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PRI TABLE VERSIO

Test 2

You scored 92.976188097 out of 104.999997621


Question 1

Your answer is CORRECT.


Viruses are characterized A) B) C) D) E) as having the ability to independently replicate their genetic material. by the ability to take in and metabolize organic molecules for energy. as being able to divide by mitosis. as "alive" only when they infect and replicate in a host cell. as prokaryotic cells.

Question 2

Your answer is CORRECT.

Which statement is true regarding the virus shown above: A) B) C) D) E) This virus would most likely be a bacteriophage. The capsid of this virus is indicated by "B" Infectivity of this virus is determined by recognition of the host by structures labeled "A". "D" could only be DNA. All the above are true statements.

Question 3

Your answer is CORRECT.


Which is not correct in regards to the steps of a bacteriophage lytic infection: A) B) C) D) E) Penetration is when the viral nucleic acid enters the cell. Attachment refers to the step when the provirus forms. Replication, transcription, & translation of phage DNA occurs during synthesis. New phage particles lyse and exit the cell during release. New phage particles are formed during assembly.

Question 4

Your answer is CORRECT.


Which statement is false regarding a bacteriophage in the lysogenic cycle? A) B) C) D) E) The bacteriophage will permanently remain in the lysogenic state. It would cause no harm to the host cell. As the host cell divides, the bacteriophage genome will be present in all of the host cell's progeny. It would become a prophage. There are no false statements, A-D are all true.

Question 5

Your answer is CORRECT.


Which statement is false concerning retroviruses: A) B) C) D) The information flow of such viruses is: DNA to RNA to protein. They can form a provirus. They can remain in the provirus state while simultaneously initiating production of new viral particles. None of A-C are false; they are all true statements.

Question 6

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The transfer of genes between bacteria via transduction involves A) a plasmid

B) C) D)

a phage DNA ligase transcriptional activator

Question 7

Your answer is CORRECT.

br/> A bacterial cell has the metabolic pathway shown above. The genes coding for enzymes 1 and 2 in this pathway are organized into an operon. Enzyme 1 gene and enzyme 2 gene are not transcribed when molecules of "C" are present; for this reason, the operon would be characterized as: A) B) C) D) a repressible operon. a constitutive operon. an inducible operon. lysogenic operon.

Question 8

Your answer is CORRECT.


Which statement does not apply to bacteria possessing the lac (lactose) operon that are grown in the presence of lactose: In the presence of lactose, transcription of the lac operon structural genes would be occurring in these A) cells. B) C) D) The lactose repressor would be inactive until most, or all, of the lactose is consumed by the cells. The lac operon structural genes code for proteins that aid in metabolizing lactose. In the presence of lactose, the lactose repressor would be bound to the operator of the lac operon.

Question 9

Your answer is CORRECT.


In a bacterial cell, the regulatory gene for the trp (tryptophan) operon is mutated and produces a mutated trp repressor protein that can no longer bind tryptophan. In this scenario, the transcription of the trp operon structural genes cannot be repressed (i.e., shut off). A) B) True False

Question 10

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The regulation of the lactose and tryptophan operons, respectively, via the repressor protein - operator mechanism are both examples of A) B) C) D) post-translational control post-transcriptional control translational control none of the above

Question 11

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A constitutive operon is one whose genes are both inducible and repressible. A) B) True False

Question 12

Your answer is INCORRECT.


Which of the following statements is true regarding eukaryotic gene expression? A) Eukaryotic genes only code for proteins.

Transcription of a gene can occur at basal (low) levels without the contribution of enhancer sequences or B) proximal control elements. The very first step in the expression of a gene on a chromosome starts with RNA polymerase binding to a C) promoter. D) Any mRNA transcript can be translated as long as it has a 5' cap and 3' polyA tail.

Question 13

Your answer is CORRECT.

The following statements are false concerning exons of eukaryotic genes, except: A) B) C) D) Translation of exons in pre-mRNA occurs in the cytoplasm. All exons are removed during the splicing process. The mature mRNA's of a gene can contain different orders of exons. Introns, not exons, contain translatable coding sequences.

Question 14

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If three different proteins are encoded by the same eukaryotic gene, this is probably the result of A) B) C) D) transcriptional regulation of the gene. an operon. alternative splicing of mRNA. Three different proteins cannot be encoded by the same eukaryotic gene.

Question 15

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Choose the incorrectly matched pair: A) B) C) D) Post-translational control: ubiquitin/proteosome action Post-transcriptional control: affecting mRNA stability Translational control: chromatin remodeling Transcriptional control: promoter

Question 16

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Which of the following is true of both eukaryotic and prokaryotic genes? A) B) C) D) In order to be transcribed, both require RNA polymerase to bind to a promoter. Transcription of both can be prevented by a regulatory (repressor) protein. Genes of similar function are organized and grouped under control of a single promoter. A, B, and, C is true.

