Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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familiar with nearly all the material, you will probably need a minimum of review; however, if topics and terms are unfamiliar, you will probably require substantial study to do well on the exam. If, after reviewing the test description provided in the exam guide, you nd that you need extensive review, put off answering the sample questions until you have done some reading in the subject. If you complete them before reviewing the material, you will probably look for the answers as you study, and this will not be a good assessment of your ability at a later date. Do not refer to the sample questions as you prepare for the exam. The sample questions are representative of the types of questions you will nd on a CLEP exam, but none of the questions will actually appear on an exam, so concentrating on them without broader study of the subject wont help you. If you think you are familiar with most of the test material, try to answer the sample questions, checking your responses against the answer key. Use the test-taking strategies described in the next chapter.
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Understand Terms
Review Study Materials suggested in the Study Resources section of the exam guide
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Most of this material is offered for free. Educational Web sites, like those offered by PBS (www.pbs.org) or the National Geographic Society (www.nationalgeographic.com), can be helpful as well. Check with your librarian about locating study aids relevant to the exams you plan to take. These supplementary materials may include videos or DVDs made by education-oriented companies and organizations, language tapes, and computer software. And dont forget that what you do with your leisure time can be very educational, whether its surng current-events Web sites, watching a PBS series, reading a nancial newsletter, or attending a play. 3. Find a good place to study. To determine what kind of place you need for studying, ask yourself the following questions: Do I need a quiet place? Does the telephone distract me? Do objects I see in this place remind me of things I should do? Is it too warm? Is it well lit? Am I too comfortable here? Do I have space to spread out my materials? You may nd the library more conducive to studying than your home. If you decide to study at home or in your dorm, you might prevent interruptions by other household members by putting a sign on the door of your study room to indicate when you will be available. 4. Schedule time to study. To help you determine where studying best ts into your schedule, try this exercise: Make a list of your daily activities (for example, sleeping, working, eating, attending class, sports, or exercise) and estimate how many hours a day you spend on each activity. Now, rate all the activities on your list in order of their importance and evaluate your use of time. Often people are astonished at how an average day appears from this perspective. You may discover that your time can be scheduled in alternative ways. For example, you could remove the least important activities from your day and devote that time to studying or to another important activity. 5. Establish a study routine and a set of goals. To study effectively, you should establish specic goals and a schedule for accomplishing them. Some people nd it helpful to write out a weekly schedule and cross out each study period when it is completed. Others maintain their concentration better by writing down the time when they expect to complete a study task. Most people nd short periods of intense study more productive than long stretches of time. For example, they may follow a regular schedule of several 20- or 30-minute study periods with short breaks between them. Some people like to allow themselves rewards as they complete each study goal. It is not essential that you accomplish every goal exactly within your schedule; the point is to be committed to your task. 6. Learn how to take an active role in studying. If you have not studied a textbook for some time, you may nd it difcult to concentrate at rst. Try a method of studying, such as the one outlined below and on the next page, that will help you concentrate on and remember what you read. a. First, read the chapter summary and the introduction so you will know what to look for in your reading. b. Next, convert the section or paragraph headlines into questions. For example, if you are reading a
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section entitled The Causes of the American Revolution, ask yourself, What were the causes of the American Revolution? Compose the answer as you read the paragraph. Reading and answering questions aloud will help you understand and remember the material. c. Take notes on key ideas or concepts as you read. Writing will also help you x concepts more rmly in your mind. Underlining key ideas or writing notes in your book can be helpful and will be useful for review. Underline only important points. If you underline more than a third of each paragraph, you are probably underlining too much. d. If there are questions or problems at the end of a chapter, answer or solve them on paper as if you were asked to do them for homework. Mathematics textbooks (and some other books) sometimes include answers to some or all of the exercises. If you have such a book, write your answers before looking at the ones given. When problem solving is involved, work enough problems to master the required methods and concepts. If you have difculty with problems, review any sample problems or explanations in the chapter. e. To retain knowledge, most people have to review the material periodically. If you are preparing for an exam over an extended period of time, review key concepts and notes each week or so. Do not wait for weeks to review the material or you will need to relearn much of it.
