1.

Price dumping, the practice of selling goods at below homemarket prices or production costs in order to gain foreign market share; it receives more criticism from consumer advocates than from officials. A. in order to gain foreign market share; it receives more criticism from consumer advocates than from officials B. in order to gain foreign market share, receives more criticism from consumer advocates than do officials C. in order to gain foreign market share, it receives more criticism from consumer advocates than from among officials D. in order to gain foreign market share; it receives more criticism from consumer advocates than do officials E. in order to gain foreign market share, receives more criticism from consumer advocates than from officials

2. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium. A. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium B. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies C. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, small, emergent economies are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance as established economies D. Because small, emergent economies are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to them in the same way they apply to established economies E. Small, emergent economies are not subject to the applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance in the same way as established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium

The rediscovery of the coelacanth and the subsequent quest for its contemporary habitat is one of the most thrilling stories in the annals of biological science, but it began with a seemingly minor happenstance. In 1938, a South African museum curator named Marjorie Courtenay-Latimer laid eyes on a spiny, fourfinned creature while examining the contents of a common fisher's net. She immediately understood that the strange bluemauve fish was something out of the ordinary. Library research confirmed it: The only reference images that matched the appearance of the strange fish were those of a 250-millionyear-old fossil. Immediately, Courtenay-Latimer dispatched a telegram to British fish expert Professor J. L. B. Smith to confirm her discovery, and word came back that she was correct. However, in a hasty attempt to preserve the fish, its internal organs were unfortunately disposed of, leaving vital questions about the nature of this living fossil unanswered. Given the vast scientific appeal of the newly found coelacanth, the only solution was to find another specimen-a project that Professor Smith personally spearheaded. An epic odyssey ensued as Smith joined forces with researchers, fishermen, and ship captains from around the Indian Ocean to spread word of the search for the coelacanth. Finally, in 1952, fishers in the partially French-controlled Comoros Islands produced a second coelacanth-this time with organs intact. Smith was overjoyed at the discovery but was soon deterred by French colonial officials, who, wanting to assert their sovereignty, put an embargo on all but French research into the matter. It was not until the 1970s, after the islands became independent, that the coelacanth's Comoros habitat was discovered: caves in deep-sea reefs, which the creatures leave only for brief forays into the open water. This hermetic lifestyle helped to explain how these living relics remained such a secret for so long. 3. The author's main objective is to

A. describe the discovery of and hunt for a living fossil. B. highlight the amateurish methods of 1930s science. C. dramatize the rarity of the coelacanth's discovery. D. demonstrate the classic stages of a scientific investigation. E. provide a detailed description of a rare sea creature.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that A. the preserved coelacanth brought large sums of money to Marjorie Courtenay-Latimer. B. the search for the coelacanth initially focused on the wrong parts of the ocean. C. had the need not arisen to find another coelacanth, its habitat would never have been found. D. the discovery of the coelacanth was a surprise to the scientific community of the time. E. the coelacanth fossil had a considerably different appearance from that of the living example.

5. The author mentions the fisher's net in the opening story in order to A. underscore the struggle for survival in early 20thcentury South Africa. B. demonstrate the nature of 1930s marine biology methods. C. embellish the story with an interesting detail. D. highlight the ordinary circumstances that surrounded Courtenay-Latimer's discovery of the fish. E. give due credit for the discovery of the coelacanth.

