RD Information

The Registration Board of the Indian Dietetic Association conducts an annual exam and evaluates dietitians about their knowledge in theory and practice of dietetics and nutrition. The deserving candidates are given the title Registered Dietician (RD). ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS FOR RD EXAM 1. 2. 3. Life membership in Indian Dietetic Association (IDA) Graduate in Nutrition and dietetics / PG Diploma or masters degree in Nutrition and Dietetics 6 months internship after completion of qualifying exam (above), in a hospital recognised by IDA for internship and supervised by a Registered Dietitian (RD). The internship should be done continuously or in 2 installments and completed before the last working day of August OR 2 years experience as a full time dietitian in a teaching hospital or under an RD
Registration exam Exam date : Deadline to request application form Deadline for returning completed "Forms to Chairperson" : Exam centres : Exam fees : Application : Exam : Paper 1 : November Last working day of July

Last working day of August 1. Dietary dept, CMCH, Vellore 2. Dietary dept, CMC, Ludhiana 3.SNDT, Juhu road, Mumbai Rs.250/- (liable to change) Should be obtained from Chairperson, registration board on Payment of Rs50/- by DD (liable to Change), payable at Vellore, drawn On a nationalised bank in favour of "Chairperson, Registration Board" 2 test papers, 2 hours each paper Physiology, microbiology, Biochemistry Nutrition & Dietetics, Food service Management Each paper has 2 sections:section A : objective questions (50 marks) and multiple choice (20 marks) section B : clinical oriented questions 30 marks. The candidate must obtain 50% for pass with a minimum of 45% for each paper. The syllabus is available with the application form. For more details logon to www.idaindia.com

Paper 2 :

INDIAN DIETETIC ASSOCIATION

APPLICATION FOR MEMBERSHIP
First Name Dr./Mr./Mrs./Ms. (IN BLOCK LETTERS) Surname / Family Name Age _________ Sex _________ Occupation _____________________________________________ Organization/Institution/Hospital ___________________________________________________________ Qualification _______________________ Area of specialization _________________________________ Nature of Membership Life / Annual / Student / Overseas (NRI) Membership of Other Professional Bodies ___________________________________________________ Address for correspondence _____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________ Pin code Tel Email address Mode of Payment: Cash / DD No. ____________ Date __________ Amount Rs. _________ Declaration: I am interested in Nutrition and Dietetics. I agree to abide by the constitution and byelaws of the Indian Dietetic Association and also to pay my subscription regularly. Date Signature of Applicant FOR OFFICIAL USE Receipt No. _______ Date ________ Date of placing before Executive Committee __________ Executive Committees decision - Recommended/ Not Recommended Membership No. _________ MEMBERSHIP INFORMATION Life Membership Fee: Rs.2000-00; Annual Membership Fee: Rs.300-00; Students Membership Fee (per annum): Rs.150-00; Overseas Annual membership Fee (NRI): US $100-00; Overseas Life membership Fee (NRI): US $ 1000-00 Membership should be obtained from your local chapter. Email addresses are available in the IDA website (http://www.idaindia.com). The DD should be drawn in favour of Indian Dietetic Association and sent to your local chapter Please attach the following along with the application: 1. Self addressed stamped envelope along with the completed application form 2. Stamp size photographs - 2 numbers 3. Photocopy of certificates - UG / PG / Degree / Diploma 4. Only DD from a Nationalized Bank will be accepted, or Cash when handed over in person

IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMINATION October 2010 PAPER I (Physiology, Microbiology, Biochemistry) Time: 2 hours Marks: 100 SECTION - A Give the Correct Answer (10 x 2 = 20 marks) 1. The TRUE statement about iron in human body is that it is a. readily excreted in urine b. present in both ferrous and ferric state c. transported as ceruloplasmin d. absorbed in stomach 2. Glutathione is a a. octapeptide b. tetrapeptide c. tripeptide d. dipeptide 3. Starvation causes a decrease in which of the following metabolic process? a. Lipogenesis b. Glycogenolysis c. Lipolysis d. Glucogeneogenesis 4. Fatty acid NOT synthesized in man is a. Oleic b. palmitic c. linoleic d. stearic 5. ALL or NONE transmission occurs in a. Rods and cones b. axon c. pacinian corpuscle d. merkels disc 6. Erythropoietic secretion is facilitated by the following factors EXCEPT a. Alkalosis b. catecholamine c. prostaglandins d. estrogens 7. Acidity of gastric juice depends on a. Rate of parietal cell secretion c. rate of peptic secretion b. Post prandial alkaline tide d. mucosal bicarbonate barrier 8. During active secretion the pH of saliva is about a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 9. Frozen chickens are an important source of a. Micrococcus c. salmonella b. Lactobacillus d. pseudomonas 10. Giardia lamblia is otherwise known as a. Lamblia intestinals c. Trichinella spiralis b. Taenia spiralis d. Taenia nativa Section B 1. State whether the following statements are TRUE OR FALSE ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks) a. The hormone associated with regulation of water balance is anti diuretic hormone b. HMG CoA synthase is the rate limiting enzyme in the gluconeogenesis pathway c. VLDL carries endogenous triglycerides d. Aspergillus nomius is NOT an aflatoxin e. On an average, an adult secretes 2.5 litres of saliva per day 2. Fill in the blanks ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks) a. The pH at which a molecule carries no net charge is called