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e. the time of the test administration. You may wish to conrm this information a day or two before the exam and nd out what time the building and room will be open so that you can plan to arrive early. f. where to park your car and whether you will need a parking permit or, if you will be taking public transportation, which bus or train to take and the location of the nearest stop. g. whether there will be a break between exams (if you will be taking more than one on the same day), and whether there is a place nearby where you can get something to eat or drink. 2. Be relaxed and alert while you are taking the exam. a. Get a good nights sleep. Last-minute cramming, particularly late the night before, is usually counterproductive. b. Eat normally. It is usually not wise to skip breakfast or lunch on the day you take the exam or to eat a big meal just before testing. c. Avoid tranquilizers and stimulants. If you follow the other directions in this book, you wont need articial aids. Its better to be a little tense than to be drowsy, but stimulants such as coffee and cola can make you nervous and interfere with your concentration. d. Dont drink a lot of liquids before taking the exam. Leaving to use the restroom during testing will disturb your concentration and reduce the time you have to complete the exam. e. If you are inclined to be nervous or tense, learn some relaxation exercises and use them to prepare for the exam. 3. On the day of the exam, remember to do the following. a. Arrive early enough so that you can nd a parking place, locate the test center, and get settled comfortably before testing begins. Allow some extra time in case you are delayed unexpectedly. b. Take the following with you:
any registration forms or printouts required by the test center. Make sure you have lled out all necessary paperwork in advance of your testing date. your drivers license, passport, or other government-issued identication that includes your photograph and signature, as well as a secondary form of ID that includes a photo and/or your signature, such as a student ID, military ID, social security card, or credit card. You will be asked to show this identication to be admitted to the testing area. a valid credit card to pay the $70 examination fee. (This fee is subject to change.) Although a credit card is the preferred method of payment, you can also pay by check or money order (payable to the College-Level Examination Program). Your test center may require an additional administration fee. Contact the test center to determine the amount and the method of payment. two pencils with good erasers. You may need a pencil for writing an outline or guring out math problems. Mechanical pencils are prohibited in the testing room. your glasses if you need them for reading or seeing the chalkboard or wall clock.
c. Leave all books, papers, and notes outside the test center. You will not be permitted to use your own scratch paper; it will be provided by the test center.
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d. Do not take a calculator to the exam. If a calculator is required, it will be built into the testing software and available to you on the computer. The CLEP Sampler and the pretest tutorials will show you how to use that feature. e. Do not bring a cell phone or other electronic devices into the testing room. f. Be prepared to adjust to an uncomfortable temperature in the testing room. Wear layers of clothing that can be removed if the room is too hot but that will keep you warm if it is too cold. 4. When you enter the test room: a. Although you will be assigned to a computer testing station, the test center administrator can usually accommodate special needs. Be sure to communicate your needs before the day you test. b. Read directions carefully and listen to all instructions given by the test administrator. If you dont understand the directions, ask for help before test timing begins. If you must ask a question after testing has begun, raise your hand and a proctor will assist you. The proctor can answer certain kinds of questions but cannot help you with the exam. c. Know your rights as a test-taker. You can expect to be given the full working time allowed for taking the exam and a reasonably quiet and comfortable place in which to work. If a poor testing situation is preventing you from doing your best, ask whether the situation can be remedied. If bad testing conditions cannot be remedied, ask the person in charge to report the problem on an Electronic Irregularity Report that will be submitted with your test results. You may also wish to immediately write a letter to CLEP, P.O. Box 6656, Princeton, NJ 08541-6656. Describe the exact circumstances as completely as you can. Be sure to include the name of the test center, the test date, and the name(s) of the exam(s) you took. The problem will be investigated to make sure it does not happen again, and, if the problem is serious enough, arrangements will be made for you to retake the exam without charge.
