The makers of a popular soft drink are debating the merits of reducing the price of their best selling

health drink to $0.75. Since the health drink hit the market, steady reductions in the price of the drink have consistently resulted in increased unit sales at convenience stores. Unfortunately, reducing the price to $0.75 would yield decreased sales at convenience stores. Convenience store owners would prefer to sell more profitable drinks and would no longer allocate any shelf space to the lower-priced drink. 1. In the argument given, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is a statement of causation that the author predicts will be repeated in the case at hand; the second supplies evidence that goes against this prediction. B. The first is a statement of causation that the author believes will not hold in the case at hand; the second offers a line of reasoning to support this belief. C. The first is indisputable evidence that the author provides in support of a prediction; the second is that prediction. D. The first is a statement of fact that the author accepts to be true; the second is a consequence of this fact. E. The first is evidence that weakens the author's position; the second is that position.

Entrepreneurship and franchising differ as business models in several important aspects, one of which is the concept of ownership as it relates to control. Businesspeople who dream of being their own boss may consider franchise opportunities without understanding the nature of this business model. A franchise owner is not an independent businessperson in the same sense as an entrepreneur. Rather, a franchise owner has purchased assets of an existing company under certain conditions. The owner undergoes extensive training to learn the company's product line, style of service, and procedures so the company's carefully crafted identity is maintained. The rules are stringent, and the relationship between company and franchise owner is strictly governed by contracts. The franchise owner is, in a real sense, not the boss. But franchising affords significant advantages to the businessperson, who, at great expense, buys a tested business model with immediate name recognition and established, successful procedures. Franchise owners often receive longterm mentoring and other support services from the franchisor, whose interest in assuring success for the new location is strong. Franchise owners have prearranged access to supplies and to the discounts available in economies of scale. The reduction of the risk of failure, perilously high for start-ups, is slashed in the franchise model when the company is well known regionally or-better yet-nationally. A businessperson deciding whether to franchise or to start up a business must weigh these advantages against the attraction of being one's own boss. 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author A. deems franchise purchase a sounder investment than funding a start-up. B. thinks that being one's own boss would disappoint most businesspeople.

C. believes that businesspeople must understand a business model before using it. D. plans to purchase a franchise in the near future. E. distrusts the tight control companies have over franchise owners.

3. The author states each of the following as an advantage of franchising EXCEPT A. less risk of failure than with a start-up. B. procedures that have already been confirmed as successful. C. the protection offered by a clear contract with the franchisor. D. the economy of scale. E. strong support is in the interests of the franchisor.

4. Which statement, if true, most seriously weakens the idea that the franchise business model does not afford franchise owners the opportunity to be their own boss? A. Companies have the right to rescind a franchise contract if the owner fails to follow the company's procedures and service style as required. B. After a franchise is successfully started, the company requires less hands-on control over daily operations. C. Entrepreneurs running start-ups are often restricted by market conditions and local regulations and must abide by operating procedures mandated by their insurers and financers. D. Franchise owners sometimes have opportunities to move into the company's management structure and advance to high positions. E. Successful franchise owners may eventually run several franchise locations.

Due to high energy prices and a renewed interest in environmental preservation, liquefied natural gas (LNG) has arisen as a popular, low-emission, high-performance alternative to oil. As a result, the number of United States liquefaction plants, which liquefy natural gas, has quintupled since 2000, surging the market with abundant LNG. Still, the price-per-BTU of LNG has increased over the past decade. 5. Which of the following, if true, would best explain the increase in the price-per-BTU of LNG? A. The number of LNG distributors has increased dramatically over the past decade. B. Oil distributors have not attempted to counter oil's bad environmental image. C. Over the past decade, consumer demand for LNG increased faster than did production of LNG. D. Other sources of energy such as natural gas, coal, and oil have increased in price over the past decade. E. LNG is expensive to transport from outside the United States.