African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries. Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

6. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

7. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

8. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

9. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

10. In spite of his frequent endeavors to do it, Frank has not been able to obtain a position as the chair of the Lighthouse Renovation project. A. his frequent endeavors to do it, Frank has not been able to B. him frequently endeavoring to do so, Frank has not been able to C. his frequently endeavoring to do so, Frank cannot D. his frequent endeavor to do so, Frank was not able to E. his frequent endeavors to do so, Frank has not been able to

In 2008, Fuzzy Math devoted 20 percent of employee hours to developing five new applications, 40 percent to product testing, and the remainder to consulting work. In that same year, Inversoft devoted 10 percent of its employee hours to developing five new applications and 80 percent to product testing. Fuzzy Math's five new applications were downloaded 1,200,000 times, whereas Inversoft's five new applications were downloaded 2,400,000 times. 11. Which of the following assertions is best supported by the data above? A. Total time devoted to product testing is directly related to the number of times an application is downloaded. B. Fuzzy Math devoted more time to the development of its applications in 2008 than did Inversoft. C. Inversoft's total income from the distribution of applications produced in 2008 was higher than that of Fuzzy Math. D. In 2008, Fuzzy Math devoted a larger percentage of employee time to consulting work than did Inversoft. E. Inversoft's five new applications were downloaded more than those produced by Fuzzy Math because Inversoft devoted more time to product testing its applications.

12. During its last meeting, the Board of Directors did not censure the company's chief executive because it could not reach consensus in regards to apparent mismanagement. A. it could not reach consensus in regards to B. it could not reach consensus on C. the directors could not reach consensus on D. the directors could not reach consensus in regards to E. they could not reach consensus in regards to

Unmaintained areas of contiguous stands of forest are particularly vulnerable to hard-to-control wildfires, and logging practices can exacerbate conditions when unsellable lumber debris is scattered or, worse still for firefighters, piled and abandoned. Prescribed burning, carried out with careful consideration for air quality and the potential for runoff of ash into streams and lakes, need not occur yearly nor need the area be completely burned. Once maintenance is established and assuming normal rainfall patterns, a partial burn every three to four years will prevent fuel continuity, reducing the risk of catastrophic wildfire. Once previous burns have decreased available deadwood fuel, foresters may employ patchy burns, leaving stands of unburned vegetation in the midst of treated areas rather than allowing the fire to progress to full coverage of the area. The practical results of prescribed burns go well beyond fire control and mitigation of damage caused by wildfire to businesses and personal investments in increasingly populated forest areas. After well-managed burns, biodiversity increases because of the destruction of fast-growing species that would otherwise monopolize resources, crowding out other plants and decreasing available varieties of habitat. One category of unwanted species in particular is kept in check by prescribed burns: such pests as insects and plant diseases. In addition, species that are fire-dependent for propagation benefit from controlled burns, so the aesthetic value of scenic and recreational areas is also enhanced. Particularly when well-planned patchy burns are prescribed and the top story of vegetation is preserved, the resulting visual contrasts are pleasing to the eye. 13. The passage suggests that A. homeowners should avoid forested areas when choosing a place to live.

B. prescribed burns are not needed in grassland or coastal plain areas where trees are not concentrated. C. aesthetic results should be the guiding principle of prescribed burning. D. because prescribed burns can become uncontrolled burns, evacuation of affected areas should precede any prescribed burns. E. careful practices by logging companies would reduce the danger of catastrophic wildfire.

14. What function does the second paragraph perform in the passage? A. It explains that prescribed burns control pests and increase biodiversity. B. It describes conditions under which prescribed burns may safely be carried out so foresters and area residents remain safe. C. It presents benefits of prescribed burns, thus adding a further argument to the need for prescribed burns. D. It persuades area residents to allow prescribed burns near their businesses and homes. E. It catalogues the plant and animal species that benefit from prescribed burns.

15. Which statement below, if added to the passage, would most likely convince homeowners whose houses are near the areas of prescribed burns to agree that such burns are necessary, despite the temporary declines in air quality and aesthetics? A. Well-managed burns protect seed trees while eliminating ground debris. B. Burning at a time of high winds and warm temperatures risks greater scorch damage to trees marked for preservation. C. Logging businesses can pile unsellable wood so that it is less of a hindrance to tractor plows working the area. D. If not burned off, piles of deadwood hinder the construction of fire lines that hold back advancing wildfires. E. Prescribed burns are usually carried out several weeks before seed fall of the dominant species.