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6. Watch for the following key words in test questions: all always but except every generally however may must necessary never none not often only perhaps rarely seldom sometimes usually
When a question or answer option contains words such as always, every, only, never, and none, there can be no exceptions to the answer you choose. Use of words such as often, rarely, sometimes, and generally indicates that there may be some exceptions to the answer. 7. Make educated guesses. There is no penalty for incorrect answers. It is to your benet to guess if you do not know an answer since CLEP CBT uses rights-only scoring. (An explanation of the procedures used for scoring CLEP exams is given in the next chapter.) If you are not sure of the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices as wrong, your chance of getting the right answer is improved. Do not waste your time looking for clues to right answers based on aws in question wording or patterns in correct answers. CLEP puts a great deal of effort into developing valid, reliable, and fair exams. CLEP test development committees are composed of college faculty who are experts in the subjects covered by the exams and are appointed by the College Board to write test questions and to scrutinize each question that is included on a CLEP exam. Faculty committee members make every effort to ensure that the questions are not ambiguous, that they have only one correct answer, and that they cover college-level topics. These committees do not intentionally include trick questions. If you think a question is awed, ask the test administrator to report it, or write immediately to CLEP Test Development, P.O. Box 6600, Princeton, NJ 08541-6600. Include the name of the exam and test center, the exam date, and the number of the exam question. All such inquiries are investigated by test development professionals.
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Introductory Psychology
Description of the Examination
The Introductory Psychology examination covers material that is usually taught in a one-semester undergraduate course in introductory psychology. It stresses basic facts, concepts, and generally accepted principles in the 13 areas listed in the following section. The examination contains approximately 95 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of these are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials and providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time. 78% Sensation and Perception Attention Other senses: somesthesis, olfaction, gustation, vestibular system Perceptional development Perceptional processes Receptor processes: vision, audition Sensory mechanisms: thresholds, adaptation 56% States of Consciousness Hypnosis and meditation Psychoactive drug effects Sleep and dreaming 1011% Learning Biological bases Classical conditioning Cognitive process in learning Observational learning Operant conditioning 89% Cognition Intelligence and creativity Language Memory Thinking and problem solving 78% Motivation and Emotion Biological bases Hunger, thirst, sex, pain Social motivation Theories of emotion Theories of motivation
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89% Developmental Psychology Dimensions of development: physical, cognitive, social, moral Gender identity and sex roles Heredity-environment issues Research methods: longitudinal, cross-sectional Theories of development 78% Personality Assessment techniques Growth and adjustment Personality theories and approaches Research methods: idiographic, nomothetic Self-concept, self-esteem 89% Psychological Disorders and Health Affective disorders Anxiety disorders Dissociative disorders Health, stress, and coping Personality disorders Psychoses Somatoform disorders Theories of psychopathology 78% Treatment of Psychological Disorders Behavioral therapies Biological and drug therapies Cognitive therapies Community and preventive approaches Insight therapies: psychodynamic and humanistic approaches
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78% Social Psychology Aggression/antisocial behavior Attitudes and attitude change Attribution processes Conformity, compliance, obedience Group dynamics Interpersonal perception 34% Statistics, Test, and Measurement Descriptive statistics Inferential statistics Measurement of intelligence Mental handicapping conditions Reliability and validity Samples, populations, norms Types of tests
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4. The requirement that prospective participants know the general nature of a study so that they can decide whether to participate is a major part of (A) reciprocal determinism (B) condentiality (C) informed consent (D) duty to inform (E) the free-choice paradigm 5. The statement response latency is the number of seconds that elapses between the stimulus and the response is an example of (A) introspection (B) a description of interaction (C) a deduction (D) an operational denition (E) free association 6. The release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft is caused by which of the following? (A) An extended refractory period (B) An action potential (C) Reuptake of the neurotransmitter (D) Binding of the neurotransmitter to a postsynaptic cell membrane (E) Vesicles migrating into the synaptic cleft 7. A neuron is said to be polarized when (A) it is in the refractory period (B) it is in a resting state (C) it is about to undergo an action potential (D) the synaptic terminals release chemicals into the synaptic gap (E) chemicals outside the cell body cross the cell membrane