6. According to a recent report by the Financial Times, the stock price performance of public companies correlate negatively to the amount of compensation their CEOs receive. A. are correlated negatively to B. correlates negatively with C. correlate negatively with D. correlates negatively to E. correlate negatively to

It is not surprising that physical afflictions have physical causes. For example, writers may suffer from carpel tunnel syndrome, which is caused by damage to the nerves in the wrist. They may also be struck with mental conditions, such writer's block, which is a condition in which one cannot think of anything to write, or hypergraphia, which is a contrasting condition in which they experience an uncontrollable urge to write. Interestingly, recent studies reveal a physical cause for these disruptions in creativity. Writer's block and hypergraphia have their roots in the function of the temporal and frontal lobes of the brain. The temporal lobes are where word recognition and idea formation occur. The frontal lobe is where the brain makes connections between ideas and forms logical thought. Research indicates that these areas of the brains influence one another and by extension a person's ability to express ideas clearly in writing. If the temporal lobe goes unchecked by the frontal lobe, a writer may churn out pages and pages without any discernment. Normally, the frontal lobe inhibits temporal lobe activity, resulting in reasonable creative output. One question guiding current research is whether the frontal lobe can go too far-causing writer's block-and, if so, whether the process can be reversed. Scientists who study seasonal affective disorder use light to stimulate the lobes of the brain and observe changes in their activity. Researchers hope to discover whether by stimulating the lobes they can unlock problems of creativity.

A. the temporal lobe failing to recognize words. B. an irregular connection between the limbic system and frontal lobe. C. misfiring neurons in the temporal lobes. D. a lack of balance between the temporal and frontal lobes. E. insufficient stimulation of the brain.

8. The author mentions the study of seasonal affective disorder in order to A. suggest that using light to stimulate lobes of the brain may cure writer's block. B. demonstrate that light can affect brain function. C. confirm that those who suffer from seasonal affective disorder are also likely to suffer writer's block or hypergraphia. D. suggest that stimulating the temporal and frontal lobes may yield valuable information about writer's block and hypergraphia. E. demonstrate that seasonal affective disorder is caused by improper functioning of the temporal and frontal lobes.

9. Which of the following would serve as an effective metaphor for writer's block? A. Loving to dance but finding one's self paralyzed B. Having a high IQ but failing classes at school C. Memorizing a script but stuttering during the delivery D. Suffering memory loss due to a physical injury E. Suffering carpal tunnel syndrome so severe that writing becomes painful

10. The fibers used in Egyptian rugs are different than the ones used in Persian rugs because they are more sturdy and flexible. A. differ from the ones used in Persian rugs because they are B. are different than those used in Persian rugs because the Egyptian fibers are C. are different from the ones used in Persian rugs on account of being D. are different than the ones used in Persian rugs because they are E. differ from those used in Persian rugs in that the Egyptian fibers are

Numerous studies of chemotherapy patients over the last ten years have shown that patients who had regularly attended support groups or received counseling experienced significantly fewer side effects and shorter recovery times from chemotherapy than did patients who had not. Clearly, although the mainstream scientific community has been slow to acknowledge it, psychological support has an effect on the body's ability to heal. 11. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument above? A. The survival rates for chemotherapy patients in the study were virtually identical regardless of whether or not they received support. B. The patients who did not attend support groups chose not to do so, even though they were healthy enough to attend. C. Many medical doctors believe that the mind plays a role in the causation and prevention of illness. D. The majority of chemotherapy patients must undergo more than one round of treatment. E. Some hospitals do not conduct support groups on their premises for chemotherapy patients and their families.

Between 1990 and 2000, oil usage in Portsmouth increased by 15 percent and natural gas usage increased by 30 percent. Over that same decade, Portsmouth's population grew by 20 percent and the majority of new residents hailed from nearby rural areas. 12. If the statements above are true, which of the following inferences can be made on the basis of them? A. Residents who migrated to Portsmouth between 1990 and 2000 were less likely to use oil than natural gas for their energy needs. B. In 2000, Portsmouth residents used twice as much natural gas as oil. C. Per capita, residents of Portsmouth used more natural gas in 2000 than in 1990. D. Oil and natural gas provided a majority of the energy used by Portsmouth residents between 1990 and 200. E. Between 1990 and 2000, natural gas distributors increased their profits at a faster rate than did oil distributors.