E)

Only A and B is true.

Question 17

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Mature mRNA's of eukaryotes: A) B) C) D) E) contain both coding and non-coding sequences are translated in the nucleus possess modifications that greatly increase their stability in the cytoplasm have not gone through the splicing procedure None of the above is true.

Question 18

Your answer is INCORRECT.


Expression of a eukaryotic gene can be prevented by all of the following except: A) B) C) D) E) stopping the removal of an intron or introns from the gene transcript tagging proteins encoded for by the gene with ubiquitin removing the 5' cap from the gene transcript blocking ribosome binding to the gene transcript There are no exceptions here; A-D are all ways to prevent gene expression

Question 19

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If microRNA (miRNA) is present in a cell: A) B) C) D) it will bind to complementary sequences of specific mRNA's. it will be reversed-transcribed to produce DNA. it will have originated from a protein-coding gene. it will bind to the complementary sequence of DNA and prevent transcription of a gene.

Question 20

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A transcriptional activator, such as a some hormones, can turn on different genes in different cells because these genes possess similar regulatory sequences.

A) B)

True False

Question 21

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If a eukaryotic cell has synthesized a large quantity of a certain protein, you would know that all of the following had occurred prior to protein formation, except: Transcriptional activators likely binded to enhancer sequences & proximal elements of the gene for this A) protein. B) A transcription initiation complex was formed at the promoter region of the gene for this protein.

Chromatin remodeling had not occurred in the region of the chromosome containing this gene for this C) protein. D) E) Introns were excised from the transcript of the gene for this protein. Ribosomes aided in translation of the mature mRNA's of the gene for this protein.

Question 22

Your answer is CORRECT.


All of the following are false concerning a bacterial plasmid vector except: A) B) C) D) E) It is as large as a bacterial cell's chromosome. It does not need a cell to replicate; it can do so on its' own. A vector possesses features that allow one to grow cells containing them under certain selective conditions. It has only one restriction enzyme recognition site. None (A-D) are exceptions, all is true statements.

Question 23

Your answer is INCORRECT.


During the procedure to form recombinant DNA molecules, the purpose of the cell transformation step is to A) B) C) D) use the transformed cells to combine vector and source DNA in order to form recombinant molecules. use the transformed cells as a source of DNA ligase to form recombinant molecules. use the transformed cells to cut the DNA at specific sites to generate fragments. All the above.

E)

None of the above.

Question 24

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The restriction enzyme HindIII recognizes the DNA sequence A*A G C T T T T C G A*A Below is a DNA molecule: CTTAAGCATACGAAGCTTTCT GAATTCGTATGCTTCGAAAGA How many fragments are generated by cutting the DNA molecule with the HindIII enzyme? A) B) C) D) E) 1 2 3 4 6

Question 25

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br/> Using the vector above, you carry out the steps to clone a gene (i.e., restriction enzyme digest with EcoR1, form recombinant DNA, transformation of host cells, growth and selection of host cells) from a species of fish. As you can see there are two antibiotic resistance genes, kanamycin (Kmr) and tetracycline (Tetr) in this vector; the cloning site of the vector is in the kanamycin resistance gene. You finally have your transformed cells and plate them out on antibiotic-containing growth media. What do you know about the cells that are capable of growing on both kanamycin and tetracycline? A) B) C) They contain vector lacking fish DNA segments. They do not contain vector or vector + fish DNA. They contain re-circularized fish DNA segments.

D)

They contain vector with fish DNA segments.

Question 26

Your answer is CORRECT.


If one has prepared cells transformed with a vector containing a particular gene, and then it is observed that the cells are synthesizing the protein of this cloned gene, you know for sure that A) B) C) D) E) a DNA microarray of the cells must have been prepared in this process. a PCR reaction was performed here. the gene was cloned into an expression vector. the gene must be cDNA. the gene must be mutated.

Question 27

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A genomic library consists of fragments of: A) B) C) D) all of the DNA that occurs in members of the same species. all of the DNA that would be found in a cell of a particular organism. all of the DNA in a single, recombinant gene. the DNA that codes only for proteins expressed in a cell of a particular organism.

Question 28

Your answer is INCORRECT.


Reverse transcriptase A) B) C) D) E) is a feature of retroviruses is used to make cDNA uses an RNA template A, B, and C are applicable. Only A and B are applicable.