16. Some owners of classic literature consider themselves stewards of a priceless piece of history, responsible for maintaining it in the current generation and passing it on to the next where conditions are right to do it in the future. A. passing it on to the next where conditions are right to do it in the future B. passing them on to the next where conditions are right to do so in the future C. passing them on to the next generation when conditions are right to do it in the future D. passing it on to the next when conditions are right to do so E. passing it on to the next generation if conditions were right in the future

17. Local public schools face their declining science budgets; spurring school administrators throughout the state to increasingly restrict laboratory materials and teacher salaries. A. their declining science budgets; spurring B. a decline in their science budgets, which spurs C. declining science budgets; this decline has spurred D. their declining science budgets, that spurs E. declining science budgets; they spur

The incidence of eating disorders in teens has decreased sharply over the past decade. Some health professionals claim that this is the result of two major efforts. First, improved training for school counselors and administrators allows for more rapid detection of at-risk youth before dangerous eating behavior escalates. Second, media watchdog groups have put pressure on the national television networks to set better role models by utilizing actors with more typical body types. However, a comparable decrease in the incidence of eating disorders has occurred in countries where no media intervention or training for school officials exists. It must be concluded that the cause of the decrease in the incidence of eating disorders is increased intervention by parents in the eating habits of their children. 18. Which of the following indicates a flaw in the argument's reasoning? A. Most teens are not forthcoming about their own eating and body image issues. B. Symptoms that define an eating disorder are not clear. C. Media intervention, training in schools, and parental involvement are not the only possible causes for the decrease in the incidence of eating disorders. D. Teens who have poor media role models are not often seen to be at risk by school counselors. E. Countries with no media intervention are the most likely to have increased parental involvement.

Coach: This season, our women's basketball team will advance to the regional semifinals despite the recent injury to our first-string point guard. It is typically true that the midseason loss of a player, particularly one who leads the division in assists, has a devastating effect on the ability of a team to play as a cohesive unit. However, the secondstring point guard's average number of assists per game is higher than the regional average, and she exhibits better scoring techniques than the injured player. 19. The boldfaced statements in the argument above play which of the following roles? A. The first describes a pattern of cause and effect; the second describes a situation for which this pattern will not hold. B. The first is the coach's prediction; the second is reasoning offered in support of this prediction. C. The first is an undisputed statement of fact; the second is a position that is supported by this fact. D. The first is a conclusion drawn by the coach; the second is evidence that weighs against the coach's conclusion. E. The first is a consideration that weighs against the coach's prediction; the second is that prediction.

Since its inception in 1944, the GI Bill has provided financial assistance to American war veterans seeking to further their education, buy a home, or launch a small business. Moreover, the system put in place by the GI Bill has always been financially stable. The best way to further this academic and social investment in America's future is to maintain the GI Bill in its current state. 20. The answer to which of the following questions would be most useful in evaluating the argument's conclusion? A. How many war veterans have lived in America since the passing of the GI Bill? B. Over the course of its existence, how many American war veterans could have benefitted from the GI Bill but did not? C. What methods have the British and French governments used to provide assistance to war veterans for education, housing, and small business ownership? D. What is the average level of education among American war veterans? E. Are the GI Bill's effects on education, home, and small business attainment likely to change in the coming years?

21. It was not long after the 1960s commenced that such acting teachers as Sanford Meisner and Lee Strasburg contributed to the dissemination of a type of craft that later became known as ""method acting."" A. It was not long after the 1960s commenced that such acting teachers as Sanford Meisner and Lee Strasburg contributed to B. Not long after the commencement of the decade of the 1960s, acting teachers such as Sanford Meisner and also Lee Strasburg decided to contribute in C. Not long after the beginning of the 1960s commencement, acting teachers like Sanford Meisner and Lee Strasburg had contributed to D. Not long after the 1960s commenced, acting teachers such as Sanford Meisner and Lee Strasburg contributed to E. It was not long after the 1960s commenced that acting teachers such as Sanford Meisner and Lee Strasburg had contributed in