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8. Down syndrome is caused by (A) an extra chromosome (B) an imbalance of neurotransmitters (C) a tumor in the parietal lobe (D) a nutritional deciency (E) a viral infection in the third trimester of pregnancy 9. How many pairs of chromosomes are contained in most human cells? (A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 16 (D) 23 (E) 31 10. Damage to an individuals parietal lobes would most likely result in (A) a heightened sense of smell (B) a reduced sensitivity to touch (C) decreased reaction time (D) a loss in the ability to understand language (E) a difculty with visual discrimination 11. In adults, total sensory deprivation for long periods of time produces (A) a feeling of well-being similar to that achieved through meditation (B) no change in emotions or cognition, provided the participant was mentally stable before the deprivation (C) increased efciency in the senses of sight, hearing, and touch (D) profound apathy and a subjective sensation of powerlessness (E) hallucinations and impaired efciency in all areas of intellectual functioning
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12. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the retina? (A) The rods are more dense in the fovea than in the periphery. (B) The blind spot is closer to the fovea than to the edge of the retina. (C) The image on the retina is upside down. (D) The image is located at the back of the eye. (E) The eye contains two kinds of receptors: rods and cones. 13. The opponent-process theory in vision best explains which of the following? (A) Size constancy (B) Color afterimages (C) Superior visual acuity in the fovea (D) Depth perception using monocular cues (E) Illusory movement 14. The receptors for hearing are the (A) ossicles in the middle ear (B) otoliths in the semicircular canals (C) hair cells on the basilar membrane (D) specialized cells on the tympanic membrane (E) cells in the lining of the auditory canal
15. The picture above of a road receding in the distance represents the depth perception cue known as (A) accommodation (B) retinal disparity (C) texture gradient (D) relative size (E) linear perspective
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16. Brain waves during REM sleep generally appear as (A) alternating high- and low-amplitude waves (B) rapid low-amplitude waves (C) irregular medium-amplitude waves (D) slow low-amplitude waves (E) slow high-amplitude waves 17. Which of the following is a type of sleep pattern that becomes less prevalent as one moves from infancy to adulthood? (A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Gamma (D) Theta (E) REM 18. According to current psychological research, hypnosis is most useful for which of the following purposes? (A) Pain control (B) Age regression (C) Treatment of psychotic behavior (D) Treatment of a memory disorder (E) Treatment of a personality disorder 19. Checking the coin return every time one passes a pay telephone or a vending machine is a type of behavior probably being maintained by which of the following schedules of reinforcement? (A) Fixed interval only (B) Fixed ratio only (C) Variable ratio only (D) Variable interval and xed ratio (E) Fixed interval and variable ratio
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20. Making the amount of time a child can spend playing video games contingent on the amount of time the child spends practicing the piano is an illustration of (A) Jeremy Benthams adaptive hedonism principle (B) John Lockes law of association (C) aversive conditioning (D) classical conditioning (E) operant conditioning 21. Which of the following strategies would undermine the effectiveness of punishment? (A) Delaying punishment (B) Using punishment just severe enough to be effective (C) Making punishment consistent (D) Explaining punishment (E) Minimizing dependence on physical punishment 22. A teacher tells a child to sit down in class. Over the course of several days, the child is standing up more and more frequently, only to be told to sit down each time. It is most likely that the teachers reprimands are serving as (A) a punishment (B) approval (C) a reinforcer (D) an aversive stimulus (E) a conditioned stimulus 23. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer? (A) Food (B) Warmth (C) Water (D) Money (E) Sex