13. Whether that topic involves studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or finding the measure of gene expression in vitro, biologists may be enabled by the use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes. A. Whether that topic involves studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or finding the measure of gene expression in vitro, biologists may be enabled by the use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes. B. Biologists may be enabled by the use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes to research a wide variety of topics in biotechnology, whether that topic involves studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or the measure gene expression in vitro. C. Whether studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or measuring gene expression in vitro, the use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes may enable biologists to research a wide variety of topics in biotechnology when doing such activities. D. The use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes may allow biologists to be able to research a wide variety of topics in biotechnology, whether that topic involves studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or finding the measure of gene expression in vitro. E. The use of bioluminescent proteins as reporter genes may enable biologists to research a wide variety of topics in biotechnology, whether that topic involves studying intracellular protein traffic, determining cell lineage, or measuring gene expression in vitro.

14. Proposed in 1724, the Fahrenheit temperature scale used a calibration in which 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; later, the scale was refined by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart. A. in 1724, the Fahrenheit temperature scale used a calibration in which 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; later, the scale was refined by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart B. in 1724, the Fahrenheit temperature scale used a calibration in which 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; later, the scale had been refined by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart C. by Fahrenheit in 1724, his original temperature scale used a calibration in which 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; refining the scale later by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart D. by Fahrenheit in 1724, his original temperature scale used a calibration where 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; later, the scale was refined by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart E. in 1724, the Fahrenheit temperature scale used a calibration where 96 degrees was the body temperature of the scientist's wife; the scale was later refined by his successors to place the freezing and boiling points of water 180 degrees apart

15. In the course of his work on psychiatry, which now constitutes the clinical branch of psychology, Sigmund Freud introduced three important theoretical notions: the concept of the impulsive Id, the interplay between the Id and the rational Ego, and that the Super-Ego provided a moral dimension. A. three important theoretical notions: the concept of the impulsive Id, the interplay between the Id and the rational Ego, and that the Super-Ego provided a moral dimension B. three important theoretical notions: the concept of the impulsive Id, the Id and the rational Ego were interrelated, and the moral dimension of the Super-Ego C. three important theoretical notions, the concept of the impulsive Id, the interplay between the Id and the rational Ego, and he also introduced the moral dimension of the Super-Ego D. three important notions that were theoretical in nature: the concept of an impulsive Id, the interplay between the Id and the rational Ego, and the moral dimension of the Super-Ego E. three important theoretical notions: the concept of the impulsive Id, the interplay between the Id and the rational Ego, and the moral dimension of the Super-Ego

Nutritionist: Studies show that diners who regularly eat fast food are four times more likely to be overweight than diners who do not eat fast food. Legislation should be passed that requires fast-food restaurants to publish the nutritional content of its foods. 16. Which of the following is an assumption on which the nutritionist's argument depends? A. Some diners would reduce their consumption of fast food if they had access to nutritional information. B. Regularly eating fast food doesn't provide diners with a cheap source of their daily dietary requirements. C. Not all diners who regularly eat fast food are overweight. D. Eating fast food is the only way for a diner to become overweight. E. Legislators would support a bill requiring restaurants to display the nutritional information of their foods.

