pb=) human ana drill exam
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
i . the term "anatomy" is derived from:
a. latin b. anglo-saxon c. persian d. french
e. none of the preceding.
2. the activities of an histologist consist of
___ whereas those of a physiologist consist
of ___
a. conducting experiments / making
microscopic observations
b. studying the structure of normal tissue /
studying the structure of abnormal tissue
c. studying chemical molecules / observing
forms of the body
d. studying the structure of normal tissues
/ studying the functions of body structures
e. none of the above.
3. which of the following is not true of the
anatomical position?
a. the subject is standing erect
b. arms at the side with the palms directed
backwards
c. feet parallel to each other and flat on
the floor
d. the subject's eyes are looking forward
e. all the preceding statements are correct
4. what is the ph of a solution whose
hydrogen ion concentration is 0.00001?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 10
e. 4.5
5. the cubital fossa is located in the:
a. lower extremity b. thorax c. upper
extremity d. neck e. sphenoid bone.
6. which of the following is classified as a
monosaccharide?
a. sucrose b. glycogen c. glucose d. lactose
e. starch.
7. if a strand of dna molecule contained the
base sequence t,t,g,c,a,g the
complementary dna strand would contain:
a. u,u,c,g,t,c
b. a,a,c,g,t,c
c. a,a,c,g,u,c
d. c,c,t,a,u,t
e. u,u,g,c,u,c
8. a parietal membrane-------whereas a
visceral membrane-----
a. covers organs / lines cavities
b. secretes mucus / secretes a serous fluid
c. lines cavities / covers organs
d. secretes a serous fluid / secretes mucus
e. two of the above.
match each organelle with the appropriate
statement.
(note: items a through e may be used more
than once.)
a. ribosome b. cell membrane c.
endoplasmic reticulum (er) d. lysosome e.
mitochondrion.
9. may be attached to er, or free in the
cytoplasm
10. membranous sac of digestive enzymes
11. regulates passage of material into and
out of the cell
12. contains cristae
13. usually described as a fluid-mosaic
model
14. plays an important role in autophagy
15. contains dna, can move and reproduce
16. the appearance may be rough or
smooth
17. made up of interconnected tubules
select the most appropriate term for the
following:
(note: items a through e may be used more
than once.)
a. distal b. superior c. proximal d. anterior
e. lateral.
18. the wrist is-----to the elbow.
19. the elbow is-----to the shoulder.
20. the nasal cavity is-----to the oral cavity.
21. the knee is-----to the ankle.
22. the ankle is-----to the knee.
23. the heart is----to the vertebral column.
24. the right eye is-----to the bridge of the
25. the left eye is-----to the bridge of the
nose.
26. the forehead is-----to the bridge of the
nose.
true or false: true = a false = b.
27. when a red blood cell swells it has
undergone cremation.
28. the term homeostasis refers to the
maintenance of a relatively stable external
environment.
29. goblet cells may be classified as
unicellular glands.
30. growth of a tissue due to increase in
cell size is called hypertrophy.
31. a long bone contains one epiphysis and
two diaphyses
32. keratinocytes produce a brownish-black
pigment called melanin.
33. coenzymes are organic molecules that
are derived from water-soluable vitamins.
34. anaerobic respiration does not require
oxygen.
35. steroid hormones are produced by cells
in the gonads.
36. glucose enters cells by a process called
facilitated diffusion.
1
pb=) human ana drill exam

37. anabolic metabolism requires energy. 46. which suture extends from the
anterolateral fontanel to the anterior
multiple choice. choose the best answer. fontanel?

38. in the abdominal area, the region a. coronal b. sagittal c. squamosal d.

inferior to the umbilical region is called the lambdoidal e. longitudinal.

a. epigastric region 47. the singular form of phalanges :

b. right hypochondriac region
c. hypogastric region a. phalangis b. phalanx c. phalanis d.
d. left hypochondriac region phalans e. none of the preceding.
e. none of the preceding.
48. the pituitary gland is located in the:
39. as a result of mitosis, each new cell
has: a. sphenoidal sinus
b. glenoid fossa
a. twice as many chromosomes as its c. crista galli
parent cell d. supraspinous fossa
b. half as many chromosomes as its parent e. none of the preceding
cell
c. four times as many chromosomes as its matching: muscle cells. (note: letters may
parent cell be used more than once.)
d. the same number of chromosomes as its
parent cell a. skeletal muscle cells. b. cardiac muscle
e. none of the above. cells. c. both a and b. d. neither a nor b.
49. cells are striated
40. shafts of hair are composed of: 50. cells are multinucleated
51. involuntary muscle cells
a. dead dermal cells 52. cells develop cilia
b. living epidermal cells 53. cells located in lacunae
c. dead epidermal cells 54. cells found in the wall of the intestine
d. living dermal cells and ureter
e. none of the preceding. 55. cells form branching structures
56. cells form intercalated discs
41. the hormone calcitonin:
match each skeletal region ( a or b) with an
a. lowers blood calcium levels appropriate bone. (note: items a an b may
b. is produced by the parathyroid glands be used more than once.)
c. increases blood calcium levels
a. appendicular skeleton b. axial skeleton
d. answers a and b
e. answers b and c 57. scapula.
58. os coxa.
42. cells placed in an isotonic solution will: 59. hyoid bone.
60. femur.
a. shrink b. swell c. neither swell nor 61. ear ossicles.
shrink. 62. vertebrae.
63. cranial bones.
43. ciliated epithelium that is destroyed by 64. tarsal bones.
disease would cause malfunction of the: 65. ribs.
66. humerus.
a. digestive system
b. respiratory system multiple choice. choose the best answer.
c. urinary system
d. circulatory system 67. elastic connective tissue is found
e. none of the preceding. within:

44. reticular connective tissue is found
within the:
a. spleen b. liver c. lymph nodes d. all of
the preceding.
45. the structure that contracts to cause
"goose bumps" in the skin, is the:
a. dermal papilla b. arrector pili c.
sebaceous gland d. hair follicle e. eccrine
gland
a. the outer ear b. the liver c. tendon d.
walls of large arteries e. smooth muscle
cells.
68. which of the following is not a cranial
bone?
a. occipital b. temporal c. zygomatic d.
frontal e. parietal.
69. which of the following bones does not
contain one or more air sinuses?

2
pb=) human ana drill exam

a. occipital b. frontal c. sphenoid d. 85. the odontoid process (=dens) is part of

ethmoid; e. maxilla. the:

match each tissue type with the a. atlas b. sacrum c. occipital bone d.
appropriate location. (note: items a mandible e. none of the preceding.
through e may be used more than once.)
86. the science or study of the skin or
a. hyaline cartilage integument is called:
b. transitional epithelium
c. stratified, nonkeratinized squamous a. myology b. dermatology c. germatology
epithelium d. coriology e. histology.
d. nonciliated, columnar epithelium
e. fibrocartilage from the list of bones, match the correct
structure or foramen that is associated
70. lining the lumen (=internal cavity) of with it.
the urinary bladder
71. symphysis pubis a. temporal bone b. mandible c. sphenoid
72. extremity of the nose bone d. ethmoid bone e. occipital bone.
73. ends of the long bones 87. crista galli
74. lining the lumen of the stomach 88. coronoid process
75. lining the lumen of the vagina 89. mastoid process
76. lining the lumen of the ureter 90. foramen magnum
77. intervertebral discs 91. condyloid process
78. lining the lumen of the esophagus 92. cribriform plate
79. lining the lumen of the intestine 93. notch
80. in the wall of the trachea 94. styloid process
81. a portion of the ribs 95. sella turcic.
96. mental foramen
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
true or false: true= a, false b
82. parathyroid hormone:
97. the paranasal sinuses connect directly
a. is produced by the thyroid gland to the oral cavity and are prone to
b. is derived from vitamin d3 infection
c. is a steroid hormone 98. the hyoid bone does not attach directly
d. increases blood calcium levels to any other bone
e. two of the preceding. 99. the basic building blocks of proteins
are amino acids
83. the secondary curvatures of the 100. the total number of fontanels in the
vertebral column are the: newborn's skull is four: the anterior,
posterior, anterolateral and posterolateral
a. cervical and lumbar fontanels
b. thoracic and lumbar
c. cervical and pelvic this site provides the correct answers for
d. thoracic and pelvic the unit 1 test questions. to fully take
e. cervical and thoracic advantage of this practice test we
recommendthat you look carefully at the
84. which is true for a holocrine gland? incorrect answers as well. determining why
answers are incorrect will increase your
a. it is a multicellular gland understanding of the material - often as
b. the secretion and a small part of the cell much as finding the information that
are discharged supports the correct answer.
c. only the secretion is discharged (=
exocytosis)
d. the secretion and the entire cell are
discharged
e. answers a and d

question# answer question# answer question# answer question # answer

1 e 26 b 51 b 76 b
2 d 27 b 52 d 77 e
3 b 28 b 53 d 78 c
4 b 29 a 54 d 79 d
5 c 30 a 55 b 80 a
6 c 31 b 56 b 81 a
7 b 32 b 57 a 82 d
8 c 33 a 58 a 83 a

3
pb=) human ana drill exam

9 a 34 a 59 b 84 e
10 d 35 a 60 a 85 e
11 b 36 a 61 b 86 b
12 e 37 a 62 b 87 d
13 b 38 c 63 b 88 b
14 d 39 d 64 a 89 a
15 e 40 c 65 b 90 e
16 c 41 a 66 a 91 b
17 c 42 c 67 d 92 d
18 a 43 b 68 c 93 b
19 a 44 d 69 a 94 a
20 b 45 b 70 b 95 c
21 c 46 a 71 e 96 b
22 a 47 b 72 a 97 b
23 d 48 e 73 a 98 a
24 e 49 c 74 d 99 a
25 e 50 a 75 c 100 b

biology 2740 - human physiology and anatomy

practice test 2

multiple choice: choose the best answer. c. articular cartilage d. bursae e. answers b
and d.
1.the science or study of joints is called:
8. the sequence of parts in a first-class
lever is:
a. sarcoloy b. osteology c. myology d.
dermatology e. none of the preceding.
a. effort-fulcrum-resistance
b. fulcrum-effort-resistance
2. which of the following parts of the upper c. fulcrum-effort-resistance
limb or extremity is not correctly matched d. none of the preceding.
with the number of bones in that part?
9. a rotational movement of the forearm
a. brachium - 1 b. antebrachium - 2 c. that results in the palm of the hand being,
carpus - 8 d. metacarpus - 5. phalanges - directed backward (posteriorly) is called:
12.
a.pronation b. eversion c. circumduction d.
3. the largest ankle bone is the: lateral flexion e. supination
a. metatarsal b. navicular c. talus d. matching: from the list of bones match the
calcaneus e. first cuneiform. correct structure or fossa that is
associated with it. (note: items a through e
4. which of the following is an may be used more than once.)
amphiarthrotic joint?
a. fibula b. tibia c. humerus d. ulna e.
a. synchondrosis b. condyloid joint c. scapula
saddle joint d. symphysis e.answers a and
d 10. linea aspera.
11. olecranon fossa.
5. the hinge joint at elbow is an example of 12. radial notch.
a: 13. coronoid fossa.
14. coracoid process.
a. first-class lever b. second-class lever c. 15. lesser tubercle.
third-class lever d.. fourth-class lever. 16. capitulum.
17. lesser trochanter.
18. coronoid process.
6. which of the following joints is freely
19. acromion.
movable?
20. lateral malleolus.
a. ball and socket joint b. condyloid joint c. 21. infraspinous fossa.
saddle joint d. pivot joint e. all of the 22. trochlear notch.
preceding.
matching:articulations. (note: items a
7. the inability to produce the fluid which through e may be used more than once.)
keeps most diarthrodial joints moist would
a. symphysis b. suture c. syndesmosis d.
most likely be due to a disorder of the:
pivot e. hinge.
a. cruciate ligaments b. synovial membrane