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24. Shortly after learning to associate the word dog with certain four-legged furry animals, young children will frequently misidentify a cow or a horse as a dog. This phenomenon is best viewed as an example of (A) differentiation (B) negative transfer (C) imprinting (D) stimulus generalization (E) linear perspective 25. If on the last day of a psychology class, a student is asked to remember what was done in class each day during the term, she will likely be able to remember best the activities of the rst and last class meetings. This situation is an example of (A) retroactive interference (B) positive transfer (C) the serial position effect (D) proactive interference (E) short-term memory 26. Proactive interference describes a process by which (A) people remember digits better than words (B) people remember images better than words (C) people remember elements in pairs (D) prior learning interferes with subsequent learning (E) subsequent learning interferes with prior learning 27. Research has shown that students generally perform better if tested in the same room where they did their learning. This shows the importance of which of the following in memory? (A) Insight (B) Preparedness (C) Context (D) Invariance (E) Rehearsal
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28. Which of the following is true of recall performance on a typical forgetting curve? (A) It decreases rapidly at rst, and then it levels off. (B) It decreases slowly at rst, and then it drops off quite sharply. (C) It decreases at a steady rate until it reaches a near-zero level. (D) It remains steady for about the rst week, and then it begins a gradual decline. (E) It increases for the rst few hours after learning, and then it decreases very slowly over the next few weeks. 29. According to information processing theory, information is progressively processed by (A) long-term memory, short-term memory, and then sensory memory (B) sensory memory, short-term memory, and then long-term memory (C) sensory memory, semantic memory, and then long-term memory (D) short-term memory, semantic memory, and then long-term memory (E) short-term memory, long-term memory, and then sensory memory 30. In problem solving, which of the following approaches almost always guarantees a solution? (A) Insight (B) Heuristic (C) Algorithm (D) Critical thinking (E) Convergent thinking
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31. One theory of the effects of arousal holds that efciency of behavior can be described as an inverted U-shaped function of increasing arousal. Which of the following accurately describes this relationship? (A) Greater arousal leads to better performance. (B) Greater arousal leads to poorer performance. (C) Low and high levels of arousal lead to poorest performance. (D) Overarousal leads to performance efciency. (E) Underarousal leads to performance efciency. 32. Which of the following illustrates drive reduction? (A) A person wins ve dollars in the lottery. (B) A dog burned by a hot stove avoids the stove thereafter. (C) A child who likes music turns up the volume of the radio. (D) A dog salivates at the sound of a tone previously paired with fresh meat. (E) A woman who is cold puts on a warm coat. 33. Which of the following presents a pair of needs from Abraham Maslows hierarchical need structure in order from lower to higher need? (A) Belongingness, safety (B) Self-actualization, physiological needs (C) Physiological needs, safety (D) Esteem, belongingness (E) Self-actualization, esteem 34. In an approach-avoidance conict, as the person nears the goal, the levels of attraction and aversion change in which of the following ways? (A) Both increase (B) Both decrease (C) Attraction increases and aversion decreases (D) Attraction decreases and aversion increases (E) Both are extinguished
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35. Which of the following has been identied as correlating most closely with heart disease? (A) Anxiety (B) Physical overexertion (C) Guilt (D) Muscle tension (E) Hostility 36. In which of the following areas does psychological research show most clearly that girls develop earlier than boys? (A) Independence from parents (B) Athletic competence (C) Intellectual achievement (D) Adolescent physical growth spurt (E) Self-actualization 37. Developmental psychologists would most likely prefer longitudinal research designs to cross-sectional research designs because longitudinal designs (A) usually yield results much more quickly (B) offer the advantage of between-subjects comparisons (C) are much less likely to be inuenced by cultural changes that occur over time (D) utilize the subjects as their own experimental controls (E) are more valid 38. A young child breaks her cookie into a number of pieces and asserts that now there is more to eat. In Jean Piagets analysis, the childs behavior is evidence of (A) formal logical operations (B) concrete logical operations (C) conservation (D) preoperational thought (E) sensorimotor analysis