African exploration in the late nineteenth century is almost entirely a story of white males: scientists, traders and missionaries. Mary Henrietta Kingsley stands out as an exception. Ostensibly, Kingsley planned her first trip to Africa so she could conduct research on fetishes and complete the academic treatise her father, an explorer, had begun. Privately, Kingsley told a friend she was traveling to Africa "to die," though she had dreamt of such an adventure since childhood. Nevertheless, she prepared for the trip carefully, interviewing friends, doctors, missionaries, and former explorers, all of whom advised her not to make the trek. Kingsley was undaunted and set off for West Africa carrying only £300, and chemicals and specimen cases designed to collect samples of unknown fish and insects for the British Museum. Kingsley sailed the coast, finally putting in at the mouth of the Congo. Recognizing that the natives were naturally suspicious of Europeans traveling without an obvious purpose, Kingsley purchased cloth and other goods in the port and traveled inland for six months as a trader, exchanging goods for food and shelter along the way. During this and her second trip in 1895, Kingsley demonstrated resourcefulness in dealing with such challenges as rescuing a native from cannibals, defeating a leopard with a bucket of water, learning to pilot a native canoe up the Ogooue River, and becoming the first white woman and third "Englishman" to climb the 14,435 foot Mount Cameroon. Upon her return to London, Kingsley campaigned for an enlightened African policy, published her bookTravels in West Africa and advocated a forum for the serious ethnological study of Africa. Kingsley's third trip was to Cape Town during the 1900 Boer War. There she encountered an epidemic of dysentery, volunteered to nurse prisoners of war, contracted typhoid, and died.

17. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. To demonstrate that even the most seasoned African explorers are at risk due to disease. B. To outline the early history of African exploration. C. To establish the need for a more tolerant colonial policy in 19
th

century England.

D. To discuss the achievements of one female explorer. E. To argue that the contributions made by women explorers in Africa were as important as those made by men.

18. The author suggests that Mary Kingsley may have gone to Africa for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. to serve as an Anglican missionary B. to complete her father's fetish research C. to fulfill a childhood dream D. to collect specimens of fish and insects for the British Museum E. to die

19. Mary Kingsley's reason for purchasing cloth and other supplies at the mouth of the Congo was: A. to be able to trade for food and shelter along the way B. to earn extra money to finance her trip C. to assuage the natives' concerns over her motives D. to acquire examples of fetish sculptures for her father's research E. to acquaint the natives with European goods

20. Why does the author insert the anecdotes about Kingsley's travels in paragraph three? A. To show that she was not afraid of wild beasts. B. To compare the obstacles faced by female travelers with those faced by male explorers of the day. C. To entice you into reading Kinsley's best-selling book Travels in West Africa. D. To emphasize the dangers Mary faced in her travels. E. To illustrate Kingsley's ability to conquer a variety of challenges.

State X senior employees have access to the finest health benefits, a full pension, and outstanding educational opportunities. In an effort to curtail spending and reduce the deficit, some legislators have advocated that the state employee car program be cut. These legislators argue that state cars should only be used for state business. 21. Which of the following, if true, most supports the legislators' proposal? A. State X provides senior employees with other benefits that do not directly support state business. B. Senior employees of most other state governments must pay for their own car travel. C. Many state governments allocate a percentage of their budget to maintaining a fleet of state cars. D. Senior employees of State X use state cars primarily for personal transportation. E. State X has run a deficit for five years in a row.

For several centuries, physicians mistakenly believed that the consumption of animal fats was responsible for a surge in heart disease among Americans. Animal fats, doctors believed, were a precursor to the fat-like cholesterol found in the blood and heart. As cholesterol reaches dangerous levels, it clogs arteries that must be kept clear to prevent heart attacks. Modern medical practitioners, however, have determined that animal fats, and specifically fats from fish, help to keep cholesterol levels low and prevent arterial clogging. Therefore, the true source of heart disease is still a medical mystery. 22. In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? A. The first is an opinion that the author attempts to refute; the second provides support for the author's conclusion. B. The first is a claim that the author accepts as valid; the second is evidence in support of that claim. C. The first is a claim that the author accepts as valid; the second specifies a situation that the author posits as contrary to that claim. D. The first is a claim that the author attempts to refute; the second is evidence presented as contrary to the author's claim. E. The first is an assertion that the author believes to be untrue; the second is the author's conclusion.