4
pb=) human ana drill exam

23. intervertebral joints 42. if you were to extract protein

24. knee joint. molecules from the a-band, which of the
25. joint between the atlas and axis following molecules would be found in the
26. joints between the cranial bones. extract?
27. joints between the distal and middle
bones of the phalanges. a. myosin b. actin c. troponin d.
28. joint between the distal ends of the tropomyosin e. all of the preceding.
tibia and fibula.
29. joint between the right and left pubic the following structures serve as an origin
bones (or pubes). for certain skeletal muscles. match the
30. joint between the proximal ends of the muscles with their points of origin. (note:
radius and ulna. items a through e may be used more than
31. joint between the distal ends of the once.)
radius and ulna.
a. sphenoid bone b. scapula c. iliac crest d.
true or false: true= a; false = b. ischial tuberosity e. sternum.
45. medial pterygoid
32. slow-twitch muscles are sometimes 44. internal oblique
called red fibers. 45. coracobrachialis
33. cardiac muscle fibers are located in the 46. teres major
myocardium of the heart wall. 47. deltoid
34. in vitro means within the body. 48. quadratus lumborum
35. smooth muscles in the gi tract are 49. pectoralis major
single-unit muscle cells. 50. biceps femoris
36. flattened sheath-like tendons are called 51. semimembranosus
aponeuroses. 52. lateral pterygoid
37. unlike multi-unit smooth muscles, 53. semitendinosus
single-unit smooth muscles need nerve
stimulation. match the following actions with the
appropriate muscle. (note: items a through
multiple choice. choose the best answer. e may be used more than once.)

38. each myofibril in skeletal muscle: a. extends head at neck

b. adducts the scapula
a. is made up of many myofilaments c. elevates the mandible
b. is made up of many sarcomeres d. flexes head at neck
c. contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum e. abducts the thigh.
d. answers a, b, and c
e. answers a and b. 54. gluteus medius.
55. masseter.
39. the motor unit is defined as: 56. splenius capitis (acting, together).
57. sternocleidomastoid (acting, together).
a. many myofibrils within the sarcolemma 58. medial pterygoid.
b. the functional filaments within a muscle 59. semispinalis capitis (acting together).
fiber 60. gluteus minimus.
c. many motor endplates within the 61. rhomboideus major.
neuromuscular function 62. temporalis.
d. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers 63. longissimus capitis (acting together).
innervated by it
e. answers a and b. multiple choice. choose the best answer.

40. the layer of connective tissue
surrounding a skeletal muscle fiber is
called the:
a. perimysium b. endomysium c.
epimysium d. apomysium e. none of the
preceding.
41. at the neuromuscular junction, synaptic
vesicles contain:
a. calcium b. troponin c. acetylcholine d.
adp e. atp.
64. there are three posterior thigh muscles
which are antagonistic to the quadriceps
femoris muscle. these muscles are known
as the hamstring and they are as follows:
the semimembranosus, semitendinosus,
and the:
a. biceps femoris b. triceps femoris c.
rectus femoris d. transversus femoris e.
none of the preceding
65. the quadriceps femoris is actually a
composite of four distinct muscles that
have separate origins but a common
insertion. the four muscles are the: vastus
lateralis, vastus intermedius and the
vastus medialis, and the:
a. biceps femoris b. triceps femoris c.

5
pb=) human ana drill exam

rectus femoris d. transversus femoris e. 82. when a muscle exerts tension without
none of the preceding. shortening, the contraction is termed:
66. when smooth muscle contracts, calcium
a. isometric b. graded c. summated d.
bonds to :
isotonic e. none of the preceding.
a. phosphocreatine b. tropomyosin c.
83. sarcoplasmic reticulum is another name
calmodulin d. acetylcholine e. myosin
for:
heads
a. golgi apparatus b. reticular connective
67. slow twitch muscles:
tissue c. cell membrane d. cytoplasm e.
none of the preceding
a. are sometimes called type i muscle
fibers
84. the delicate cell membrane
b. have numerous mitochondria
surrounding each skeletal muscle fiber is
c. have a high concentration of myoglobin
called the:
d. have many capillaries
e. all of the above. a. epimysium b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasm
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. none of the
68. the most movable attachment of a preceding.
muscle is its:
85. the science or study of muscles and
their parts is called:
a. insertion b. fulcrum c. origin d. none of
the preceding.
a. sarcology b. osteology c. myology d.
dermatology e. none of the preceding.
the following structures serve as an
insertion for certain skeletal muscles.
facial muscles: match the actions with the
match the structures with the appropriate
appropriate muscle.
muscles. (note: items a through e may be
used more than once.) a. smile b. close the eye c. raise the
eyebrows d. pucker the lips e. tighten or
a. lesser trochanter of the femur compress the cheeks
b. mastoid process of the temporal bone
86. orbicularis oculi.
c. humerus
87. zygomaticus.
d. xiphoid process
88. frontalis portion of the epicranius.
e. tibia.
89. orbicularis oris.
90. buccinator.
69. sartorius.
70. rectus abdominis.
true or false: true =a; false = b.
71. coracobrachialis.
72. sternocleidomastoid.
91. ciliary muscles in the eyeball change
73. iliacus.
the shape of the lens.
74. gracilis.
92. smooth muscles in the sperm ducts and
75. semitendinosus.
uterine tubes are single-unit muscles.
76. deltoid.
93. the abbreviation atp stands for alanine
77. longissimus capitis.
tripentose.
78. latissimus dorsi.
94. embryonic cells that form skeletal
79. pectoralis major.
muscle cells are called myoblasts.
80. semimembranosus.
95. the sartorius takes its origin on the
posterior superior iliac spine.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
96. the sagittal suture is an example of a
synostosis type of joint.
81. immediately following the arrival of a 97. joints called synarthroses are freely
threshold stimulus at a skeletal muscle movable joints.
cell, there is a short period called the: 98. contraction of the tibialis anterior
causes planter flexion of the foot.
a. relaxation period b. indecisive period c. 99. smooth muscle fibers are uninucleated,
latent period d. contraction period e. involuntary and nonstriated.
refractory period. 100. cardiac muscle fibers are
uninucleated, involuntary and striated.
biology 2740 - unit 2 - practice test -
answ questio questio answ questio answ
answers answer
er n# n# er n# er
question#
1 e 26 b 51 d 76 c
2 e 27 e 52 a 77 b
3 d 28 c 53 d 78 c
4 d 29 a 54 e 79 c

6
pb=) human ana drill exam

5 c 30 d 55 c 80 e
6 e 31 c 56 a 81 c
7 b 32 a 57 d 82 a
8 a 33 a 58 c 83 e
9 a 34 b 59 a 84 b
10 b 35 a 60 e 85 c
11 c 36 a 61 b 86 b
12 d 37 b 62 c 87 a
13 c 38 e 63 a 88 c
14 e 39 d 64 a 89 d
15 c 40 b 65 c 90 e
16 c 41 c 66 c 91 a
17 b 42 e 67 e 92 a
18 d 43 a 68 a 93 b
19 e 44 c 69 e 94 a
20 a 45 b 70 d 95 b
21 e 46 b 71 c 96 b
22 d 47 b 72 b 97 b
23 a 48 c 73 a 98 b
24 e 49 e 74 e 99 a
25 d 50 d 75 e 100 a

multiple choice: choose the best answer. inner ear d. all of the preceding e. answers
a and b only.
1. when the membrane potential (i.e. -70
6. destruction of which cranial nerve would
mv) becomes less negative or in other
result in the inability to smile?
words, approaches zero, the membrane is
said to be:
a. v; b. vi; c. vii; d. ix; e. x.
a. polarizing b. hyperpolarizing c.
7. nerve fibers that carry sensory impulses
prepolarizing d. autopolarizing e.
from skeletal muscles to the brain and
depolarizing.
spinal cord are called:
2. an all-or-none nerve fiber impulse, may
a. somatic efferent
be triggered by:
b. visceral efferent
c. visceral afferent
a. a weak below threshold stimulus
d. somatic afferent
b. a weak but threshold stimulus
e. none of the preceding.
c. a strong well-above threshold stimulus
d. either, a or b
8. destruction of which cranial nerve would
e. either, b or c.
result in the inability to masticate food?
3. resting membrane potential, is defined
a. v; b. vi; c. vii; d. ix; e. x.
as:
match the major brain region with the
a. the movement of sodium ions outside
appropriate structure. (note: items a
the membrane and the movement of
through e may be used more than once.)
potassium ions inside the membrane
b. the difference in electrical charges a. myelencephalon b. mesencephalon c.
between the inside and outside of a resting metencephalon d. telencephalon e.
nerve membrane diencephalon.
c. the movement of action potentials along
a resting axon 9. vasomotor center
d. the movement of ions along the external 10. occipital lobe
surface of a resting membrane. 11. cerebral aqueduct
12. pons
13. pineal gland (body)
4. during an infection of the cns, you might
14. third ventricle
expect to find an increase in:
15. superior colliculus
16. lateral ventricles
a.schwann cells b. microglia c. astrocytes
17. hypothalamus
d. oligodendrocytes e. ependymal cells.
18. cerebellum
19. medulla oblongata
5. bipolar neurons are located in the: 20. frontal lobe
a. olfactory mucosa b. retina of the eye c. 21. epithalamus