22. Blue ridge coral, native to the Indian Ocean from Indonesia through Thailand and thought of as being the most magnificent of all coral, grow on steep ridges nearly 30 feet below the ocean surface. A. of as being the most magnificent of all coral, grow B. of as being the most magnificent of all coral, grows C. to be the most magnificent of all coral, grow D. to be the most magnificent of all coral, grows E. of as the most magnificent of all coral, grow

23. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal. A. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal B. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal C. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while an infinite and ready-made supply of environments is at the disposal of astronomers D. The fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments while astronomers have an infinite and readymade supply of environments at their disposal is one reason, late in their careers, some particle physicists are switching to astronomy E. The existence of an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at the disposal of astronomers compared with the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments suggests one reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers

Country X has recently experienced an outbreak of bovine spongiform encephalopathy, commonly known as mad cow disease. Local health organizations have claimed that the drastic rise in the number of infected cattle is a direct result of last month's mad cow outbreak in neighboring Country Y. In response to this claim, the agriculture board in Country X suggests restricting the import of cattle from Country Y to only those cattle tested to be free of the disease. 24. Which of the following, if true, most strongly suggests that the proposed restriction will NOT help suppress the spread of mad cow disease in Country X? A. Current technology is not capable of detecting all carriers of mad cow disease. B. Country X does not have the resources to examine all cattle from Country Y. C. Mad cow disease is not spread through contact with diseased cattle. D. Cattle from Country Y will no longer be imported into Country X if the proposal is implemented. E. Country Z, which also neighbors Country Y, has not experienced an increase in cases of mad cow disease.

25. Kurt Vonnegut named a fictional character Kilgore Trout, in homage to the science fiction writer Theodore Sturgeon, though in some respects he more closely resembled Vonnegut himself. A. though in some respects he more closely resembled Vonnegut B. though in some respects more closely resembling Vonnegut C. though in some respects the character more closely resembled D. though in some respects he more closely resembled E. though in some respects the character more closely resembled Vonnegut

Due in large part to agricultural runoff and pollutants from industrial wastewater, increasingly large areas of the ocean are being pronounced irreparably hypoxic, a condition that poses serious threats to marine species that require abundant oxygen to survive. Some fish may be able to tolerate this environment, and some species are more successful than others at escaping from these "dead zones." But they escape to unfamiliar habitats where they are less capable of defending themselves against predators and are less likely to be fertile. The infertility is linked directly to the lack of oxygen in the environment from which they escaped; this lack appears to wreak the most havoc on the female members of the species. The threat of hypoxic zones to the marine ecosystem has been known for some time, but recent research has revealed an additional threat that increases the likelihood of species extinction. It appears that low levels of dissolved oxygen inhibit the function of genes that control gender specificity in some fish, which means that the hypoxic water can induce sex changes in certain species. This causes an overabundance of males and reduces their opportunities to reproduce. Furthermore, the hypoxic waters compromise the quantity and quality of the female eggs. The females that do survive their deadly habitat may therefore either be functionally infertile or may produce offspring that are biologically ill equipped to contribute to population growth and help ensure survival of the species. 26. The author's primary objective in discussing hypoxic zones is to explain how they A. compromise the health of marine ecosystems. B. contribute to the extinction of certain marine life. C. alter the chemical composition of ocean habitats. D. have been linked to altered gene expression in fish.

E. are depleted of oxygen over long periods of time.

27. The passage implies that fish that can survive in hypoxic zones A. have developed a tolerance for anoxia as the species evolved. B. belong to species that are indigenous to less oxygenated areas of the ocean. C. suffer damage that is more apparent in their offspring than in themselves. D. must move to healthier waters in order to reproduce. E. rely on a biological self-defense mechanism to compensate for the oxygen depletion.