23. The City of Cleveland, as most American cities, prohibits street vendors to sell certain types of prepared foods; such foods are not safe unless prepared indoors under proper conditions. A. as most American cities, will prohibit a street vendor from selling B. like most American cities, prohibits street vendors from selling C. like most American cities, prohibits street vendors to sell D. like most American cities that prohibit a street vendor from selling E. as most American cities, prohibits street vendors to sell

24. Acid rain is the phenomenon responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, and causes primarily by the reaction of emissions containing carbon and sulfur with water molecules. A. responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, and causes B. that is responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, and that causes C. which is responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, which is caused D. responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, and is caused E. that is responsible for the deterioration of many marble monuments, and which causes

25. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal. A. One reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers is that they tire of spending years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments; astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal B. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while astronomers have an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at their disposal C. Late in their careers, one reason that some particle physicists are switching to astronomy is suggested by the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments, while an infinite and ready-made supply of environments is at the disposal of astronomers D. The fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments while astronomers have an infinite and readymade supply of environments at their disposal is one reason, late in their careers, some particle physicists are switching to astronomy E. The existence of an infinite and ready-made supply of environments at the disposal of astronomers compared with the fact that particle physicists must spend years constructing environments in which they can conduct experiments suggests one reason some particle physicists are switching to astronomy late in their careers

Working on a trading floor, with constant one-on-one client interaction, fast paced decision making, and high stress operations, makes for a highly demanding, yet rewarding, work environment. Product marketing work, by contrast, promotes teamwork and careful planning, which suggests that marketing is not very rewarding for the individual. However, research demonstrates that employees who work in marketing consistently rate their work as highly demanding and rewarding, whereas individual sales traders commonly express feelings of boredom and work apathy. 26. Which of the following, if true, contributes most to an explanation of the difference in the reported feelings of work fulfillment between traders and marketers? A. The average number of daily hours worked by marketers is significantly lower than that of traders. B. The variety and importance of work performed by marketers is vastly superior to that performed by traders. C. Marketing firm employers often provide better benefits than do trading firms and banks. D. Employee turnover is much lower at marketing firms than it is at trading firms. E. There are many marketers who have or could have worked as a trader.

27. Many citizens regard with no special interest that women have the ability of voting in local, state, and national elections, and it is a fairly new occurrence in the history of the United States, commencing in 1920. A. Many citizens regard with no special interest that women have the legal right of voting in local, state, and national elections, and it B. Although many citizens regard it with no special interest, the legal right of women to vote in local, state, and national elections C. Although it is now regarded with no special interest by many citizens, all women and their legal right to vote in local, state, and national elections D. Now regarded with no special interest by many citizens, women voting in local, state, and national elections E. Many citizens regard them with no special interest now, but the voting of women in local, state, and national elections

It is perhaps not surprising that debate has arisen over bioluminescence-based biotechnologies because although they may lead to remarkable products, the biological process in the creatures that serve as models for biomimetic products are themselves not entirely understood. To take a single example, green fluorescent protein (GFP) extracted from certain species of jellyfish-Aequorea victoria, to be specific-and placed on a silicon dioxide substrate between two electrodes will organize itself into strands that absorb the photons from ultraviolet light and emit a detectable electric current. Researchers see great promise in this technology. For example, GFP strands could become a minute biophotovoltaic power pack from which could be created more cost-effective solar cells. Despite the excitement over this promising research, questions about sustainability and method persist. The Aequorea victoriawhich exists in colonies in Puget Sound and from which GFP is derived-has been found in declining numbers over the last two decades. However, whereas the jellyfish were abundantly available for collection two decades ago, their numbers have now decreased. This decrease is not clearly related to collection, but it cannot be ruled out as a factor, as some research suggests that ocean conditions are generally favorable toward jellyfish overpopulation. Research into the application of GFP often yields inconsistent results because the jellyfish's bioluminescent activity is still not completely understood. The glowing effect, which appears only on a specimen's margins, is not continuous, and what provokes it is not known. Researchers in lab conditions can easily cause the bioluminescent reaction to occur, but when undisturbed, specimens rarely glow. 28. The author's primary purpose in this passage is to A. discuss potential benefits of bioluminescence-based biotechnology and potential problems with its research.

B. discourage further research into Aequorea victoria's bioluminescent capabilities. C. celebrate the promised benefits of biophotovoltaic production. D. raise questions that need to be answered before research in bioluminescence-based biotechnologies can be sustainable or effective. E. describe the beauty of the glow of bioluminescent jellyfish.