7
pb=) human ana drill exam
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
22. the layer of connective tissue
surrounding a nerve, is called the:
a. epimysium b. apomysium c.
endoneurium d. epineurium e. perimysium.
23. the central sulcus in the cerebrum,
separates the ----- from the ----- lobe.
a. temporal / occipital
b. frontal / parietal
c. parietal occipital
d. temporal / frontal
e. frontal/occipital.
24. bundles of axons or nerve fibers are
known as tracts, except in the pns, where
they are known as:
a. ganglia b. interneurons c. nuclei d.
nerves e. postsynaptic neurons.
25. the two principal divisions of the
nervous system are the:
a. afferent nervous system and the
efferent nervous system
b. autonomic nervous system and the
somatic nervous system
c. parasympathetic and sympathetic
nervous systems
d. saltatory conduction and continuous
conduction systems
e. peripheral nervous system and central
nervous system
26. destruction of which cranial nerve
would result in the inability to smell?
a. x; b. vii; c. v; d.ii; e. i.
matching. (items a through e may be used
more than once. only one letter per
answer.)
a. frontal lobes b. parietal lobes c.
temporal lobes d. occipital lobes e.
cerebellum.
27. broca's area that makes speech
possible
28. reflex center for coordination of
skeletal muscle movements
29. functions involve responses related to
memory, emotions, reasoning, judgment,
planning and verbal communication
30. area responsible for vision
31. location of sensory area responsible for
hearing
32. controls muscular movements of the
hands and fingers that make skills, such as
writing possible (precentral gyrus)
33. the tracts of white matter have a
distinctive branching matter called the
arbor vitae
34. the two hemispheres of this structure
are joined together by the vermis
35. contains the location for the sensations
of touch, temperature, and pressure
(postcentral gyrus)
matching. innervation of the extrinsic
ocular muscles. (note: items a through c
may be used more than once.)
a. trochlear b. oculomotor c. abducens
36. medial rectus muscle
37. inferior rectus muscle
38. superior oblique muscle
39. inferior oblique muscle
40. superior rectus muscle
41. lateral rectus muscle
true or false true = a; false = b
42. all spinal nerves are mixed nerve.
43. the hormone oxytocin is produced by
cells in the pineal gland
44. a multipolar neuron has several axons
and one dendrite
45. the term aphasia refers to speech and
language disorders
46. dopamine, epinephrine and
norepinephrine are classified as
catecholamines
47. the cerebral cortex is composed of gray
matter
48. the endoneurium is composed of fine
delicate nerve fibers
49. osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are
responsible for monitoring the osmotic
concentration of the blood
50. the pituitary gland is attached to the
epithalamus by the infundibulum
51. in the spinal cord the columns of white
matter are called fascicles
52. brain waves may be recorded as an
electrocardiogram
matching cranial nerves: (note: items a
through e may be used more than once.)
a. trigeminal b. glossopharyngeal c. facial
d. accessory e. hypoglossal
53. muscles of the tongue
54. buccinator muscle
55. temporalis muscle
56. masseter muscle
57. ophthalmic region of the head
58. taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of
the tongue
59. frontalis muscle
60. medial and lateral pterygoids
61. mandibular region of the head
62. trapezius muscle
63. sternocleidomastoid muscle
64. also known as number vii
65. also known as number ix
66.also known as number v
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
67. the part of the brain responsible for
the regulation of body temperature and
hunger is the:
8
pb=) human ana drill exam
a. superior colliculus b. parietal lobe c.
epithalamus d. medulla oblongata e.
hypothalamus
68. the region of the brain stem located
between the midbrain and medulla
oblongata is the:
a. pons b. hypothalamus c. corpus callosum
d. intermediate mass e. cerebral peduncles
69. which of the following statements
about the spinal cord is true?
a. it extends from the foramen magnum to
the level of s1
b. it is located in the central canal
c. both ascending and descending fiber
tracts are present
d. it consists of a central area of white
matter, surrounded by gray matter
e. two of the above
70. which one of the following structures
allows csf to pass from the subarachnoid
space to the dural sinus?
a. inter-vertebral foramina
b. choroid plexuses
c. corpus callosum
d. arachnoid villi
e. spinal central canal.
71. which of the following is not a
catecholamine?
a. epinephrine b. acetylcholine c.
norepinephrine c. corpus callosum d.
dopamine
match the spinal nerve with its appropriate
plexus. (note: items a through d may be
used more than once.)
a. cervical plexus b. sacral plexus c. lumbar
plexus d. brachial plexus.
72. sciatic nerve
73. phrenic nerve
74. obturator nerve
75. axillary nerve
76. musculocutaneous
77. tibial nerve
78. femoral nerve
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
79. which of the following is located in the
pns?
a. astrocytes b. ependyma c.
oligodendrocytes d. schwann cells e. all of
the preceding.
80. the crossed extensor reflex:
a. involves five neurons
b. has its reflex center in the frontal lobes
c. is a contralateral reflex
d. is a polysynaptic reflex
e. two of the preceding.
81. the autonomic system:
a. operates reflexly
b. contains somatic motor fibers;
c. contains ganglia
d. all of the preceding;
e. answers a and c.
82. the cell bodies of postganglionic
autonomic fibers are located in:
a. the lateral horn of the spinal cord
b. the effector organ
c. the ventral horn of the spinal cord
d. the medulla oblongata
e. ganglia.
83. what type of effector is not under
autonomic regulation ?
a. glands b. skeletal muscle c. cardiac
muscles d. smooth muscles e. two of the
preceding.
84. which of the following cranial nerves
contains motor nerve fibers?
a. abducens b. optic c. olfactory d.
vestibulocochlear e. none of the preceding.
85. the cell bodies of preganglionic
parasympathetic neurons are located in
the:
a. cervical and thoracic spinal cord
b. brain and lumbar spinal cord
c. thoracic and lumbar spinal cord
d. brain and sacral spinal cord.
86. there are ------ segments in the spinal
cord.
a. 11 b. 2 c. 31 d. 41 e. 30.
87. repolarization of an axon during an
action potential is produced by:
a. inward diffusion of sodium ions
b. extrusion of potassium from the cell by
active transport
c. outward diffusion of potassium ions
d. inward diffusion of calcium ions
e. none of the above
88. the hormone melatonin is produced by
the:
a. pituitary gland b. hypothalamus c.
epithalamus d. medulla oblongata e. none
of the preceding.
89. which cranial nerves contain
parasympathetic fibers?
a. iii, v, iv, and vii
b. vii, ix, viii, and x
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pb=) human ana drill exam

c. iii, vii, ix, and x 92. psoas major

d. vii, v, viii, and x. 93. sartorius
94. deltoid
matching: spinal nerve and muscles. (note 95. biceps femoris
items a through d may be used more than 96. vastus lateralis.
once.) 97. adductor longus
98. semitendinosus
a. obturator nerve b. femoral nerve c. 99. rectus femoris
axillary nerve d. radial nerve. 100. fill in the a circle

90. triceps brachii

91. gacilis
question# answer question# answer question# answer question # answer
1 e 26 e 51 b 76 d
2 e 27 a 52 b 77 b
3 b 28 e 53 e 78 c
4 b 29 a 54 c 79 d
5 d 30 d 55 a 80 e
6 c 31 c 56 a 81 e
7 d 32 a 57 a 82 e
8 a 33 e 58 c 83 b
9 a 34 e 59 c 84 a
10 d 35 b 60 a 85 d
11 b 36 b 61 a 86 c
12 c 37 b 62 d 87 c
13 e 38 a 63 d 88 e
14 e 39 b 64 c 89 c
15 b 40 b 65 b 90 d
16 d 41 c 66 a 91 a
17 e 42 a 67 e 92 b
18 c 43 b 68 a 93 b
19 a 44 b 69 c 94 c
20 d 45 a 70 d 95 e
21 e 46 a 71 b 96 b
22 d 47 a 72 b 97 a
23 b 48 b 73 a 98 e
24 d 49 a 74 c 99 b
25 e 50 b 75 d 100 a
multiple choice: choose the best answer. 4. middle ear infection may follow a throat
infection because:
1. the transmission of sound waves
through the tympanic cavity of the middle a. the auditory (eustachian) tube opens
ear occurs through: into the base of the inner ear
b. the pharyngeal (throat) mucosa is
a. air b. nerve fibers c. bone d. fluid e. continuous with the mucosa of the middle
jelly-like vitreous humor ear
c. the sphenoid sinus opens into the
2. the two sac-like structures of the inner tympanic cavity of the middle ear
ear called the utricle and saccule: d. the vestibulocochlear nerve passes
through the tympanic cavity
a. contain a fluid called perilymph e. answers a and d.
b. are part of the membranous labyrinth
within the vestibule 5. the waxy material in the external
c. form the connection between the auditory canal (meatus) is the product of
semicircular canals and the vestibule
d. function as part of the auditory system a. endolymphatic sacs
e. answers a and c. b. tarsal glands
c. lacrimal glands
3. which of the following is not one of the d. ceruminous glands
auditory ossicles? e. none of the preceding.

a. malleus b. incus c. stapedius 6. the auricle or pinna of the outer ear

contains:

10
pb=) human ana drill exam

a. fibroelastic cartilage b. elastic cartilage in response to light in the:

c. hyaline cartilage d. osseous tissue e.
hemopoietic tissue. a. nasal (medial) retina of the left eye
b. nasal (medial) retina of the right eye
7. in the physiology of hearing, which
c. the temporal (lateral) retina of the left
action is it that generates an action
eye
potential that causes release of a
d. answers a and c
neurotransmitter substance?
e. answers b and c.
a. movement of cells in the basilar
26. which of the following is not part of the
membrane against the spiral organ
vascular layer or uvea?
(=organ of corti)
b. pressure waves on cells of the vestibular
membrane a. cornea b. choroid c. ciliary body d. iris e.
c. movement of the spiral organ hair cells answers c and d.
against the rectorial membrane
d. movement of the membrane covering 27. during embryonic development, the
the round window lens of the eye forms:

8. otoliths (crystals of caco3) are located in a. from the rim or distal portion of the
the: retina
b. as part of the fibrous tunic, specifically
a. utricle b. semicircular ducts c. saccule d. the sclera
answers a and c. c. from a condensation of aqueous humor
d. from the lateral wall of the diencephalon
e. none of the above.
match the type of fluid (endolymph or
perilymph) that is found within the cavities
or spaces of the appropriate structures. 28. obstruction of the scleral venous sinus
(notes: items a and b may be used more (=canal of schlemm) interferes with the:
than once.)
a. drainage of vitreous humor
a. perilymph b. endolymph b. drainage of tears into the lacrimal sac
9. scala vestibuli. c. drainage of the tarsal glands
10. cochlear duct. d. drainage of aqueous humor
11. semicircular ducts. e. flow of blood through the ciliary body
12. utricle. capillaries.
13. scala tympani.
14. vestibule. 29. which of the following cannot be seen
15. semicircular canals. as one looks into the eye through an
16. saccule. ophthalmoscope?

matching: inner ear (note: items a and b a. macula lutea b. optic chiasma c. fovea
may be used more than once.) centralis d. optic disc.

a. membranous labyrinth b. bony or 30. a person with an abnormally short

osseous labyrinth. eyeball (anterior to posterior) would be
17. semicircular ducts. ----- and would wear ----- lenses to correct
18. utricle. their vision.
19. cochlea.
20. vestibule. a. nearsighted / concave
21. saccule. b. farsighted concave
22. semicircular canals. c. nearsighted / convex
23. cochlear duct. d. farsighted convex.