Question 29

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If a scientist wanted to determine if specific genes were expressed in rat liver tissue when such cells were exposed

to nicotine (a carcinogen found in cigarettes), AND he/she wanted to identify those specific genes, then the scientist would: A) B) C) D) E) prepare a cDNA library of liver cells that were exposed to nicotine employ a DNA chip, or microarray, prepared from the rat genome do a PCR reaction of the entire rat genome perform choice A (cDNA library) first, then use this in conjunction with choice B (DNA chip). have to do all three steps (A, B, & C).

Question 30

Your answer is CORRECT.


All are applicable to PCR except: A) B) C) D) E) It requires a DNA polymerase that is heat-resistant. It can be used to amplify tiny quantities of DNA. It only replicates target sequences. The PCR reaction occurs at a constant temperature. Primers determine which DNA sequences are copied.

Question 31

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When forming recombinant DNA molecules to study the function of a gene or genes and then use those recombinant molecules for application in a commercial process, you would then term this A) B) C) D) science fiction biotechnology a waste of time a way to make money

Question 32

Your answer is CORRECT.

br/> Shown above is an electrophoresis gel performed on two different DNA samples, independently cut with the same restriction enzyme. Sample 1 yielded 3 fragments, A, B, & C; sample 2 produced fragments D, E, F, & G. Which of the following statements is false concerning this gel? A) B) C) D) E) Fragment "C" is the smallest one of both samples. Fragments "A" and "F" are of approximately the same size. Fragment "D" is the largest one of both samples. The movement and migration pattern of these DNA fragments is due to both their charge and size. None of A-D is false they are all true.

Question 33

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The goal of any gene therapy is to: A) B) C) D) E) replace all mutant alleles in all body cells. replace poor copies of alleles with normal alleles. replace a mutant allele in specific tissues with a normal allele. repair mutant alleles in certain body cells. improve gene expression in key body cells.

Question 34

Your answer is CORRECT.


All the following are true concerning gene therapy techniques, except: A) B) Begins with cloning the gene of interest into an expression vector. As a result of the technique, a clone of the patient undergoing gene therapy is obtained.

C) D) E)

May involve removal of cells from the patient and inserting the desired gene in these cells. Could involve simply injecting the vector containing the desired gene directly into the patient. Can employ viruses as the vehicle to insert genes into target tissues.

Question 35

Your answer is CORRECT.


Which of the following is false concerning reproductive cloning? A) B) C) D) E) Involves the technique of nuclear transplantation The source of the donor DNA is the one who is cloned. Reproductive cloning is a very efficient process providing nearly 100% success in every attempt. It requires a surrogate mother in which to implant the embryo. B and C are both false statements.

Question 36

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Let's say you were able to clone yourself using the techniques of reproductive cloning. When this clone grows up, he or she will be the same as you in every way in terms of genetics, behavior and in personality. A) B) True False

Question 37

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Concerning therapeutic cloning, all statements below are correct except: A) One objective of therapeutic cloning is to create a fully formed human.

Involves the transplantation of the nucleus of a humans' somatic cell into an enucleated (nucleus removed) B) donor egg. C) D) E) During the procedure one forms and cultures stem cells of an individual. The goal is to form specialized tissues for medical applications. A-D are all true statements.

Question 38

Your answer is CORRECT.

Which of the following is not true concerning cancer? A) B) Most cancers result as a consequence of the accumulation of mutations in somatic cells. Only some, not all, cancers are known to be caused by viruses.

An increased incidence of cancer could result in an individual if he/she has inherited a mutated allele of a C) tumor suppressor gene. D) E) All forms of cancer have been proven to be heritable. Metastized tumors can spread to other tissues.

Question 39

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Which of the following is characteristic of a cancerous cell? A) B) C) D) E) their oncogenes mutate to active proto-oncogenes they exhibit an increase in the number of growth factor receptors they respond to inhibitory growth signals they have the ability to stop growth and repair damage to the cell A-D are all characteristic of cancerous cells.

Question 40

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Tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes are involved in the ______ of a cell and in cancerous cells are found in mutated forms. A) B) C) D) E) motility normal growth and repair hemoglobin production ATP production collagen formation

Question 41

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An individual diagnosed as having the BCRA1 allele means that this individual will definitely have breast cancer sometime during their life.

A) B)

True False

Question 42

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Cannot think of any more questions - Free points! A) Pick me

Question 43

Your answer is INCORRECT.


BONUS: A bacterial cell type that synthesizes a restriction enzyme can prevent itself from being infected by a bacteriophage. This "inactivation" of the phage would likely occur during which stage of the infection? A) B) C) D) attachment penetration release assembly

Question 44

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BONUS: For a gene cloning experiment, you are going to use a vector containing a tetracycline resistance gene as one of its' reporter genes. It is of no concern if the cells to be used for the transformation step are already naturally resistant to tetracycline; the experiment will work just fine. A) B) True False

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