_________________ b. Sensation of hunger, thirst and feeding is associated with __________ c. The purely ketogenic amino acid is _____________ d. Two types of synapses are _________ and __________ e. The causative factor for Q fever is ______________ 3. Name one organism involved in each of the following ( 5 x 1 = 5 marks) a. Polio b. Malo-lactic fermentation c. Acute watery diarrhea d. Emetic syndrome e. Yersiniosis 4. Differentiate between (3 x 3 =9 marks) a. Leukocytosis and leukemia b. enzymes and co enzymes c. Gram negative and gram positive bacteria 5. Match the following (6 x 1 = 6 marks) a. Lactate dehydrogenase excessive salivation b. inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation Klebsiella aerogenes c. COPD Aeromanas d. Sialorrhoea watery diarrhea e. Facultative anaerobe myocardial infarction f. Travellers diarrhea cyanide respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis 6. Explain the terms ( 5 x 2 = 10) a. deglutition apnea b. anion gap c. bohr effect d. histones e. Ergotism f. renal rickets 7. Complete the following reactions (10 marks) a. Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate Phosphoenol pyruvate b. HMG CoA Squaelene c. Tryptophan Serotonin Section C ( 2 x 15 = 30 marks) Answer ANY TWO questions 1. What is uremia. Describe the reaction of urea cycle. Discuss the interrelation of urea cycle and the citric acid cycle 2. Define food born illness. What are the possible causes of food born illness. Explain Alimentary tract as the site of food born illness 3. Define digestion? What are peristaltic movements and their role in human digestion? What is the special route that lipids follow during digestion? What are chylomicrons? IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMINATION October 2010 PAPER II (Nutrition, Dietetics, Food Service Management) Time: 2 hours Marks: 100 Answer all questions : -(10X2 = 20 marks) a) Explain dawn phenomenon b) Explain use of the following in the diagnosis of disease

i) Glycosylated Heamoglobin ii) Serum Uric Acid iii) SGOT iv) Alkaline Phosphatase c) What is Steven Johnson Syndrome and its nutritional implications d) What does an increased pre-albumin value indicate ? e) Explain an organization chart with an example f) Explain waterlows classification of weight for height and weight for age g) Expand DHA, BIS, SMBG, HACCP h) List four sites at which skin fold thickness is measured for assessment of nutritional status. i) Expand SOAP in terms of nutritional care j) What are the three types of food production systems? 2. Answer all questions : (20 x 1 = 20 marks) i) When parenteral nutrition is indicated in ICU patients, the amino acid solution should contain a) 0.6 gms/Kg/day of L-glutamine b) 0.1 gms/Kg/day of L-glutamine c) 0.2 - 0.4 gms/Kg/day of L-glutamine ii) When forecasting the number of meals, which of the following data do you use most often? a) Profit and loss statement b) Food cost percent c) Previous records on sales d) Inventory on hand iii) Peyers patches are commonly seen in: a) Tuberculosis b) Malaria c) Typhoid d) Polio iv) Rotheras test is used to check ____________ in urine: a) Glucose b) Ketones c) Amino acids d) Albumin v) Give any two essential components of an effective communication in nutritional counseling. vi) Milk is deficient in ________ and _______ vii) Egg should not be over boiled a) to increase availability of iron. b) to prevent the greenish black ring of iron sulphide being formed c) both of the above d) none of the above k) Normal serum levels of creatinine and urea in adults viii) In the absence of indirect calorimetry, ICU patients should receive ________ Kcal/KG/day