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 31. the perception of color comes from all
the following except:
24. aqueous humor:
a. red cones
a. provides nutrients for the retina b. yellow cones
b. is produced from capillaries in the iris c. green cones
c. can cause cataracts if overproduced d. blue cones
d. is present in the anterior and posterior e. answers a and d.
chambers
e. all of the above. 32. the visible outer white surface of the
eye is covered by a distinctive epithelium
25. a lesion that destroyed the left optic continuous with the inner lining of the
tract of a boy affected his eye by eyelids. this epithelium is called the:
eliminating action potentials (=impulses)
that would normally have been generated a. palpebrae

11
pb=) human ana drill exam
b. fornix
c. coneal epithelium
d. conjunctiva
e. none of the preceding.
33. what structure regulates the amount of
light passing to the visual receptors of the
eye?
a. cornea b. pupil c. lens d. ciliary body e.
iris.
34. vision is most acute when light rays are
brought to focus on the:
a. fovea centralis
b. the outermost layer of the retina
c. optic disc
d. cells in the occipital lobes of the brain
e. none of the preceding.
35. night blindness can be treated with:
a. vitamin c b. vitamin d c. vitamin k d.
none of the preceding.
36. loss of the sense of taste on the
posterior 1/3 of the tongue might be due to
injury to:
a. cranial nerve vii b. cranial nerve iii c.
cranial nerve ix d. cranial nerve v.
matching: sense organs (note: items a
through e may be used more than once.)
a. gustatory cells b. macula lutea c. crista
ampullaris d. macula e. spiral organ (organ
of corti).
37. a group of hair cells associated with
taste.
38. the gelatinous membrane associated
with this group of hair cells contains
crystals of calcium carbonate.
39. a group of hair cells located in the
saccule.
40. a group of hair cells associated with a
cupola.
41. the sense organ of static equilibrium.
42. a group of hair cells located in the
utricle.
43. hair cells located on the vallate and
fungiform papillae.
44. a group of hair cells associated with
the rectorial membrane.
45. the sense organ of dynamic (angular)
equilibrium.
46. a group of hair cells located in the
cochlea duct.
47. the sense organ of hearing.
48. a yellowish group of cells surrounding
the fovea centralism
49. a group of hair cells. located in the
ampulla.
matching: cranial nerves and muscles
associated with sense organs. (note: items
a through e may be used more than once.)
a. oculomotor b. facial c. trigeminal d.
abducens e. trochlear
50. superior oblique
51. superior rectus.
52. orbicularis oculi.
53. medial rectus.
54. levator palpebrae superioris.
55. lateral rectus.
56. inferior oblique.
57. inferior rectus.
58. tensor tympani.
true or false: true = a; false = b
59. the function of the lens is to bend or
refract light rays and focus them on the
optic disc.
60. tears contain a bactericidal enzyme
called lysosome.
61. the conjunctiva is a serous membrane.
62. the sensation of pressure is associated
with pacinian or lamellated corpuscles.
63. damage to the median rectus eyeball
muscles would probably affect
convergence of the eyeballs.
matching: retinal cells. (note: letters may
be used more than once, but only one
letter per space.)
a.ganglion cells b.bipolar cells c.both a and
b d.neither a nor b.
64. contact the vitreous humor.
65. contain the purple pigment known as
rhodopsin.
66. modified forebrain cells.
67. axons of these cells form the optic
nerve.
68. contact the choroid layer.
69. cells contain melanin.
70. cells are multipolar neurons.
71. these cells synapse with ganglion cells.
72. these cells provide daylight vision.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
73. receptors that respond quickly to a
stimulus but then adapt (sensory
adaptation) and decrease their firing rate
are called:
a. phasic receptors b. sensory receptors c.
somatic receptors d. proprioceptors e.
tonic receptors.
74. which describes the effect of the
sympathetic system on the eye pupil and
the muscles involved in the action?
a. dilates / circular muscles
b. constricts circular muscles
c. dilates / radial muscles
d. constricts radial muscles.
75. how many different modalities are
associated with olfaction?
a. one b. two c . three d. four e. hundreds
12
pb=) human ana drill exam

or even thousands. which receptors?

76. the bone that contains the osseous
labyrinth is the:
a. temporal bone b. occipital bone c.
ethmoid cribriform plate d. lacrimal bone e.
none of the preceding.
77. during embryonic development the
tympanic cavity develops from the:
a. 2nd pharyngeal pouch
b. optic vesicle
c. 1st bronchial groove
d. wall of the diencephalon
e. 1st pharyngeal pouch.
78. the position of joints and the state of
muscular contraction is monitored by:
a. nocireceptors b. baroreceptors c.
thermoreceptors d. chemoreceptors e.
proprioceptors.
a.baroreceptors b. nociceptors c. ruffini
corpuscles d. chemoreceptors e. none of
the preceding.
89. receptors for general senses provide
information for all the following except:
a. temperature b. pain c. touch d. sight e.
two of the preceding.
90. receptors for light touch are called and
they are located in the
a. meissner's corpuscles epidermis
b. bulbs of krause / dermis
c. pacinian corpuscles epidermis
d. meissner's corpuscles / dermis
e. ruffini corpuscles / hypodermis.
91. the oval window is located at the base
of the:

matching. items a through e may be used a. scala vestibule b. auditory tube c.

more than once. cochlear duct d. scala tympani e. external
auditory canal
a. presbyopia b. cataract c. glaucoma d.
myopia e. hyperopia. true and false: true = a; false= b.

79. clouding of the lens. 92. another name for the vestibular
80. elongation of the eyeball. membrane is eardrum.
81. loss of elasticity of the lens with aging. 93. another name for the optic chiasma is
82. compression of, and loss of fibers in the blind spot.
the optic nerve. 94. a person can see better during the day
83. associated with an increase in than at night because there are more
intraocular pressure. cones within the retina than rods.
84. eyeball is too short. 95. the visual image is inverted on the
85. the lens tends to lose its ability to retina.
accommodate. 96. the nasolacrimal ducts empty into the
86. often referred to as nearsightedness. lacrimal sacs.
97. the ear ossicles constitute the bony
multiple choice. choose the best answer. labyrinth.
98. bending of light rays is called
87. the organs of taste are called: refraction.
99. the stapes transmits vibrations to the
a. papillae b. taste pores c. taste hairs d. oval window.
taste buds e. none of the preceding. 100. fill in the e circle!
question# answer question# answer question# a
88. a cut on the finger would activate
1 c 26 a 51
2 b 27 e 52 b 77 e
3 c 28 d 53 a 78 e
4 b 29 b 54 a 79 b
5 d 30 d 55 d 80 d
6 b 31 b 56 a 81 a
7 c 32 d 57 a 82 c
8 d 33 e 58 c 83 c
9 a 34 a 59 b 84 e
10 b 35 d 60 b 85 a
11 b 36 c 61 b 86 d
12 b 37 a 62 a 87 d
13 a 38 d 63 a 88 b
14 a 39 d 64 a 89 d
15 a 40 c 65 d 90 d
16 b 41 d 66 c 91 a

13
pb=) human ana drill exam

17 a 42 d 67 a 92 b
18 a 43 a 68 d 93 b
19 b 44 e 69 d 94 b
20 b 45 c 70 a 95 a
21 a 46 e 71 b 96 b
22 b 47 e 72 d 97 b
23 a 48 b 73 a 98 a
24 d 49 c 74 c 99 a
25 e 50 e 75 e 100 e

multiple choice. choose the best answer. e. all of the above.

i. the hormone primarily responsible for
setting the basal metabolic rate and for
promoting the maturation of the brain is:
a. cortisol b. acth c. tsh d. thyroxine e.
none of the preceding.
2. many nonsteroid hormones act upon
their target cells by causing:
a. cyclic amp to become atp
b. the inactivation of adenylate cyclase
c. cyclic amp to become protein kineses
d. the activation of adenylate cyclase
e. both a and d apply.
3. which of the following would result from
a thyroidectomy (removal of the thyroid
gland)?
a. decreased tsh secretion
b. increased t3 and thyroxine secretion
c. increased calcitonin secretion
d. increased tsh secretion
e. both b and c apply.
4. steroid hormones are secreted by:
a. the adrenal cortex b. the gonads c. the
thyroid d. both a and b e. both b and c.
matching.( items a through e may be used
more than once.)
a. hypothalamus b. hypophysis c. adrenal
d. thyroid e. parathyroid.
8. located in the sella turcica of the
spheroid bone
9. contains groups of cell bodies called
nuclei
10. located on the superior border of each
kidney
11. contains two structures: adeno- and
neurohypophysis
12. located on the posterior surface of the
thyroid gland
13. contains an outer cortical region and
an inner medullary region
14. located inferior to the larynx
15. contains chromaffin cells which
produce catecholamines
16. produces releasing and inhibiting
hormones
17. produces calcitonin
18. contains oxyphil and chief cells
19. it secretes some androgens
20. contains chromophil and chromophobe
cells.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.

5. the secretion of which hormone would 21. a tumor of the beta cells of the
be increased in a person with endemic pancreatic islets would probably affect the
goiter? body's ability to:

a. tsh. b. thyroxine c. triiodothyronine; d. a. lower blood glucose level

all of the preceding apply
6. which of the following hormone pairs is
not produced by the same endocrine
gland?
a. lh/fsh b. acth/adh c. prolactin/gh d.
crh/pih. e. all of the preceding are correctly
paired.
7. oxytocin:
a. allows milk secretion or "milk let-down"
b. is stored in the pars nervosa (posterior
pituitary)
c. is produced by cells in the diencephalon
(hypothalamus)
d. exerts important effects during
childbirth
b. lower blood calcium level
c. raise blood calcium level
d. raise blood glucose level
e. raise blood sodium level.
22. removal of the adenohypophysis would
affect all except:
a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c.
ovaries d. mammary glands e. thyroid
gland.
23. which hormone stimulated the
production of erythrocytes in myeloid
tissues?
a. gh b. progesterone c. icsh d. adh e. none
of the preceding.