28. The first paragraph primarily performs which of the following functions in the passage? A. It links compositional changes in ocean water to irresponsible human behavior. B. It explains how environmental damage can cause effects that last for generations. C. It stresses that oxygen levels are paramount in determining ocean survival rates. D. It pinpoints the cause of species destruction is specific marine habitats. E. It argues that survival in the changing ocean depends on genetic factors.

29. The increase in interest rates, coupled with significantly decreased stock prices as well as consumer demand, are causing many small businesses to look into cutting costs as a means to prevent further losses. A. interest rates, coupled with significantly decreased stock prices as well as consumer demand, are B. rates of interest, coupled with significant decrease in stock prices and consumer demand, have been C. interest rates, coupled with significant decreases in both stock prices and consumer demand, is D. interest rates, coupled with significantly decreased stock prices as well as consumer demand, is E. rates of interest, coupled with significant increases in both stock prices as well as consumer demand, had been

Tofu, a form of bean curd, contains about as much protein as does meat but has lower levels of fat and cholesterol. Because fat and cholesterol are major causes of heart disease, nutritionists believe that tofu is better than meat as a source of protein. 30. Which of the following, if true, best supports the nutritionists' claim? A. Tofu is made from soy, a renewable and inexpensive crop found in abundance worldwide. B. Tofu is comparable in price to meat. C. Consuming tofu does not cause the health problems that consuming meat does. D. Tofu can be used in meals throughout the day. E. Most supermarkets carry some brands of tofu.

31. Since the recent school board debates, the ZeroWaste movement spurred by parents, teachers, and school administrators has improved awareness about ongoing recycling efforts. A. has improved awareness about ongoing recycling efforts B. has improved awareness of ongoing recycling efforts C. has improved awareness of recycling efforts that are still ongoing D. have improved awareness of ongoing recycling efforts E. have improved awareness about ongoing efforts dealing with recycling

The California ground squirrel must constantly balance the conflicting demands of self-preservation and predator assessment. Because predator assessment requires a fairly high degree of proximity and sensory contact, the ground squirrel can only safely assess predators from whom there is little to no immediate threat. For example, when avian predators, including the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle, launch sudden, unexpected aerial attacks, self-preservation must take precedence over the acquisition of knowledge. Rattlesnakes, on the other hand, pose relatively little immediate danger, and give the squirrel the greatest opportunity for predator assessment. Predator assessment might normally be hampered by the inherent danger of the rattlesnake's lethal bite. But while squirrels constitute almost 70 percent of the rattlesnake's diet, adult ground squirrels are all but immune to rattlesnakes. Rattlesnakes hunt slowly and stalk their prey, in marked contrast to sudden avian attacks. And even though a rattlesnake's strike is fast, the ground squirrel can move much faster. More important, any danger posed by a snakebite is mitigated by proteins in the squirrel's blood that confer resistance to rattlesnake venom. Adult ground squirrels will generally survive a rattlesnake bite that could prove lethal to a grown human. Indeed, it is the squirrel pups that are most susceptible to rattlesnake bites, because their smaller bodies cannot neutralize a full bite's worth of venom. This innate resistance allows the ground squirrel to change the dynamic of the traditional predator-prey relationship and approach the rattlesnake in an effort to acquire useful information regarding size and body temperature. Larger snakes, which deliver more venom per strike, are naturally more dangerous, as are warmer snakes, which can strike faster, from a greater distance, and with greater accuracy. Visual cues can be helpful, but the squirrel is often hampered by the

surrounding vegetation and darkness of burrows. Auditory cues are generally more reliable. For this reason, the ground squirrel will engage in tail-flagging, sand-kicking, and substrate-throwing in an attempt to put the snake on the defensive, and coax the snake into rattling its tail. The sound of a particular snake's rattle "leaks" information about the snake's size and body temperature. Not only does this information allow the squirrel to accurately assess the surrounding danger to itself and its pups, but it also allows the squirrel to communicate this danger (or lack thereof) to other squirrels by additional tail-flagging. 32. Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about adult ground squirrels on the basis of the passage? A. They are found exclusively in California. B. They have always been immune to rattlesnake venom. C. They are sometimes vulnerable to a rattlesnake's venom. D. They generally stay away from rattlesnakes in order to protect their young. E. They have only avian and reptilian predators.

