. f=5cm of simple microscope gives magnification:
(a) 5 (b) 6
Q19. Resolving power has unit:
(a) m (b) Radian
(c) No unit (d) None of these
Q20. Refrective index of core as compare with cladding in optical fibre is:
(a) Large (b) Small
Q21. Least distance of distinct vision is:
(a) 0.25m (b) 25cm
(c) 250mm (d) All are correct
Q22. According to Rayleigh, the resolving power of lens is of diameter ‘D’ is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q23. In telescope final image is:
(a) Virtual (b) Real
(c) Small (d) All of these
Q24. Spectrometer consists of how many main parts?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q25. The phenomenon used in optical fibre is:
(a) Reflection (b) refraction
(c) Diffrection (d) Totally internal reflection
Q26. What type of device is used in transmitter for optical fibre?
(a) LED (b) Diode
(c) Photodiode (d) None of these
Q27. Infrared light has the wavelength:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q28. Alexender Graham Bell invented:
(a) Wireless (b) Radio
(c) Transmitter (d) Photo phone
Q29. Speed of light is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d) 332m/sec2
Q30. Angle of incident for which angle of refraction is 90° is called:
(a) Diffraction angle (b) Minimum deviation
(c) Critical angle (d) None of these
Q31. According to Snell’s law:
(a) (b)
Q32. Large aperture of eye piece as compared with objective is in:
(a) Simple microscope (b) Compound microscope
(b) Astronomical microscope (d) All of these
Q33. Virtual image is formed always by:
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens
(c) Plane lens (d) None of these
Q34. In optical fibre refretive index of core as compared with cladding is:
(a) Large (b) Small
Q35. Converging lens in the name of:
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens
(c) Plane lens (d) None of these
PHYSICS
Test # 11
Q1. Fahrenheit and centigrade thermometers have the same reading at:
(a) 100° (b) 60°
(c) 40° (d) -40°
Q2. Temperature of human body on Kelvin scale is:
(a) 273K (b) 373K
(c) 310K (d) 236K
Q3. The value of universal gas constant “R” in SI units is in (J/mole-K)
(a) 83.10 (b) 8314
(c) 831.4 (d) 8.314
Q4. The unit of pressure of gas is
(a) (b) One pascal
(c) One atmosphere (d) All of the above
Q5. The temperature of a system remains constant in:
(a) Adiabatic process (b) Isobaric process
(c) Isothermal process (d) Adiabatic process
Q6. For a mono atomic gas , therefore gamma ‘ ’ for this gas is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Q7. Food is cooked quicker in pressure cooker because it is:
(a) Made of metal (b) Conductor of heat
(c) No heat is lost (d) Raise the boiling point
Q8. General gas law or general gas equation is derived from:
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law
(c) Arogadro’s law (d) All of the above
Q9. The concept of entropy was introduced by R. Clausius in the year:
(a) 1840 (b) 1856
(c) 1850 (d) 1860
Q10. The highest efficiency of a heat engine whose lower temperature is 17°C and the
high temperature of 200°C is:
(a) 70% (b) 100%
(c) 35% (d) 38%
Q11. The sum of all forms of molecular energies of substance is called:
(a) Temperature (b) Heat
(c) Pressure (d) Internal energy
Q12. One mole of any substance contains:
(a) Some number of molecules (b) Different number of molecules
Number of molecules depend upon nature of the gas (d) None of these
Q13. Efficiency of diesel engine is:
(a) 5%-10% (b) 10%-20%
(c) 35%-40% (d) 20%-25%
Q14. Pressure of gas is:
(a) (b)
Q15. Carnot engine gives efficiency as compared with other engines:
(a) Maximum (b) Equal
(c) Sometime maximum (d) None of these
Q16. In adiabatic process:

(a) Q=0 (b)
(c) W=0 (d) None of these
Q17. Unit of Entrapy is:
(a) No unit (b)
(c) Pascal (d) Calorie
Q18. Unit of is:
(a) J/K (b)
Q19. In isothermal process:
(a) Temperature is not constant (b)
(c) Q=0 (d) W=0
Q20. Unit of “ ” is:
(a) Pascal (b)
(c) Joule (d) None of these
Q21. Value of Boltzman constant is:
(a) (b)
(c) 273k (d) None of these
Q22. In case of adiabatic process:
(a) PV=Constant (b)
= Constnat
(c) V/T=Constant (d) None of these
Q23. as compared with is:
(a) Small (b) Large
Q24. The area of P-V graph for Carnot engine represents:
(a) Efficiency (b) Work
(c) Power (d) None of these
Q25. If system goes to disorder we say its Entropy:
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remain same (d) None of these
Q26. For ideal heat engine:
(a) (b)
Q27. Triple point of is:
(a) 0°C (b) 273.16k
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) 373.16k
Q28. In the given plot of P-V
Curve 1 is:
(a) Isotherm (b) Adiabat
(c) Isobaric (d) None of these
Q29. In above plot of P-V, curve 2 is:
(a) Isotherm (b) Adiabat
(c) Isobaric (d) None of these
Q30. PV=NkT where N is:
(a) Number of moles (b) Number of molecules
(c) Number of molecules per unit volume (d) None of these
Q31. In refrigerator by using energy we can make it possible for heat to flow from:
(a) Hot to cold body (b) Cold to hot body
Q32. When water freezes to convert in ice, Entropy of system:
(a) Remains constant (b) Increases
(c) Decreases (d) None of these

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FULL BOOK TEST

Q15. 43.75 is rounded as:

Q21. Choose the correct statement

Q31. Force in vector form ( ) can be added only in

Q33. The angle between and is

Q41. The dot product of two vectors vanishes if vectors are

Q45. In IIIrd quad Rx and Ry are respectively

Q49. If Fy = 22.32N and Fx =18.66N fine = (appx.)

Q50. Torque of a body can find with

Q1. If velocity time graph is a straight line, then:

Q1. Work will be maximum if angle between and is

Q16. Angle between F and d is 60°, work will be

Q1. In one rotation body in angular motion covers angular displacement:

Q17. In the fig. central angle is:

Q1. Unit of velocity is:

Q18. Law of conservation of mass gives which of the equations?

Q1. To rotate a polarized light we use:

Q15. The speed of light in vacuum depends upon:

Q1. The diameter of a lens is called:

Q16. In adiabatic process:

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