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39. A school psychologist informs a ninth-grade teacher that Jimmy identies with his twelfthgrade brother. What the psychologist means is that Jimmy tends to (A) feel inferior to his brother (B) envy and to be jealous of his brother (C) inuence the way his brother views the world (D) recognize similarities between his brother and himself (E) accept his brothers values and to imitate his behavior 40. According to Elisabeth Kbler-Ross, what is the correct order of the stages for confronting impending death? (A) Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance (B) Bargaining, anger, depression, denial, acceptance (C) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance (D) Depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance (E) Depression, denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance 41. When preschool children see the world from only their point of view, they are displaying (A) accommodation (B) assimilation (C) egocentric thinking (D) deductive reasoning (E) object permanence
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42. When insulted by a friend, Sallys rst impulse was to strike him. Instead, she yelled loudly and kicked a door several times. This means of reducing aggressive impulses exemplies which of the following? (A) Repression (B) Abreaction (C) Displacement (D) Cathexis (E) Sublimation 43. Carl Jung is associated with which of the following concepts? (A) Inferiority complex (B) Need for achievement (C) Collective unconscious (D) Self-esteem (E) Self-actualization 44. Erik Eriksons and Sigmund Freuds theories of personality development are most similar in that they both (A) emphasize the libido (B) focus on adult development (C) discount the importance of culture (D) are based on stages (E) view behavior as a continuum 45. The use of projective tests is associated with which of the following psychological approaches? (A) Behaviorism (B) Psychoanalysis (C) Cognitive behaviorism (D) Humanism (E) Functionalism
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46. Lawrence is pessimistic, rigid, and moody. In terms of Hans Eysencks personality dimensions, Lawrence would be classied as (A) independent-dependent (B) stable-extraverted (C) internal-external (D) unstable-introverted (E) passive-aggressive 47. The key distinction between a personality trait and an attitude is (A) centrality (B) salience (C) durability (D) direction (E) valence 48. A diagnosis of schizophrenia typically includes which of the following symptoms? (A) Delusions (B) Panic attacks (C) Hypochondriasis (D) Multiple personality (E) Psychosexual dysfunction 49. The term etiology refers to the study of which of the following aspects of an illness? (A) Origins and causes (B) Characteristic symptoms (C) Expected outcome following treatment (D) Frequency of occurrence (E) Level of contagiousness 50. An obsession is dened as (A) a senseless ritual (B) a hallucination (C) a delusion (D) an unwanted thought (E) a panic attack
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51. A somatization disorder is characterized chiey by (A) changes in mood (B) panic attacks (C) agoraphobia (D) changes in eating behavior (E) physical complaints 52. Personality disorders are characterized by which of the following? (A) A fear of public places, frequently accompanied by panic attacks (B) Inexible and maladaptive responses to stress, and problematic social relationships (C) A successful response to neuroleptic drugs (D) A deciency of acetylcholine in the brain (E) An increased level of serotonin in the brain 53. Research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy has indicated that (A) there are therapeutic methods that have been shown to be especially effective for particular psychological disorders (B) nondirective techniques are generally superior to directive ones (C) the effectiveness of a method depends on the length of time a therapist was trained in the method (D) psychoanalysis is the most effective technique for eliminating behavior disorders (E) psychoanalysis is the most effective technique for curing anxiety disorders 54. Which of the following kinds of therapy attempts to correct irrational beliefs that lead to psychological distress? (A) Behavioral (B) Cognitive (C) Existential (D) Gestalt (E) Psychoanalytic
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55. An individual undergoing psychotherapy shows improvement due only to that persons belief in the therapy and not because of the therapy itself. This result illustrates a (A) transference effect (B) placebo effect (C) cathectic effect (D) primary gain (E) conditioned response 56. Which of the following can be a signicant side effect of electroconvulsive therapy? (A) Aphasia (B) Sustained convulsions (C) Muscle tremors (D) Loss of muscle control (E) Temporary loss of memory 57. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are used primarily in the treatment of which of the following? (A) Anxiety (B) Schizophrenia (C) Depression (D) Mania (E) Sleep disorders 58. Similarity, proximity, and familiarity are important determinants of (A) observational learning (B) friendship formation (C) sexual orientation (D) aggression (E) imprinting
P S Y C H O L O G Y