14
pb=) human ana drill exam
matching.
a. cushing's syndrome b. cretinism c.
myxedema d. endemic goiter e. addison's
disease
24. hyposecretion of thyroxine in adult
25. hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids
26. hypersecretion of glucocorticoids
27. lack of iodine
28. hyposecretion of thyroxine during
childhood.
multiple choice: choose the best answer.
29. which of the following is an agranular
leukocyte?
a. eosinophil b. neutrophil c. basophil d.
monocyte e. both b and d
30. stem cells that give rise to all formed
elements of blood are called:
a. megakaryoblasts b. erythroblasts c.
reticulocytes d.hemocytoblasts e.
megakaryocytes.
31. hemostasis involves:
a. platelet plug formation
b. vasodilation
c. conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen
d. all of the preceding
32. antibodies against both type-a and
type-b antigens are found in the plasma of
a person who is:
a. type a b. type b c. type ab d. type o.
33. which is the most abundant plasma
protein?
a. gamma globulin b. alpha globulin c.
albumin d. beta globulin.
34. which of the following blood proteins is
not produced in the liver?
a. gamma globulin b. alpha globulin c.
albumin d. beta globulin e. fibrinogen
35. the proteins that attack foreign
proteins and pathogens are called:
a. alpha globulins b. albumins c. beta
globulins d. fibrinogens e. none of the
preceding.
matching: (items a through e may be used
more than once.)
a. neutrophils b. monocytes c. eosinophils
d. platelets e. basophils
36. produced from megakaryoblasts.
37. phagocytose antigen-antibody
complexes.
38. able to kill certain larval parasitic
worms.
39. largest leukocyte.
40. a cell fragment.
41. leave blood vessels and transform into
macrophages.
42. nonnucleated structures.
43. least abundant leukocyte
44. contain adp and thromboplastin a2.
45. granules have an affinity for acidic
stains
46. some of the contained granules contain
heparin
47. granules have an affinity for basic
stains
48. also called thrombocytes
multiple choice: choose the best answer.
49. blood plasma ph is maintained at:
a. (7.0 to 7.3) b. (7.2 to 7.4) c. (7.35 to
7.45) d. (7.4 to 7.55) e. (5.0 to 5.5)
50. which of the following is removed from
plasma to form serum?
a. albumin b. water c. fibrinogen d.
globulin e. vitamins
51. which of the following substances can
be added to a test tube to prevent blood
from clotting
a. citrate b. edta c. heparin d. all of the
preceding e. both a and c.
52. which enzyme begins digesting the
fibrin strands and eroding the foundation
of the blood clot?
a. plasmin b. thrombin c. prothrombin d.
thromboplastin e. none of the preceding.
matching: location of structures. (items a
through c may be used more than once.)
a. atrium b. aorta c. ventricle
53. chordae tendineae
54. coronary arteries arise from this
structure
55. papillary muscles
56. sinoatrial node
57. purkinje fibers
58. semilunar valves
59. auricle.
true or false: true=a false=b.
60. the av node is commonly called the
pacemaker.
61. a vessel that carries blood to the heart
is always called a vein.
62. the heart lies anterior to the sternum
and posterior to the vertebral column
63. another name for the tricuspid valve is
15
pb=) human ana drill exam

right atrioventricular valve. a. av node b. av sulcus c. av bundle d. av

64. destruction of bone marrow by
chemicals or x rays is known as aplastic
anemia.
65. myeloid tissues include the tonsils,
thymus, and lymph nodes
66. glycogenolysis refers to the conversion
of glycogen to glucose
67. the aortic valvular auscultatory area is
located over the left 2nd intercostal space
68. the average adult has about 8 liters of
blood
69. cardiac muscle fibers are striated,
involuntary, multinucleated cells
71. the systemic circulation consists of
blood vessels that transport blood to the
lungs for gaseous exchange and then back
to the heart.
valves e. av auricle
matching.
a. t wave b. 2nd hears sound (dub) c. qrs
wave d. p wave e. 1st heart sound (lub).
78. atrial depolarization
79. closure of pulmonary and aortic
semilunar valves at the onset of ventricular
diastole.
80. ventricular depolarization
81. closure of the av valves at the onset of
ventricular systole
82. ventricular depolarization.
true or false. true=a; false=b.

multiple choice: choose the best answer. 83. isovolumetric relaxation is

characterized by the closure of both av and
72. blood is carried to the walls of the right semilunar valves
atrium and right ventricle by the artery. 84. the cardiac electrical conduction
system is made up of specialized cardiac
a. marginal b. posterior interventricular c. muscle fibers
circumflex d. anterior interventricular e. 85. diabetes insipidus is associated with
carotid. hypersecretion of adh
86. the pulmonary arteries carry
73. the amount of oxygen is greatest in the oxygenated blood from the lungs to the
blood found in the: heart
87. the surface of the heart contains sulci
a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. coronary 88. an ecg is also known as an ekg.
sinus d. ieft atrium e. superior vena cave.
matching: (items a through d may be used
74. which of the following is not part of the more than once.)
cardiac conducting system?
a. left atrium b. left ventricle c. both a and
a. av node b. av sulcus c. sa node d. av b d. neither a nor b.
bundle e. purkinje fibers.
89. walls are composed of three layers
75. which of the following does not open 90. presence of chordae tendineae
into, or out of, the left atrium? 91. contains papillary muscles
92. receives blood from the inferior vena
a. superior vena cave b. coronary sinus c. cave
inferior vena cave d. all of the preceding. 93. walls contain cardiac muscle fibers
94. purkinje fibers are present in the walls
76. by far the greatest bulk of the heart 95. contains osseous tissue
wall consists of: 96. receives blood from the superior vena
cave
a. epicardium b. myomysium c. 97. walls contain the thickest myocardium
endomysium d. myocardium e.epimysium. 98. receives blood from the coronary sinus
99. has a pouch-like extension called an
77. the chordae tendineae and papillary auricle
muscles play an important roll in the 100. fill in the e circle!
normal function of the: question# answer question# answer question# a
1 d 26 a 51
2 d 27 d 52 a 77 d
3 d 28 b 53 c 78 d
4 d 29 d 54 b 79 b
5 a 30 d 55 c 80 c
6 b 31 a 56 a 81 e
7 e 32 d 57 c 82 a
8 b 33 c 58 b 83 a
9 a 34 a 59 a 84 a
10 c 35 e 60 b 85 b
11 b 36 d 61 a 86 b

16
pb=) human ana drill exam

12 e 37 c 62 b 87 a
13 c 38 c 63 a 88 a
14 d 39 b 64 a 89 c
15 c 40 d 65 b 90 b
16 a 41 b 66 a 91 b
17 d 42 d 67 b 92 d
18 e 43 e 68 b 93 c
19 c 44 d 69 a 94 b
20 b 45 c 70 b 95 d
21 a 46 e 71 b 96 d
22 b 47 e 72 a 97 b
23 e 48 d 73 d 98 d
24 c 49 c 74 b 99 a
25 e 50 c 75 d 100 e

multiple choice. choose the best answer.
1. endothelium is a:
a. simple columnar epithelium
b. stratified squamous epithelium
c. transitional epithelium
d. simple squamous epithelium
e. none of the preceding.
2. a thrombus (blood clot) in the first
branch of the aortic arch would affect the
flow of blood to
a. left side of the head and neck
b. myocardium of the heart
c. left shoulder and arm
d. superior surface of the diaphragm
e. right side of the head, neck, right
shoulder and right arm.
3. fenestrated capillaries are found in:
a. renal glomeruli (kidney)
b. intestinal villi
c. endocrine glands
d. all of the preceding
e. none of the preceding.
4. all arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich
blood with the exception of:
a. the hepatic arteries
b. the pulmonary arteries
b. the pulmonary arteries
c. the renal arteries
d. the coronary arteries.
5. in the fetus, partially oxygenated blood
is shunted from the through the foremen
ovale.
a. left atrium to right atrium
b. right atrium to right ventricle
c. right ventricle to left ventricle
d. right atrium to left atrium
e. left atrium to left ventricle.
6. the "lub" or first heart sound, is
produced by closing of:
a. the aortic semilunar valve
b. the pulmonary semilunar valve
c. the tricuspid valve
d. the bicuspid valve
e. both atrioventricular valves.
7. the qrs wave of an ekg (=ecg) is
produced by:
a. depolarization of the atria
b. repolarization of the atria
c. depolarization of the ventricles
d. repolarization of the ventricles
e. answers a and c.
8. cardiac output is:
a. (cr + sv) b. (sv-cr) c. (cr x sv) d. (sp x sv)
e. (sp - dp)
matching: (items a through e may be used
more than once.)
a. great saphenous vein b. cephalic vein c.
basilic vein d. brachial vein e. subclavian
vein.
9. drains the lateral side of the arm
10. receives blood from the vertebral vein
11. receives lymphatic fluid.
12. deep vein in the brachium
13. drains the medial aspect of the leg and
thigh
14. received blood from the external
jugular vein
15. drains the medial aspect of the arm
16. receives blood from the medial cubital
vein
17. longest vein in the body
18. joins the internal jugular vein to form
the brachiocephalic vein
19. receives blood from the ulnar and
radial veins
20. drains into the femoral vein
21. receives blood from the axillary vein
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
22. during the phase of isovolumetric
contraction of the ventricles, the pressure
in the ventricles is:

17
pb=) human ana drill exam
a. rising b. falling c.constant d.none of the
preceding.
23. which of the following fetal structures
contains the most oxygen-rich blood?
a. left atrium b. umbilical arteries c.
foramen ovale d. umbilical vein e. right
atrium.
24. stimulated sympathetic nerve endings
in the musculature of the atria and
ventricles will cause:
a. an increase in the rate of heart
contraction
b. an increase in the time spent in systole
when the cardiac rate is high
c. a decrease in the rate of heart
contraction
d. answers b and c.
25.stroke volume strength is regulated by:
a. edv
b. ventricular contraction strength
c. mean arterial pressure
d. all of the preceding
26.which of the following structures does
not drain directly into the inferior vena
cave?
a. hepatic veins b. renal veins c.inferior
mesenteric vein d. common iliac veins e.
right gonadal vein.
matching. (items a through d may be used
more than once).
a. arteries b. veins c. both a & b d. neither
a nor b.
27. generally have a more collapsed
appearance in tissue sections
28. classified by size
29. may contain circular skeletal muscle in
the tunica media
30. lumen is lined with a simple columnar
epithelium
31. always carry blood away from the heart
32. may carry blood with a high oxygen
content
33. may possess fenestrations in their
walls
34. large vessels may contain a vase
vasorum
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
35. a positive chronotropic effect on the
heart will cause:
a. an increase in strength of contractility
b. a decrease in cardiac rate
c. an increase in cardiac rate
d. a decrease in strength of contractility
e. none of the above are chronotropic
effects.
36. edema may result from:
a. low arterial pressure
b. leakage of blood proteins into the
interstitial fluid
c. increased plasma protein concentration
in the blood
d. all of the above.
37. the secretion of adh occurs as neurons
in the hypothalamus respond to an:
a. increase in blood pressure
b. increase in osmotic pressure
c. increase in hydrogen ion concentration
d. all of the above.
38. which of the following is not directly
associated with extrinsic regulation of
blood flow?
a. adh b.norepinephrine c. angiotensin ii d.
adenosine e. answers a and c.
39. the sounds of korotkoff are produced
by:
a. closing of the semilunar valves
b. closing of the av valves
c. turbulent flow of blood through an
artery
d. elastic recoil of the aorta
e. none of the preceding.
40. lysosomes are common in:
a. tears b. sweat c. saliva d. answers a, b,
and c e. phagocytes.
true or false: true=a; false=b
41. the carotid body contains
baroreceptors which monitor blood
pressure.
42. mean arterial pressure is systolic
pressure plus one third pulse pressure.
43. a heart rate greater than 100
beats/minute is termed tachycardia
44. arterioles in skeletal muscle receive
cholinergic sympathetic fibers which
release ach.
45. the umbilical arteries in the fetus arise
from the abdominal aorta.
46. extrinsic regulation of blood flow refers
to control by the ans and the endocrine
system.
47. vasopressin has a vasodilator effect at
high concentrations.
48. active hyperemia occurs as a result of
increased metabolism.
49. the vasomotor control center is located
in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal
lobe.
50. the walls of lymphatic capillaries are
less permeable than are the walls of blood
capillaries.
matching: (items a through e may be used
18
pb=) human ana drill exam
more than once.)
a. celiac artery
b. inferior mesenteric artery
c. axillary artery
d. superior mesenteric artery
e. aorta.
51. empties into the brachial artery.
52. supplies the small intestine and the
ascending colon.
53. traverses or runs through the armpit
region.
54. first major, unpaired branch off the
abdominal aorta.
55. largest artery in the body.
56. second unpaired branch of the
abdominal aorta.
57. supplies the descending colon of the
large intestine
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
58. when blood flow and pressure are
reduced in the renal artery, a group of cells
called the -----secretes the enzyme----- into
the blood.
a. juxtaglomerular apparatus / angiotensin
i preceding.
b. osmoreceptors / renin
c. carotid sinus / angiotensinogen
d. juxtaglomerular apparatus / renin
e. suprarenal body / angiotensin ii
59. localized chemical conditions that
promote vasodilation include:
a. decreased oxygen concentration
b. increased carbon dioxide concentration
c. decreased tissue ph
d. increased potassium concentration
e. all of the preceding
60. lymph in the thoracic duct:
a. could have originated from the right leg
b. will enter the right subclavian vein
c. both of the preceding
d. none of the preceding
61. which class of antibodies is abundant in
body secretions?
a. igm b. iga c. igg d. ige e. igd.
matching: (items a through d may be used
more than once.)
a. delayed hypersensitivity b. immediate
hypersensitivity c. both a and b d. neither
a nor b
62. b lymphocytes are involved.
63. ige antibodies are involved.
64. contact dermatitis, such as to poison
ivy
65. occurs within a period of 1 to 3 days
66. fibroblasts involved
67. t lymphocytes are involved
68. therapy - corticosteroids, such as
cortisone
69. allergic reactions, hay fever and
asthma
70. therapy - antihistamines and
adrenergic drugs
71. an example of passive immunity
72. the antigens are called allergens.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
73. in response to endotoxins released by
certain bacteria, leukocytes may release:
a. antibodies b. interferon c. antigens d.
haptens e. endogenous pyrogens.
74. lymphoid organs include:
a. spleen b. adrenal gland c. thyroid gland
d. pancreas e. all of the preceding.
75. mast cell secretion during an
immediate hypersensitivity reaction is
stimulated when antigens combine with
antibodies.
a. igg b. ige c. igm d. iga e. none of the
76. active immunity may be produced by:
a. contracting a disease
b. receiving a vaccine
c. receiving gamma globulin injection
d. both a and b
e. both b and c.
77. which of the following structures is not
associated with a lymph node?
a. germinal center b. hilus (=hilum) c.
capsule d. canaliculi e. afferent lymphatic
vessels
78. b- lymphocytes combat bacterial and
viral infections by secreting antibodies into
the blood and lymph, providing what type
of immunity?
a. humoral b. nonspecific c. antigenic d.
cell-mediated e. none of the preceding.
match the cell type with its secretion.
a. killer t cells b. mast ceils c. plasma cells
d. macrophages
79. antibodies
80. perforins
81. lysosomal enzymes
82. histamine.
multiple choice: select the best answer.
83. antibody molecules are composed of
----- chains and ----- light chains
19
pb=) human ana drill exam

a. one /one b. one/two c. two / one d. two / b. help regulate the specific immune
two e. two / three. system
c. activate thymosin
84. a transplant between individuals d. may specialize into memory and plasma
belonging to different species is called cells, respective!
a(n):
89. examples of immediate
a. homograft b. xenograft c. isograft d. hypersensitivity are:
autograft
a. conjunctivitus b. allergic rhinitis c.
85. a new-boom infant who receives iga allergic asthma d. atopic dermatitis e. all
from its mother's milk develops: of the preceding

a. naturally acquired active immunity true or false: true=a false=b

b. artificially acquired active immunity
c. naturally acquired passive immunity 90. the graft least likely to be successful is
d. artificially acquired passive immunity. the isograft
91. large lymphatic nodes located in the
86. which of the following is not true of the wall of the ileum are called peyer's patches
spleen? 92. the tonsillar ring consists of the
lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils
a. it consists of red and white pulp 93. the thymus gland gradually enlarges
b. afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the after puberty
convex side 94. poison ivy and poison oak can cause
c. it destroys old, and fragile red blood contact dermatitis
cells 95. oncology is the study of allergies
d. located in the upper left portion of the 96. in an autoimmune disease, the immune
abdominal cavil system fails to recognize and tolerate self-
antigens
87. antibodies belong to a group of 97. in the study of allergies, antibodies are
proteins called: often called allergens
98. interferons are polypeptides
a. albumins b. complement c. interferons d. 99. macrophages in the connective tissues
alpha globulins e. none of the preceding. are derived from neutrophils
100. fill in the "b" circle
88. helper and suppressor t lymphocytes: question# answer question# answer question# a
1 d 26 c 51
a. attack invaders directly
2 e 27 b 52 d 77 d
3 d 28 c 53 c 78 a
4 b 29 d 54 a 79 c
5 d 30 d 55 e 80 a
6 e 31 a 56 d 81 d
7 c 32 c 57 b 82 b
8 c 33 d 58 d 83 d
9 b 34 c 59 e 84 b
10 e 35 c 60 a 85 c
11 e 36 b 61 b 86 b
12 d 37 b 62 b 87 e
13 a 38 d 63 b 88 b
14 e 39 c 64 a 89 e
15 c 40 e 65 a 90 b
16 c 41 b 66 d 91 b
17 a 42 b 67 a 92 a
18 e 43 a 68 a 93 b
19 d 44 a 69 b 94 a
20 a 45 b 70 b 95 b
21 e 46 a 71 d 96 a
22 a 47 b 72 c 97 b
23 d 48 a 73 e 98 a
24 a 49 b 74 a 99 b
25 d 50 b 75 b 100 b

multiple choice. choose the best answer. 1. chemical digestion of food involves:

20
pb=) human ana drill exam
a. condensation reactions in the small
intestine
b. enzymatic conversion of
monosaccharides to polysaccharides in the
small intestine
c. hydrolysis reactions in the large
intestine (colon)
d. hydrolysis reactions in the small
intestine
e. two of the above.
2. human dentition can be defined as
being:
a. heterodont b. homodont c. diphyodont
d. monophyodont e. two of the preceding.
3. the gall bladder:
a. produces bile b. is attached to the
pancreas c. stores bile d. produces gastrin
e. two of the preceding.
4. the esophageal hiatus is the:
a. opening between the esophagus and the
pharynx
b. junction between the esophagus and
stomach
c. region where the esophagus joins the
larynx
d. site where the esophagus passes
through the diaphram
e. location where skeletal and smooth
muscles merge.
5. a patient who has undergone
gastrectomy (=removal of the stomach)
may suffer from:
a. cirrhosis of the liver b. pernicious
anemia c. duodenal ulcer d. salmonella e.
inability to digest fats.
6. the organs of taste are called:
a. papillae b. taste pores c. hair cells d.
taste buds e. none of the preceding.
7. blood is drained from the liver by the:
a. hepatic artery and hepatic vein
b. efferent lymphatic vessels
c. hepatic portal vein and hepatic veins
d. hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein
e. hepatic veins.
8. the conversion of amino acids to glucose
is an example of:
a. glycogenolysis b. beta oxidation c.
gluconeogenesis d. glycogenesis e.
glycolysis.
matching: select the one correct answer:
(items a through e may be used more than
once.)
a. large intestine b. pancreas c. stomach d.
small intestine e. esophagus.
9. villi are present in this structure
10. enterokinase is secreted by cells in this
structure
11. peyer's patches are present in the wall
12. rugae may be present on the luminal
surface
13. sucrase, lactase and maltase are
produced by cells in this structure
14. haustra are typical features of this
structure
15. opens into the laryngopharynx
16. pepsinogen is produced by cells in this
structure
17. contains the islets of langerhans
18. the cardia and fundus are regions of
this structure
19. parietal and chief cells are present in
the walls
20. the jejunum is part of this structure
21. aminopeptidase is produced by cells in
this structure
22. lipase is produced by cells in this
structure
23. ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease
are produced in this structure
24. taeniae coli are present in this
structure
25. contains skeletal (striated) and visceral
(smooth ) muscle in the wall.
multiple choice. select the best answer.
26. which of the following is not a function
of the liver?
a. synthesis of blood proteins
b. secretion of digestive enzyme
c. detoxification of certain substances
d. production of urea
e. gluconeogenesis.
27. the dentin in the crown of a tooth is
coved by:
a. cementum b. periodontal membrane c.
connective tissue fibers in the pulp d.
enamel e. odontoblasts.
28. pancreatic cells:
a. produce glucagon
b. secrete mucus into the duodenum
c. are located in the mediastinum
d. secrete insulin into the pancreatic
e. two of the above
29. the cecum is a region of the:
a. stomach b. duodenum c. large intestine
d. rectum e. pharynx.
match the food category with the
appropriate enzyme. (items a through d
may be used more than once.)
a. carbohydrate digestion b. protein
digestion c. iipid digestion d. nucleic acid
digestion.
30. amylase
21
pb=) human ana drill exam

31. trypsin 49. hypothyroidism during prenatal

32. aminopeptidase development and the first two years after
33. lipase birth may result in
34. ribonuclease
35. pepsin. a. goiter b. cretinism c. albinism d.
36. maltase myxydema e. all of the preceding.
37. chymotrypsin
38. lactase 50. if an incision had to be made in the
39. sucrase small intestine to remove an obstruction,
40. deoxyribonuclease. which tunic (or layer) would be cut first?

multiple choice. select the best answer. a. mucosa b. submucosa c. muscularis d.