a) 40 b) 30 c) 25 ix) List any two commonly employed methods for assessment of body composition. x) Additional proteins recommended for a pregnant woman as per the latest RDA of ICMR (released in 2009) xi) Any two commonly used foods rich in glutamine xii) Glucose load used in OGTT xiii) With regard to personnel management, every manager of a business establishment must know: 1. Law 2. Food Rates 3. Formulation of Acts 4. Legal implications of hiring staff xiv) Standardization of recipes aid in: a) Acceptability and quality b) Size and number of portions c) Appearance and flavour d) Methods of cooking xv) The osmolality (mOsm/kg) of icecream is greater than soups/broths - True or false xvi) The term low fat on food label as per codex alimentarius (WHO) guidelines means : a. Less than 3 grams/100g (solids) , 1.5 g /100 ml (liquids) b. Less than 3 grams of fat per serving c. Less than 1 grams/100g (solids) , 0.5 g /100 ml (liquids d. Less than 10 grams of fat per serving xvii) The body absorbs the lycopene in canned, pasteurized tomato juice and tomato products that contain oil more easily than the lycopene found in a fresh, raw tomato True or False xviii) HELLP Syndrome, is a pregnancy complication with following indications : a. Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count b. elevated blood pressure c. proteinuria with haemolysis xix) A 51 yr old male diagnosed recently with diabetes, with the following parameters - LDL 155 mg/dl, HDL - 40 mg/dl, total cholesterol 234 mg/dl, and triglycerides 265 mg/dl. He is following a diabetic diet plan, In addition to increasing his statin dosage, which additional dietary change would you recommend be included in his treatment plan in order to maximally lower his cholesterol? a. Add a fish oil supplement b. Restrict dietary cholesterol to <200 mg/day. c. Restrict dietary fat to <35% of total calories. d. Restrict dietary saturated fat to <10% of total calories.

xx) Approximately how much weight does the average newly diagnosed patient with type 2 diabetes need to lose if he expects his blood glucose levels to normalize completely? a. 2.5 kg or approximately 3.5% of ideal body weight (IBW) b. 4.5 kg or approximately 7% of IBW c. 10 kg or approximately 16% of IBW d. 8.0 kg or approximately 12.5% of IBW Answer all questions : ( 5 x 3 = 15 marks) 1. Explain MUST in brief 2. Differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis 3. Explain the phases in icteric disease (jaundice) 4. Parameters used to assess prevalence of anemia in a community 5. Briefly explain safe enteral feeding practices Answer all questions : (3 X 5 = 15 marks) Outline dietary guidelines for : 1. Nutritional support in patients with ESLD with or without encephalopathy 2. Patient with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) 3. Dietary management of ulcerative colitis Answer any two questions: (2 x 15 = 30 marks) 1. Mr. Hari is 55 year old male with chronic renal failure who was admitted with puffiness of face and pedal edema since 20 days. His biochemical parameters are as follows: a) Hb 10.5g/dl b) RBS 241mg/dl c) Na - 138mEq/l d) K - 6.1mEq/l e) Urea - 59 mg/dl f) Albumin - 2.8g/dl g) Urine analysis - Albuminuria Plan a diet. 2. A 29 year old male with a history of an RTA and consequent SAH, is on ventilator support. His heamoglobin is 12.6g/dl, albumin is 3.0g/dl and his prealbumin is 15g/dl. His TLC is 21,400. Explain with reasons for need to start enteral or parenteral nutrition & give the feeding plan. 3. Mrs Preeti Agarwal is 46-year-old with progressive dyspnea on exertion. She had a relatively normal childhood growth and development. She was noted to have a murmur 26 years ago. No therapy was sought and the patient had been well until recently. She had a successful pregnancy and delivery in the past without hemodynamic compromise. She has a past history of Hypertension, Chronic back pain and hysterectomy 2 yrs back. Wt: 105 kgs

BP: 140/70 HR: 74 . Heart: normal S1, S2 Hb: 13.2 mg/dl, Hct: 35%, Platelets: 268 Na: 143, K: 4.1, Cl: 105, CO2: 26, BUN: 12, Cr: 0.73, RBS: 106 Plan a diet indicating the lifestyle modifications to be taken.

IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMINATION NOVEMBER 2009 Paper I (Physiology, Microbiology, Biochemistry) Time : 2 Hrs Answer All Questions Marks : 100 SECTION A (20x1=20 Marks) Indicate the correct answer form the multiple choices given below: 1. When the pH of blood becomes acidic as compared to the normal value, the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve is a. shifted to the right b. shifted to the left c. affected either way d. unaffected 2. Barbiturates inhibit respiratory chain by \ a. uncoupling oxidation and phosphorilation b. blocking transfer of electrons from Fe-S to Q c. inhibiting transport of ADP into the mitochondrion d. completely blocking oxidation and phosphorilation 3. The number of net molecules of ATP formed on complete oxidation of a Molecule of glucose is a. 8 b. 10 c. 38 d. 40 4. Synaptic functions of neurons can include a. blocking of nerve impulse in its transmission b. changing a simple impulse into receptive impulses c. integrating the impulse with other impulses d. all of the above 5. The botulinum toxin is a a. enterotoxin b. neurotoxin c. neither of the above d. both of the above

6. A non-competitive inhibitor affects enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a. lowering Km b. lowering Vmax c. increasing Km d. increasing Vmax 7. The structure of threonine is a. NH2.CH2.COOH b. CH3.NH2.CH2.COOH c. HOCH2.NH2.CH2.COOH d. CH3.CHOH.CH2.CH2.COOH