33. According to the passage, the adult ground squirrel generally does NOT engage in which of the following? A. The self-application of snake scent B. Acquisition of knowledge regarding a rattlesnake's size C. Biting rattlesnakes D. Large-scale assessment of avian predators E. Communication with other adult ground squirrels

34. The author mentions the hunting method of rattlesnakes in order to A. show how the rattlesnake can sneak up on a ground squirrel engaged in predator assessment. B. give an example of an attack against which the adult ground squirrel must defend itself in order to survive. C. explain why 70 percent of squirrels are eaten by rattlesnakes. D. show how the rattlesnake is different from the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle. E. provide a secondary explanation for the adult California ground squirrel's ability to safely approach the rattlesnake.

35. The passage suggests which of the following about predator-prey relationships? A. They only allow for predator assessment when there is no danger from the predator. B. They often do not allow for a high degree of predator assessment. C. They are fairly traditional in their resistance to evolution. D. They tend to minimize the predator-prey proximity. E. They are the same regardless of the species in question.

Economist: In modern popular culture, there is a preference for goods that are exclusive; consumers equate price with quality. Given this, many economists hypothesize the existence of a Veblen good-a good that experiences an increase in demand as its price increases. In other words, the more the item costs, the more individuals will desire to purchase it. However, data show that the law of demand universally holds: As the price of a good rises, the quantity demanded of that good decreases. Therefore, the increasing price of a good cannot be the cause of increased demand for that good. 36. In the argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first describes a commonly held belief that is contrary to the economist's final conclusion; the second is evidence in support of this belief. B. The first describes a common belief that follows logically from the statement before it; the second is factual information that the economist deems to be irrelevant to her argument. C. The first describes a belief to which the economist subscribes; the second is evidence in support of this belief. D. The first describes a belief that the economist later deems to be ill conceived; the second is evidence against this belief. E. The first is a statement presented in support of the economist's final conclusion; the second is the economist's conclusion.

The role that lipids, commonly known as "fats," play in diet and health has remained woefully unclear to most consumers. As a nation, we have demonized fat and, in particular, cholesterol, the fat-like substance found in most animal tissues. The truth is, as a population, our consumption of fats has declined dramatically over the last few decades. In the 1960s, Americans obtained 45 percent of their calories from fats and oils; today, we get approximately 33 percent of our calories from these sources. But in the 1960s, only 13 percent of the population was obese, with less than 1 percent having type 2 diabetes. Today those figures are 34 percent and 8 percent, respectively. We might well ask how this can be. The simple answer is that fat is a nutrient so vital to life that it is present in nearly all foods. Small amounts can even be found in lettuce. Physical health, then, is primarily determined not by the amount of fat consumed but by the type. Saturated and trans fats, which are heavily used by the processed food industry, are the fats to avoid, as they can damage a healthy circulatory system. Conversely, triglycerides, which are a natural form of fat and oils, move easily through the bloodstream and are essential to life. Likewise, the omega-3 fatty acids found in fish and other sources promote good health. And just as some fats have been unfairly demonized, some forms of cholesterol are actually beneficial. For example, high density lipoproteins (HDLs) scrub clogging cholesterol from artery walls. While this new understanding of fat and cholesterol is battling conventional wisdom, one maxim of healthy eating still seems to hold true: Anything in excess is potentially harmful. Triglycerides have health benefits, but if the human body has too many at its disposal, it builds up adipose tissue, which becomes visible body fat. 37. It can be inferred from this passage that

A. a healthy diet should consist primarily of HDLs and triglycerides. B. people in the 1960s were healthier despite having higher body fat. C. there is no correlation between fat consumption and such health risks as obesity and diabetes. D. processed food is less likely to be healthful than fish is. E. popular misconceptions play a decreasing role in public attitudes about fat.