29. The passage's discussion of biophotovoltaic power provides support for which of the following assertions? A. The natural world is too fragile to endure the development of this technology. B. The development of better solar cells is vital to renewable energy research. C. The use of biophotovoltaic power may cause declining jellyfish populations in Puget Sound. D. A biological process might yield technological benefits even before it is fully understood. E. Bioluminescence-based biotechnology will revolutionize the energy industry.

30. The first paragraph performs which of the following functions in the passage? A. It lists problems associated with research into bioluminescent jellyfish in Puget Sound. B. It gives an example of a controversial area of research and the benefits it may yield. C. It investigates the practicality of a potentially beneficial area of research and gives examples of problems that must be solved. D. It describes the technique used to cause extracted GFPs to emit electrical current. E. It encourages increased corporate and academic support of research into bioenergies.

31. Prior to Einstein, physicists once believed that the space between objects would be a magical ether that constantly transmitted the forces of objects around it, but scientists now believe that those forces are transmitted through the vacuum of space without the aid of ether or any other medium. A. would be a magical ether that constantly transmitted B. was a magical ether, constantly transmitting C. had been a magical ether and constantly transmitted D. was a magical ether, constantly transmitted E. was a magical ether, having constantly transmitted

32. The reason that lean meats, such as salmon, improve mood in some people is because these foods contain the chemical tryptophan that promotes the same increase in serotonin as do relaxation and exercise; this increase helps to keep emotions under control by aiding sleep, calming anxiety, and relieving depression. A. The reason that lean meats, such as salmon, improve mood in some people is because these foods contain the chemical tryptophan, which promotes the same increase in serotonin as do relaxation and exercise B. The reason that lean meats, such as salmon, improves mood in some people is because they contain the chemical tryptophan, which promotes the same increase in serotonin as do relaxation and exercise C. The reason that lean meats, such as salmon, improves mood in some people is that these foods contain the chemical tryptophan, which promotes the same increase in serotonin like relaxation and exercise D. Lean meats, such as salmon, improve mood in some people because they contain the chemical tryptophan, which promotes an increase in serotonin, just like relaxation and exercise do E. The reason that lean meats, such as salmon, improve mood in some people is that these foods contain the chemical tryptophan, which promotes the same increase in serotonin as do relaxation and exercise

Recently, Macron Computer Corp (MCC) has observed consistent quality issues with its i-5,000 terminal production line, which manufactures every component of the terminal from its screen to its base station. To solve the quality problem, MCC has outsourced production of the screen power controller to a sub-contractor. Unfortunately, further observations have shown that quality issues have worsened since MCC outsourced the controller. 33. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the worsened quality on the i-5,000 terminal production line? A. The i-X10,000, another terminal manufactured by MCC, has also experienced an increase in quality issues since outsourcing a component part. B. The outsourced controllers have demonstrated a small improvement in reliability, build precision, and other measures of quality. C. Nearly every worker on the i-5,000 terminal production line was in favor of outsourcing production of the screen power controller. D. The i-5,000 terminal production line includes a sensitive display tube that is difficult to manufacture and has quality issues. E. The i-5,000 production line workers who used to assemble the screen power controller have moved to other part groups, causing confusion and errors at those work stations.