41. which of the following is not a fat-
soluable vitamin?
a. (vitamin a) b. (vitamin e) c. (vitamin d)
d. (vitamin c) e. (vitamin k)
42. during stress such as fasting or
strenuous exercise, the anterior pituitary
releases:
serosa.
51. the kidneys and most of the pancreas
are considered to be:
a. antiperitoneal b. retroperitoneal c.
medioperitoneal d. mesoperitoneal e.
paraperitoneal.
true or false: true = a, false = b

a. (acth) b. (oxytocin) c. (fsh) d. (adh) e. 52. the optimal ph for pepsin is about 2.0
(lh) 53. the muscularis mucosae is composed of
smooth muscle fibers
43. which of the following hormones can 54. the facial cranial nerve innervates the
produce hyperglycemia? posterior one-third of the tongue
55. another term for canine teeth is
a. pth b. growth hormone c. adh d. bicuspid teeth
prolactin e. tsh. 56. the gi tract is innervated by the ans
57. each small intestinal microvillus
44. calcitonin inhibits: contains a iymphatic vessel called a lacteal
58. another term for swallowing is
a. osteoclast activity deglutition.
b. thyroid activity
c. mammary gland activity matching. what type of epithelium forms
d. pancreatic activity the luminal lining of the following
e. osteoblast activity. structures? (note: items a through e may
be used more than once.)
45. the metabolic effects of epinephrine
are similar to those of: a simple squamous epithelium
b. stratified, keratinized squamous
a. glucose b. insulin c. aldosterone d. epithelium
calcitonin e. glucagon. c. simple columnar epithelium
d. stratified, nonkeratinized squamous
46. parathyroid hormone (pth) is released epithelium
in response to: e. pseudostratified, ciliated columnar
epithelium.
a. low levels of plasma calcium
b. low levels of plasma sodium 59. esophagus
c. high levels of plasma sodium 60. stomach
d. high levels of plasma calcium 61. small intestine
e. none of the preceding. 62. nasal vestibule
63. nasal cavity
47. vitamin d is converted into a hormone 64. trachea
that participates in the regulation of: 65. respiratory alveoli.

a. sodium balance b. calcium balance c.
chloride balance d. water balance e.
answers a and c.
48. glucocorticoids are secreted from cells
in the:
a. pancreas b. iiver c. adrenal medulla d.
placenta e. none of the preceding.
multiple choice. select the best answer.
66. after passing through the nasal cavity
during inspiration, air will pass through
the:
a. oropharynx b. nasopharynx c. iaynx d.
trachea e. laryugopharynx
67. most inspired particles of dust fail to

22
pb=) human ana drill exam
reach the lungs because of the:
a. mucous lining in the nasal cavity and
trachea
b. abundant blood supply to the nasal
mucosa
c. action of the epiglottis
d. porous structure of the ethmoid bone
e. all of the above.
68. which of the following is not a
structural feature of the right lung?
a. superior lobe b. hilum c. cardiac notch d.
inferior lobe e. middle lobe.
69. of the following structures, the
smallest in diameter would be the:
a. left primary bronchus b. trachea c. right
primary bronchus d. secondary bronchus e.
bronchiole.
70. "the pressure of a gas is inversely
proportional to its volume" is a statement
of:
a. dalton's law b. henry's law c. starlings's
law d. boyle's law e. the law of laplace.
71. which of the following bones does not
contain a paranasal sinus?
a. nasal b. maxilla c. spheroid d. frontal e.
ethmoid
72. the adult lungs are:
a. covered with a tough membrane called
the parietal pleura
b. spongy, air-filled sacs, located inferior to
the diaphragm
c. covered with a thin mucous membrane
d. covered with a serous membrane called
the visceral pleura
e. iobulated, the right lung has 2 lobes,
and the left lung has 3 lobes
73. the detergent-like molecule that keeps
the alveoli from collapsing between
breaths because it reduces the surface
tension of the fluid film in the alveoli is
called:
a. lecithin b. reluctant c. surfactant d. bile
e. none of the preceding.
74. the term respiration refers to:
a. ventilation (=breathing)
b. gas exchange within the lungs
c. oxygen utilization within the cells
d. all of the preceding
e. answers a and b only.
matching. (items a through e may be used
more than once.)
a. laryngopharynx b. oropharynx c. trachea
d. larynx e. nasopharynx
75. composed of a framework involving 9
cartilages
76. this region contains the palatine tonsils
77. paired auditory (eustachian) tubes
open into this area
78. the wall contains 16 to 20 c-shaped
cartilaginous rings.
79. pharyngeal tonsils located in this
region
80. the lowermost portion of the pharynx
81. this region opens into the esophagus
82. the opening of this structure is called
the glottis
83. this structure contains a cricoid
cartilage
84. this structure contains the thyroid
cartilage
85. this region contains the lingual tonsils.
multiple choice. select the best answer.
86. the muscles involved in deep or forced
inspiration are the:
a. diaphragm and external intercostals
b. diaphragm and abdominal muscles
c. scalenes and sternocleidomastoids
d. trapezius and semispinalis capitis
e. answers a and d.
87. a patient exhales normally, then, using
forced ventilation, the patient blows as
much air as possible into a spirometer. this
would measure the:
a. inspiratory reserve volume
b. vital capacity
c. tidal volume
d. expiratory reserve volume
e. cell respiration.
88. which of the following is not part of the
conducting division of the bronchial tree?
a. trachea b. terminal bronchiole c. primary
bronchus d. secondary bronchus e. alveolar
duet.
89. oxygen and carbon dioxide are
exchanged in the alveoli by:
a. filtration b. osmosis c. diffusion d. active
transport e. two of the preceding.
90. the trachea is located to the larynx .
a. superior b. medial c. inferior d. lateral e.
none of the preceding.
91. the epithelium lining the lumen of
conducting bronchioles is:
a. simple cuboidal b. simple squamous c.
stratified squamous d. transitional e. none
of the preceding
true or false: true = a, false = b
92. forced expiration is a passive process
23
pb=) human ana drill exam

93. elasticity of the lungs refers to their 98. fetal lungs contain small amounts of
tendency to recoil after distension atmospheric air in the alveoli
94. intrapulmonary pressure is 99. vital capacity of the lungs is expiratory
subatmospheric during inspiration reserve volume, tidal volume plus residual
95. surfactant is produced by type i volume
alveolar cells 100. fill in the e circle.
96. tracheal rings are composed of hyaline
cartilage question# answer question# answer question# a
97. surfactant is produced afterbirth 1 e 26 e 51
2 e 27 a 52 b 77 b
3 b 28 e 53 e 78 c
4 b 29 a 54 c 79 d
5 d 30 d 55 a 80 e
6 c 31 c 56 a 81 e
7 d 32 a 57 a 82 e
8 a 33 e 58 c 83 b
9 a 34 e 59 c 84 a
10 d 35 b 60 a 85 d
11 b 36 b 61 a 86 c
12 c 37 b 62 d 87 c
13 e 38 a 63 d 88 e
14 e 39 b 64 c 89 c
15 b 40 b 65 b 90 d
16 d 41 c 66 a 91 a
17 e 42 a 67 e 92 b
18 c 43 b 68 a 93 b
19 a 44 b 69 c 94 c
20 d 45 a 70 d 95 e
21 e 46 a 71 b 96 b
22 d 47 a 72 b 97 a
23 b 48 b 73 a 98 e
24 d 49 a 74 c 99 b
25 e 50 b 75 d 100 a
multiple choice. choose the best answer. d. hypothalamus
e. posterior pituitary gland.
1. most reabsorption of substances from
the glomerular filtrate occurs in the: 5. when adh levels in the blood are high,
the collecting ducts are:
a. glomerulus b. collecting tubule c.
proximal convoluted tubule d. ureter e.
a. very impermeable to water
distal convoluted tubule.
b. very permeable to protein molecules
2. under normal circumstances, the c. very permeable to water
kidneys produce about ----- liters of d. very permeable to sodium and chloride
glomerular filtrate per day. ions
e. none of the preceding.
a. 1,000 b. 180 c. 110 d. 7.5 e. 1 to 2.
6. given the following conditions:
3. as the renal artery approaches the
kidney, it branches to supply the renal capsular hydrostatic pressure = 15 mm hg
glomeruli. place the following in the glomerular plasma osmotic pressure = 25
correct sequence starting from the renal mm
artery. glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 75 mm
hg
1. arcuate artery 2. interlobular artery 3.
interlobar artery 4. afferent arteriole what is the net filtration rate?

a. (2,1,3,4) b. (2,3, 1,4) c. (1,3,4,2) d. a. 35 mm hg b. 85 mm hg c. 65 mm hg d.