38. The author mentions statistics from the 1960s in order to A. demonstrate a trend toward the consumption of healthier fats. B. illustrate the cultural differences between the 1960s and today. C. assert a connection between popular trends and fat consumption. D. underscore a widely held belief about past fat consumption in this country. E. support the argument that fat consumption is not inherently unhealthy.

39. According to the passage, high density lipoproteins (HDLs) are good for health because they A. are a type of trans fat. B. occur naturally in the human body. C. clean cholesterol from arteries. D. move easily through the body. E. reduce the incidence of obesity and diabetes.

40. Of all the possible threats that affect American national security, the possibility of electromagnetic attack is maybe the more difficult for analysis . A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis B. is probably the most difficult to analyze C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis D. is probably the more difficult to analyze E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

The number of Lariat High School students found in possession of fake driver's licenses has increased considerably this year over last year. Because a similar increase did not occur at neighboring Independence High School, it is likely the case that the students at Lariat High School have easier access to fake driver's licenses than do the students at Independence High School. 41. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the explanation for the increase given above? A. Many students at Lariat High School who were caught with fake driver's licenses were also caught with fake driver's licenses last year. B. The number of students at Lariat High School did not change significantly between last year and this year. C. Many Independence High School students had driver's licenses confiscated last year. D. This year, the driver's licenses confiscated at Independence High School were of lower quality than those at Lariat High School. E. A large percentage of Lariat High School students who were caught with fake driver's licenses this year were transfer students from Independence High School.

Plant Manager: To increase the number of units produced at the MegaTech computer assembly plant, I propose that we move some floor supervisors from high-productivity departments to low-productivity departments. Production data show that the output of our workers increases when additional floor supervisors are moved to their department. 42. Which of the following is an assumption on which the plant manager's proposal depends? A. There are more low-productivity departments than highproductivity departments at MegaTech. B. MegaTech departments from which supervisors are removed do not experience significant decreases in the number of units produced shortly after the removal of those supervisors. C. Another company's computer assembly plant experienced a drastic increase in units produced after implementing a proposal similar to that recommended by the MegaTech's plant manager. D. The quality of output increases in any department of the assembly plant when additional floor supervisors are moved into that area. E. The number of units produced in all high-productivity departments at MegaTech is more than double the number of units produced in all low-productivity departments at MegaTech.

Consider these factors crucial to success in any new business endeavor: start-up capital, creativity, experience, and management savvy. Now consider that the owner of a franchise is, in effect, the owner of his or her own business. Entrepreneurs should ask themselves these questions to determine whether franchise ownership is desirable: How much financing is required to start my business? Do I know how to find a creative niche in the marketplace? If so, am I capable of maintaining a unique market identity while also managing day-to-day business operations? Do I know how to create a business plan that will ensure financial success? Many prospective business owners who have shortcomings in these areas have turned to franchising as a way to reduce their risk of failure. Companies that offer franchise opportunities have demonstrated their ability to succeed. They have built an effective business model, put it into operation, and realized financial gains. Still, the advantages of buying a franchise must be weighed against contractual issues that can become complicated when the interests of franchisees and franchisors conflict. Fees charged by the franchisor may become a source of conflict as the franchisee becomes more successful. Thus, before deciding to purchase a franchise, entrepreneurs should add this to their list of questions: Are franchise owners ever truly in command of their businesses or are they forever relegated, for all practical purposes, to the status of employees? The decision to franchise requires an entrepreneur to consider the degree of autonomy he or she desires in a business as well as the amount of preparation it would take to launch one. 43. The primary purpose of the passage is to encourage readers to A. take better control of their business endeavors.