The California ground squirrel must constantly balance the conflicting demands of self-preservation and predator assessment. Because predator assessment requires a fairly high degree of proximity and sensory contact, the ground squirrel can only safely assess predators from whom there is little to no immediate threat. For example, when avian predators, including the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle, launch sudden, unexpected aerial attacks, self-preservation must take precedence over the acquisition of knowledge. Rattlesnakes, on the other hand, pose relatively little immediate danger, and give the squirrel the greatest opportunity for predator assessment. Predator assessment might normally be hampered by the inherent danger of the rattlesnake's lethal bite. But while squirrels constitute almost 70 percent of the rattlesnake's diet, adult ground squirrels are all but immune to rattlesnakes. Rattlesnakes hunt slowly and stalk their prey, in marked contrast to sudden avian attacks. And even though a rattlesnake's strike is fast, the ground squirrel can move much faster. More important, any danger posed by a snakebite is mitigated by proteins in the squirrel's blood that confer resistance to rattlesnake venom. Adult ground squirrels will generally survive a rattlesnake bite that could prove lethal to a grown human. Indeed, it is the squirrel pups that are most susceptible to rattlesnake bites, because their smaller bodies cannot neutralize a full bite's worth of venom. This innate resistance allows the ground squirrel to change the dynamic of the traditional predator-prey relationship and approach the rattlesnake in an effort to acquire useful information regarding size and body temperature. Larger snakes, which deliver more venom per strike, are naturally more dangerous, as are warmer snakes, which can strike faster, from a greater distance, and with greater accuracy. Visual cues can be helpful, but the squirrel is often hampered by the

surrounding vegetation and darkness of burrows. Auditory cues are generally more reliable. For this reason, the ground squirrel will engage in tail-flagging, sand-kicking, and substrate-throwing in an attempt to put the snake on the defensive, and coax the snake into rattling its tail. The sound of a particular snake's rattle "leaks" information about the snake's size and body temperature. Not only does this information allow the squirrel to accurately assess the surrounding danger to itself and its pups, but it also allows the squirrel to communicate this danger (or lack thereof) to other squirrels by additional tail-flagging. 34. Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about adult ground squirrels on the basis of the passage? A. They are found exclusively in California. B. They have always been immune to rattlesnake venom. C. They are sometimes vulnerable to a rattlesnake's venom. D. They generally stay away from rattlesnakes in order to protect their young. E. They have only avian and reptilian predators.

35. According to the passage, the adult ground squirrel generally does NOT engage in which of the following? A. The self-application of snake scent B. Acquisition of knowledge regarding a rattlesnake's size C. Biting rattlesnakes D. Large-scale assessment of avian predators E. Communication with other adult ground squirrels

36. The author mentions the hunting method of rattlesnakes in order to A. show how the rattlesnake can sneak up on a ground squirrel engaged in predator assessment. B. give an example of an attack against which the adult ground squirrel must defend itself in order to survive. C. explain why 70 percent of squirrels are eaten by rattlesnakes. D. show how the rattlesnake is different from the red-tailed hawk and golden eagle. E. provide a secondary explanation for the adult California ground squirrel's ability to safely approach the rattlesnake.

37. The passage suggests which of the following about predator-prey relationships? A. They only allow for predator assessment when there is no danger from the predator. B. They often do not allow for a high degree of predator assessment. C. They are fairly traditional in their resistance to evolution. D. They tend to minimize the predator-prey proximity. E. They are the same regardless of the species in question.

Gymnastics is a sport in which one must submit to arduous physical training and countless hours of practice from a very early age to be successful. As a result, many elementary school coaches steer children who do not have an early aptitude for the sport to other athletic activities and only encourage those children who exhibit a flair for the athletic movements required by the sport. Typically, those students who are turned away do not practice gymnastics on their own time, and thus many of them deny themselves the chance to cultivate a dormant but potentially impressive athletic gift. 38. If the statements above are true, then which of the following must also be true? A. Gymnastic coaches should not devote special attention to gifted junior athletes. B. Everyone can train to be a gymnast. C. Some people who can become successful gymnasts do not exhibit an early aptitude for the sport. D. Child athletes are extra sensitive to criticism from adult coaches. E. All child athletes should train for gymnastic events.

City Q has access to abundant fresh water that it draws from underground springs. There is more than enough water in the springs to satisfy the city residents' demand for drinking water for the next several years. Still, it is typical for residents of City Q to be forced to either reduce or completely cut off their water consumption. 39. Which of the following, if true, best explains the situation described above? A. The supply of water in the springs is greater at some times of the year than at others. B. Residents of City Q rely heavily on water for their cooking and cleaning. C. City Q has not sought out alternative water sources. D. Most of the water in the springs is allocated to industrial uses and not drinking. E. City Q has yet to completely tap into all of its underground springs.

