Exam Title

: HP HP0-655 : Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows

Version : R6.1

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 1. After the Media Management Databases are merged from other cells into the Manager of Managers database, what is the new name for this database? A. CMDB (Central Management Database) B. MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database) C. MMMDB (Merged Media Management Database) D. CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database) Answer: D

2. How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers? A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 1000 Answer: B

3. A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients. Which option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license? A. Multipath B. Autopass C. Direct backup D. Indirect backup Answer: A

4. What is the default value of the "Reconnect broken connections" option in the Data Protector backup specification? A. All (Control and Data connections) B. Control connections only C. Data connections only D. Off (Do not reconnect) Answer: D

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 5. What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows? A. 50GB B. 100GB C. 200GB D. 600GB Answer: A

6. What is the result of a successful backup session using object mirroring? A. All backups and mirrored objects are appended to the same media. B. Mirrored objects are written to a special mirror pool and the backup is written to the specified media set. C. All backups and mirrored objects are in the same media pool. D. One media set contains the backup and additional media sets contain the mirrored objects. Answer: D

7. Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives? A. objects B. devices C. media pools D. backup types Answer: B

8. Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process? A. Media Agent and Disk Agent B. Media Agent and Media Agent C. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent D. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent Answer: B

9. What happens to shared logical devices in a SAN environment when you upgrade Data Protector to version 5.5?

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 A. Shared logical devices must be deleted prior to the upgrade and then reconfigured as multipath devices. B. Shared logical devices are not reconfigured during the upgrade and can be used as before or reconfigured as multipath devices. C. Shared logical devices are deleted during the upgrade and must be reconfigured as multipath devices. D. Shared logical devices are automatically reconfigured as multipath devices during the upgrade. Answer: B

10. Which CLI command scans specified Data Protector clients and gathers information on SCSI addresses of drives and robotic controllers connected to the clients in a SAN environment? A. uma B. omnisan C. sanconfig D. omniconfigsan Answer: C

11. The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity? A. media agent B. logical device C. backup object D. backup session E. backup specification Answer: E

12. In the Data Protector GUI "Users" context with default setting applied, a user on a remote system may be configured into one of three roles. What are these roles? Select THREE. A. admin B. root C. guest D. operator E. java

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 F. user Answer: ADF

13. What can Data Protector use to generate the media label during media initialization? A. unique number issued by the internal database B. serial number of the drive used for initialization C. barcode label of the media D. media type Answer: C

14. What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the database? Select THREE. A. description B. filenames C. mountpoint D. device E. rawdisk sections F. hostname Answer: ACF

15. Your internal database is inoperable and an automated recovery is to be used. Which command allows you to perform this task? A. omnir -autorecover B. omnidb -autorecover C. omnisv -autorecover D. omnidbutil -autorecover E. omnidbrestore -autorecover Answer: E

16. By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?

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 A. obdb.dat B. obrindex.dat C. obdatafiles.dat D. obdbrecovery.dat Answer: B

17. When preparing for internal database recovery, you should regularly backup the internal database object. What does this object include? Select TWO. A. the entire IDB B. the Cell Manager OS system configuration C. the Cell Manager DP program directories D. the pre-exec and post-exec scripts E. the DP configuration Answer: AE

18. Which file must you edit to enable Data Protector internal database transaction logging? A. omnirc.TMPL B. velocis.ini C. obrindex.dat D. global file Answer: B

19. The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge. This happens daily at what time? A. 00:00 B. 12:00 C. 15:00 D. 22:00 Answer: B

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 20. Where is the file version information stored? A. Catalog Database (CDB) B. Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF) C. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF) D. Media Management Database (MMDB) Answer: C

21. Which information, besides Other, is listed in the System Dynamics report option of the internal database? A. size of the IDB extension files B. growth ratio of IDB filenames C. number of filenames waiting to be purged D. number of filenames purged during the last maintenance cycle Answer: B

22. To view a finished session that is no longer displayed in the Data Protector "Monitor" context, you must view the session in which context? A. View B. Internal Database C. Reporting D. Devices and Media Answer: B

23. How can you enable execution tracing for the GUI on Windows and write the results into a file named trace.out? A. xomni -trace 1-99 trace.out B. xomni -debug 1-99 -f trace.out C. manager -trace 1-99 trace.out D. manager -debug 1-99 trace.out Answer: D

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 24. In a Windows environment, which Data Protector service must be running on both the cell manager and the client? A. CRS B. inet C. MMDB D. MA Answer: B

25. Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database? A. omnicheck B. omnihealth C. omnidbcheck D. omnihealthcheck Answer: D

26. Which Data Protector disaster recovery option is supported for a cell manager on a Windows 2003 server? A. One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR) B. Disk Delivery Disaster Recovery (DDDR) C. Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR) D. Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery (EADR) Answer: C

27. What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery method? A. The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup. B. The cell manager replicates the cell database to a standby system. C. The cell manager creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner. D. The SRD file for a failed client is updated.

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 Answer: C

28. When using One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR), what is the minimum free space that should be on a boot partition during backup? A. 100 MB B. 150 MB C. 200 MB D. 250 MB Answer: C

29. Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore? Select TWO. A. client database corruption B. client configuration corruption C. failure/loss of the client's tape device D. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB E. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB Answer: BE

30. What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents do NOT reside on the same host? A. RMI over LAN B. remote agents C. stream sockets D. pipe mechanisms Answer: C

31. Which Data Protector processes update the catalog information (filenames and file versions) of the internal database (IDB) during an active backup session? Select TWO. A. the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client

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