59. All of the following are true about altruism EXCEPT: (A) It is more common in small towns and rural areas than in cities. (B) It is more likely to be inherited than is aggressive behavior. (C) A person is more likely to perform an altruistic act when another person has modeled altruistic behavior. (D) A person is more likely to perform an altruistic act when another person has pointed out the need. (E) A person is more likely to be altruistic when not in a hurry. 60. The bystander effect has been explained by which of the following? (A) Empathy (B) Diffusion of responsibility (C) Social facilitation (D) Reactive devaluation (E) Defective schemas 61. According to Robert Sternberg, love is composed of which of the following? (A) Maturity, romance, liking (B) Assimilation, accommodation, altruism (C) Intimacy, passion, commitment (D) Selessness, agape, companionship (E) Tolerance, humility, trust 62. Job satisfaction has an inverse relationship with (A) productivity (B) career interest (C) turnover (D) age (E) skill level
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63. An attribution that focuses on an individuals ability or personality characteristics is described as (A) situational (B) collectivist (C) dispositional (D) stereotypic (E) homogeneous 64. Which of the following terms refers to the strategy of making a small request to gain listeners compliance, then making a larger request? (A) Door-in-the-face (B) Foot-in-the-door (C) Social facilitation (D) Matching (E) Overjustication
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65. Which of the following is a true statement about the relationship between test validity and test reliability? (A) A test can be reliable without being valid. (B) A test that has high content validity will have high reliability. (C) A test that has low content validity will have low reliability. (D) The higher the tests validity, the lower its reliability will be. (E) The validity of a test always exceeds its reliability. 66. Which of the following statistics indicates the distribution with the greatest variability? (A) A variance of 30.6 (B) A standard deviation of 11.2 (C) A range of 6 (D) A mean of 61.5 (E) A median of 38
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Study Resources
Most textbooks used in college-level introductory psychology courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphasis given to them may differ. To prepare for the Introductory Psychology exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test. You may also nd it helpful to supplement your reading with books listed in the bibliographies that can be found in most psychology textbooks. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schools Web sites, and there are a number of educational Web sites such as those mentioned in Chapter IV, pp. 1819, that contain useful resources organized by subject. Additional suggestions for preparing for CLEP exams are given in Preparing to Take CLEP Examinations. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
Answer Key
B D D C D B B A D B E A B C E B E A C E A C D D C D C A B C C E C 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. A E D D D E C C C C D B D C A A D E B A B B E C B B B C C C B A B
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Business Financial Accounting 50 3 Information Systems and Computer Applications 50 3 Introductory Business Law 50 3 Principles of Accounting2 50 6 Principles of Management 50 3 Principles of Marketing 50 3 Composition and Literature American Literature 50 6 Analyzing and Interpreting Literature 50 6 English Composition with Essay 50 6 English Composition without Essay 50 6 English Literature 50 6 Freshman College Composition 50 6 Humanities 50 6 Foreign Languages French Language, Level 1 50 6 French Language, Level 2 59 12 German Language, Level 1 50 6 12 German Language, Level 2 603 Spanish Language, Level 1 50 6 Spanish Language, Level 2 63 12 Level 1equivalent to the rst two semesters (or 6 semester hours) of college-level foreign language course work Level 2equivalent to the rst four semesters (or 12 semester hours) of college-level foreign language course work History and Social Sciences American Government 50 3 History of the United States I: Early Colonization to 1877 50 3 History of the United States II: 1865 to Present 50 3 Human Growth and Development 50 3 Introduction to Educational Psychology 50 3 Introductory Psychology 50 3 Introductory Sociology 50 3 Principles of Macroeconomics 50 3 Principles of Microeconomics 50 3 Social Sciences and History 50 6 Western Civilization I: Ancient Near East to 1648 50 3 Western Civilization II: 1648 to Present 50 3 Science and Mathematics Biology 50 6 Calculus 50 3 Chemistry 50 6 College Algebra 50 3 College Mathematics 50 6 Precalculus 50 3 Natural Sciences 50 6
1 The scores and credit hours that appear in this table are the credit-granting scores and semester hours recommended by the American Council on Education (ACE). The scores listed above are equivalent to a grade of C in the corresponding course. 2 This examination is no longer available to students. 3 This score is recommended for exams administered after June 30, 2008. Founded in 1918, the American Council on Education (ACE) is the nations unifying voice for higher education. ACE serves as a consensus leader on key higher education issues and seeks to influence public policy through advocacy, research, and program initiatives.
747460
www.collegeboard.com/clep 25