40. Of all the possible threats that affect American national security, the possibility of electromagnetic attack is maybe the more difficult for analysis. A. is maybe the more difficult for analysis B. is probably the most difficult to analyze C. is maybe the most difficult for analysis D. is probably the more difficult to analyze E. is, it may be, the analysis that is most difficult

The major aim of a consultancy is to acquire great clients and bill them at a rate that will comfortably cover or exceed the total value of the hours worked by its consultants. Typically, this results in high hourly rates for team members who will stay with the consultancy for a great deal of time. Baker and Lewis, however, commonly provides bids that would not cover the total hours its consultants need to complete a project, yet it is very successful. 41. Which of the following, if true, best explains the success of Baker and Lewis? A. Baker and Lewis competes with many smaller or lessprestigious firms and feels it must match their pricing to keep clients. B. Since Baker and Lewis does not offer top-flight services, it feels an obligation to price its services at an inferior rate. C. Consulting is a commodity service, and Baker and Lewis believes that its clients deserve commodity pricing. D. Lower pricing on initial engagements allows Baker and Lewis to rapidly grow their client base, which commonly uses the firm for future engagements that are more profitable. E. The owners of Baker and Lewis also own the software company that made the software their consultants use, so the owners profit even if Baker and Lewis loses money.

An environmental engineer and land developer conducted a brown-field reclamation estimate on a former automotive plant near downtown Chicago. As a result of the engineer's findings, an international Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) purchased the land with the intention of reclaiming the land and building condos on it within the next two years. Unfortunately, the REIT discovered that the cost to reclaim the land was actually three times the engineer's estimate. Therefore, the methodology employed by the engineer to estimate the reclamation costs must have been faulty. 42. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? A. Though more expensive than originally thought, the reclamation still would have resulted in a profitable development. B. The environmental engineer did not study other reclamation sites and use the same methodology to estimate costs. C. The REIT had successfully reclaimed land in other developments during the past few years. D. A third party determined that the REIT's methodology for determining the cost to reclaim the brown-field site was more accurate than that used by the environmental engineer. E. The engineer and land developer did not purposefully misrepresent the cost to reclaim the development site.

43. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium. A. Formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium B. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to small, emergent economies in the same way they apply to established economies C. Because they are developing and are not in equilibrium, small, emergent economies are not subject to the same applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance as established economies D. Because small, emergent economies are developing and are not in equilibrium, formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance do not apply to them in the same way they apply to established economies E. Small, emergent economies are not subject to the applicability of formulas for gross domestic product and trade balance in the same way as established economies, because they are developing and are not in equilibrium

44. Keyboarding ability is an important skill now of even seniorlevel managers. A. is an important skill now of even senior-level managers B. is an important skill even for senior-level managers now C. is a skill of even important senior-level managers now D. is now important even for senior-level managers E. is important even now for senior-level managers

Recent research by the U.S. Department of Labor found that employed citizens are not only in better health than unemployed citizens, but also in better spirits. Industry has widely disseminated the findings of this research, with most employers declaring that work is good for one's temperament and health. 45. The conclusion of the employers depends on which of the following assumptions? A. The more people work, the better their health and well-being become. B. Unemployed people with health problems are just as likely to find employment as are other unemployed people. C. Some forms of employment offer more enjoyment than others. D. Employed people rarely get sick. E. Managers and executives are happier and healthier than the people they manage.

46. In electing conservative incumbents governing for years over upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potentially influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement that conflicts with their conventional beliefs. A. In electing conservative incumbents governing for years over upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potential influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement that conflicts B. In electing conservative incumbents governing for years over upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potentially influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement that conflicted C. By electing conservative incumbents governing for years over upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potential influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement, conflicting D. By electing conservative incumbents with years of government experience instead of upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potentially influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement that conflicted E. By electing conservative incumbents with years of government experience instead of upstart mavericks who appeal to younger voters, potentially influential swing voters have rejected a modernist movement that conflicts