(4,3,1,2) e. (3,1,2,4) 115 mm hg

4. adh is produced in the: 7. the renal cortex contains:

a. juxtaglomerular cells a. renal pyramids b. papillae c. calyces d.

b. anterior pituitary gland none of the preceding.
c. adrenal cortex

24
pb=) human ana drill exam
match the following structures (items a
through d) and descriptions.
a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. descending limb of the nephron loop
c. collecting duct
d. ascending limb of the nephron loop.
8. active transport of sodium; water
follows passively
9. active transport of sodium; impermeable
to water
10. passively permeable to water
11. passively permeable to water under
adh stimulation.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
12. the appearance of glucose in the urine:
a. occurs normally
b. is a result of overproduction of
angiotensin ii
c. is a result of hypoglycemia
d. occurs when the transport carriers for
glucose become saturated
e. two of the above.
13. the urinary bladder:
a. has bundles of skeletal muscle in its wall
b. is connected to the exterior by the
ureter
c. is innervated by the cranial accessory
nerve (xi)
d. is located posterior to the pubic
symphysis
e. all of the above.
14. in the proximal convoluted tubule,
chloride ions are reabsorbed because of:
a. active transport
b. their involvement in calcium retention
c. the electrical attraction of sodium ions
d. the high osmotic gradient
e. all of the preceding.
15. which of the following promotes
sodium retention and potassium loss from
the blood across: the wall of the wall of the
distal convoluted tubule?
a. renin b. angiotensin ii c. aldosterone d.
angiotensin i e. adh.
16. the process of micturition or urination:
a. involves relaxation of the detrusor
muscle
b. requires contraction of the external
urethral muscle
c. is a reflex involving sacral segments of
the spinal cord
d. all of the above.
17. granular (juxtaglomerular cells) secrete
----- when there is a fall in ----- ion
concentration.
a. renin / chloride
b. carbonic anhydrase / sodium
c. atpase / potassium
d. renin / sodium
e. carbonic anhydrase / carbon dioxide.
matching. what type of epithelium forms
the lining of the following structures?
(note: items a through e may be used more
than once or not at all.)
a. stratified squamous epithelium
b. transitional epithelium
c. simple ciliated columnar epithelium
d. simple cuboidal epithelium
e. simple squamous epithelium.
18. urinary bladder
19. vagina
20. uterine (fallopian) tube
21. renal pelvis
22. ureter
23. proximal convoluted tubule
24. renal calyces
true or false: true = a; false = b
25. the region of the distal convoluted
tubule in contact with the granular cells of
the afferent arteriole is called the macula
dense
26. within each kidney, the interlobar veins
empty their blood into the renal vein
27. in the female urinary system, the
urethral orifice is situated posterior to the
vaginal orifice
28. natriuretic hormone is produced by
cells in the kidneys.
29. incontinence refers to the inability to
control micturition
30. the term cystitis refers to an infection
of the urinary bladder
31. the apical membrane of the proximal
convoluted tubule cells is impermeable to
bicarbonate ions.
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
32. the human ovum and spermatozoon are
similar in that:
a. about the same number of each is
produced each month
b. they have the same degree of motility
c. they are about the same size
d. they have the same number of
chromosomes
e. none of the above.
33. spermiogenesis involves:
a. the formation of spermatozoa from
spermatogonia
b. the movement of spermatozoa in the
female reproductive tract
c. the formation of primordial or primitive
25
pb=) human ana drill exam
reproductive cells in the yolk sac
membrane
d. the transformation of spermatids into
spermatozoa
e. the movement of spermatozoa from the
epididymis into the ejaculatory duct.
34. during early and middle fetal life, the
testes are located in the:
a. inguinal canal b. abdominal cavity c.
pelvic cavity d. scrotal
35. inflammation of the seminiferous
tubules could interfere with the ability to:
a. make semen alkaline
b. secrete testosterone
c. produce spermatozoa
d. eliminate urine from the bladder
e. all of the preceding.
36. the mitochondria in mature sperm cells
are located in the:
a. head of the sperm
b. body (middle piece) of the sperm
c. acrosome of the sperm
d. tail (flagellum) of the sperm
e. mature sperm do not have mitochondria.
37. the movement of spermatozoa, from
the epididymal duct, and seminal fluid into
the ejaculatory duct and the urethra is
called and is under control.
a. ejaculation / parasympathetic
b. emigration / parasympathetic
c. erection / parasympathetic
d. emission / sympathetic
38. prostaglandins within the seminal fluid
are thought to:
a. cause ovulation
b. decrease sperm motility
c. stimulate muscular contractions within
the uterus
d. stimulate the vestibular (bartholin's)
glands to produce mucus
39. which of the foil owing is not paired in
the male?
a. epididymis
b. ejaculatory duct
c. urethra
d. ductus deferens (vas deferens)
e. all the preceding structures are paired in
the male.
40. at birth, the ovaries of a newborn girl
contain about ----- gamete-producing cells
called-----
a. 10 million / oogonia
b. 2 million / primary oocytes
c. 400,000 / primary oocytes
d. 40,000 / sertoli cells
e. 50 million / primary follicles.
match the following cell types with the
corresponding chromosome complement.
that is, is the cell haploid or diploid? (note;
if the cell is haploid use an "a", if diploid
use a "b".)
41. spermatozoon.
42. secondary spermatocyte
43. spermatogonium
44. spermatid
45. primary spermatocyte
46. secondary oocyte
47. second polar body
48. first polar body
49. primary oocyte
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
50. the onset of menstruation at puberty is
referred to as:
a. menopause b. menorhagia c. menarche
d. amenorrhea e. dysmenorrhea.
51. during the ovarian cycle, ovulation
occurs
a. during the period of menstrual flow
b. during sexual intercourse
c. when estrogen levels are very low
d. when the corpus luteum degenerates
e. during the surge in lh and fsh
concentration.
52. in the menstrual cycle, the menstrual
phase or menses, usually occurs between
day ----- and day ----- of the cycle.
a.(25 and 28) b.(1 and 5) c. (13 and l5) d.
(20 and 25)
53. the secretory phase of the
endometrium corresponds to which of the
following ovarian phases?
a. follicular phase b. ovulation c. luteal
phase d. menstrual phase.
54. which of the following is shed as
menses?
a. the perimetrial layer
b. the fibrous layer
c. the functional layer
d. the basal layer
e. the myometrial layer.
55. the dominant hormone controlling the
proliferative phase of the uterine
endometrium is:
a. estrogen b. fsh c. lh d. progesterone e.
hcg
56. a woman with a typical 28-day
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pb=) human ana drill exam

menstrual cycle is most likely to become 79. which of the following extra-embryonic
pregnant as a result of sexual intercourse membranes is the source of the first or
on days: primitive blood cells?

a. 1 - 3 b. 5-8 c. 12-15 d. 22-24 e. 24-28. a. amnion b. chorion c. allantois d. yolk

sac.
57. a polar body is formed:
80. a fertilized human ovum that will
a. before fertilization b. after fertilization become a female has:
c. answers a and b.
a. 44 chromosomes plus two y
58. the cervix is a portion of the: chromosomes
b. a haploid number of chromosomes
a. vulva b. vagina c. uterus d. uterine c. 46 chromosomes plus one x and one y
(fallopian) tubes. chromosome
d. 44 chromosomes plus two x
59. the female structures that correspond chromosomes
(are homologous) to the scrotum of the e. none of the above.
male are the:
81. the decidua basalis is:
a. labia minora b. labia majora c. clitoris d.
urethral folds e. answers a and c. a. a component of the umbilical cord
b. the embryonic conceptus
60. the major development of organs takes c. the maternal portion of the placenta
place during the: d. a vascular membrane derived from the
chorion
a. pre-embryonic period b. embryonic
period c. fetal period d. postnatal period. 82. the uterine contractions of labor are
stimulated by two agents
matching: body structures and the germ a. oxytocin and adh b. melatonin and
layers from which they develop. (note: oxytocin c. prolactin and lh d. oxytocin and
items a through c may be used more than prostaglandin.
once.)
83. twins that develop from two zygotes
a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. ectoderm resulting from the fertilization of two ova
61. nervous tissue by two sperm in the same ovulatory cycle
62. connective tissue are referred to as:
63. epithelial lining of the gi tract
64. lens a. monozygotic twine
65. epidermis b. conjoined twine
66. muscles c. dizygotic twins
67 .epithelial lining of the urinary bladder d. identical twins
68. dermis e. none of the preceding.
69. blood.
matching. (note: items a through c may be
matching. development during the fetal used more than once.)
period. note: items a through d may be a. testes b. ovaries c. uterus
used more than once.
84. ovariectomy
a. 9 - 12 weeks b. 13-16 weeks c. 17-20 85. hysterectomy
weeks d. 26-29 weeks 86. oophorectomy
70. lanugo or fetal hair develops 87. orchiectomy (orchidectomy)
71. eyes open
72. bone formation a woman was admitted to the hospital for a
73. descent of the testes unilateral salpingectomy following rupture
74. vernix caseosa formed for protection of her left fallopian (uterine) tube:
75. fetal movements called quickening felt postoperative diagnosis was ectopic
76. facial features formed pregnancy, left tube. (note: for a yes
77. may survive a premature delivery. answer, use an "a"; for a no answer use a
"b".)
multiple choice. choose the best answer.
88. will future pregnancies be possible for
78. implantation normally occurs near the this woman?
end of the: 89. will she still menstruate?
90. will she still ovulate a secondary oocyte
a. 1st hour b. 1st day c. 1st week d. 1st at ovulation?
month.
a boy who has not passed through puberty

27
pb=) human ana drill exam

sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary gestation

such that fsh is no longer released, but lh 95. fertilization usually occurs in the
is normal. after he grows to maturity, one uterine cavity.
would expect that he would: (note: for a 96. fetal testes develop earlier than fetal
yes answer use an "a", for a no answer, use ovaries
a "b") 97. the clitoris contains two columns of
erectile tissue
91. develop secondary sex characters 98. pih inhibits the production and release
92. be sterile of prolactin
93. have improper functioning of the 99. another abbreviation for male lh is icsh
testicular interstitial cells. 100. best wishes and good luck! fill in the e
circle!
true or false: true=a; false=b
question# answer question# answer question# a
1 c 26 a 51
94. another term for pregnancy is
2 b 27 b 52 b 77 d
3 e 28 b 53 c 78 c
4 d 29 a 54 c 79 d
5 c 30 a 55 a 80 d
6 a 31 a 56 c 81 c
7 d 32 d 57 c 82 d
8 a 33 d 58 c 83 c
9 d 34 b 59 b 84 b
10 b 35 c 60 b 85 c
11 c 36 b 61 c 86 b
12 d 37 d 62 a 87 a
13 d 38 c 63 b 88 a
14 c 39 c 64 c 89 a
15 c 40 b 65 c 90 a
16 c 41 a 66 a 91 a
17 d 42 a 67 b 92 a
18 b 43 b 68 a 93 b
19 a 44 a 69 a 94 a
20 c 45 b 70 c 95 b
21 b 46 a 71 d 96 a
22 b 47 a 72 a 97 a
23 d 48 a 73 d 98 a
24 b 49 b 74 c 99 a
25 a 50 c 75 c 100 e

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