B. consider the advantages of operating a franchise if they personally have limited business experience. C. enter contractual agreements with caution. D. evaluate their own abilities and notions of entrepreneurial success before purchasing a franchise. E. evaluate the motives of a potential franchisor who may take advantage of them.

44. The passage implies which of the following about the franchise arrangement? A. It creates an illusion of success. B. It puts the owners of established franchises at a disadvantage. C. It may be a viable strategy for those with entrepreneurial shortcomings. D. It impedes entrepreneurial goals. E. It should be viewed by franchisees as a partnership.

45. The author most likely refers to a franchisor's fees in order to A. intimate they may increase in direct proportion to revenues. B. cite them as a potential eventual cause of antipathy. C. imply they may seem lopsided with respect to the franchisee's profits. D. caution that they may be unjustified in certain scenarios. E. buttress the insinuation that there exists no autonomy in franchising.

Numerous studies of chemotherapy patients over the last ten years have shown that patients who had regularly attended support groups or received counseling experienced significantly fewer side effects and shorter recovery times from chemotherapy than did patients who had not. Clearly, although the mainstream scientific community has been slow to acknowledge it, psychological support has an effect on the body's ability to heal. 46. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? A. The survival rates for chemotherapy patients in the study were virtually identical regardless of whether or not they received support. B. The patients who did not attend support groups chose not to do so, even though they were healthy enough to attend. C. Many medical doctors believe that the mind plays a role in the causation and prevention of illness. D. The majority of chemotherapy patients must undergo more than one round of treatment. E. Some hospitals do not conduct support groups on their premises for chemotherapy patients and their families.

47. Coming to be regarded as a miracle food in the 1980s, it was a staple of the Mediterranean diet even in antiquity; the olive oil consumed in the United States increased steadily ever since, and may surpass that of Greece by next year. A. Coming to be regarded as a miracle food in the 1980s, it was a staple of the Mediterranean diet even in antiquity; the olive oil consumed in the United States B. Being a staple of the Mediterranean diet since antiquity and having been regarded as a miracle food since the 1980s, the olive oil consumed in the United States C. Having been a staple of the Mediterranean diet since antiquity and coming to be regarded as a miracle food in the 1980s, the olive oil consumption of the United States D. A staple of the Mediterranean diet since antiquity, olive oil came to be regarded as a miracle food in the 1980s; the olive oil consumption of the United States has E. Being regarded as a miracle food since the 1980s and a staple of the Mediterranean diet even in antiquity; the amount of olive oil consumed in the United States has

The bulk of military contract purchases are for attack aircraft. Consequently, most aerospace manufacturers focus research and design budgets on improving stealth and shielding technology for small fighter planes and increasing load capacity in large bombers. Unfortunately, these designs are no longer in the aerospace industry's best interest. Military budgets are declining and are expected to stay at levels well below those of earlier periods. In order to remain strong, aerospace manufacturers should focus on increasing the fuel efficiency of commercial planes. Doing so will allow airlines to increase their profit margins and reinvest in updated fleets of aircraft. 48. In the argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is a statement of fact that contradicts the author's position; the second is the author's position. B. The first is a statement of fact that supports the author's position; the second is a consideration that weighs against the author's position. C. The first is a prediction that the author believes should not hold in this case; the second is an assumption that weighs against the author's position. D. The first is a situation that the author believes to be true; the second offers evidence to explain this situation. E. The first is a situation that the author argues should not continue; the second provides evidence that supports the author's position.

49. Norman Rockwell's paintings, which depict snapshots of everyday life in small-town America, is fascinating not only to collectors but also to anthropologists. A. is fascinating not only to collectors but also to anthropologists B. is fascinating not only to collectors but to anthropologists C. are fascinating not only to collectors but also to anthropologists D. are fascinations not only for collectors but for anthropologists E. are not only fascinating to collectors but also anthropologists