8. Secretion of ACTH is increased several fold as a result of a. physical stress b. mental stress c. both of the above d. neither of the above 9. When subjected to freezing temperatures, vegetative cells of yeast are a. susceptible b. moderately resistant c. insensitive d. unaffected 10. The major end products of fat digestion are a. 1- mono acylglycerols and fatty acids b. 2-mono acylglycerols and fatty acids c. 3-mono acylglycerol and fatty acids d. Glycerol and fatty acids 11. Andersons disease is characterized by storage of glycogen having a. normal structure b. enormous branches c. few branch points d. straight chain structure 12. The decomposition product of rhodopsin that excites electrical changes in the rods of the eye is a. bathorhodopsin b. lumirhodopsin c. metarhodopsin 1 d. metarhodopsin 11 13. On the lagging strand, DNA is synthesized in short fragments because of the DNA-Polymerase synthesizes in a. 5 ->2 direction b. 2 -> 5 direction c. 5 -> 3 direction d. 3 -> 5 direction 14. Bacteria belonging to genus Aeromonas are a. gram positive rods b. gram negative rods c. gram positive cocci d. gram-negative cocci 15. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the kidneys are unable to respond to the action of a. oxytocin b. antidiuretic hormone c. aldosterone d. angiotensin 11 16. Microorganism which can be used as probiotics include a. Aspergillus niger b. Lactobacillus acidophilus c. Streptococcus thermophilus d. all of the above

17. Excretion of ammonia is greatly increased in a. renal disease b. alkalosis c. acidosis d. wasting diseases 18. Quantitatively the most important extracellular buffer system involved in acidbase homeostasis is a. bicarbonate b. phosphate c. hemoglobin d. proteins 19. The mold which is called the red bread mold is a. tricothecium roseum b. penicillin expansum c. neurospora sitophilla d. trichoderma viride 20. Ornithine transcarbomylase functions in a. cytosol b. motochondria c. golgi bodies d. lysosomes SECTION B (50 marks) 1. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable word (s) (6x1=6 marks) a. the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is catalyzed by the enzyme ------b. one of the most important effects of increased sympathetic activity during exercise is increased ---------------c. in the growth curve of microbial cultures the portion which shows no growth is called the --------------d. the food safety and standards Act of 2006 will be implemented through a central body known as the----------e. membrane lipids contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions and hence are -------- in nature f. deficiency of the enzyme -------------- in the parietal cells can lead to achlorhydria 2. Define the following in one sentence (5x1=5 marks) a. Cardiac reserve b. Transcription c. Water activity d. Zoonosis e. Optical isomers 3. State whether the following statements are true or false (5x1= 5 marks) a. the brain of a fetus with classic PKU cannot develop normally in intrauterine stage b. the apolipoprotein present in LDL is B-48 c. Various modifications of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) are being standardized for detection of pathogenic organisms. d. one of the functions of the lymphatic system is regulation of interstitial fluid pressure

e. blunt ends produced by the action of restriction enzymes on DNA are useful in constructing chimeric DNA molecules 4. Justify briefly the statements (5x3 =15 marks) a. more than 90% of the bile salts secreted into the bile undergo recirculation. b. heat processing is effectively employed in food preservation. c. the activation of muscle contraction and glycogenolysis are carried out by the same binding protein, ensuring synchronization. d. any given mRNA sequence can have three possible reading frames. e. impairment of pentose phosphate pathway leads to hemolysis of erythrocytes. 5. Give one difference in chemical composition between (4x1=4 marks) a. lecithin and lysolecithin b. L-aspartate and L-glutamate c. D-erythrose and D- erythrulose d. isocitrate and citrate 6. Match the following (5x1=5marks) a. protein kinase cascade (1) kidney b. lactate dehydrogenase (2) sanitary and phytosanitary measures c. adenosine deaminase (3) myocardial infarction d. erythropoietin (4) growth hormone e. risk assessment (5) immunodeficiency 7. What is the disadvantage of the following? (5x2=10 marks) a. low activity of Aldolase B b. high pressure processing of foods c. presence of histamine in the body d. mechanism of passive transport e. dietary trans-fats SECTION C (2x15 = 30 marks) Answer any TWO questions 1. Discuss in detail the metabolic profile of an individual a. in a well -fed state b. during starvation 2. What are the food hygiene practices that must be followed to ensure food safety? 3. Describe the physiological structure of the ear. Discuss the auditory mechanisms involved in the process of hearing.

IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMIANTION NOVEMBER 2009 Paper II (Nutrition, Dietetics, Food Service Management) Time : 2 Hrs Answer All Questions Marks : 100 SECTION: A Answer all questions (10x2=20 marks) 1. Explain the following terms. 1) Curlings Ulcer 2) Ileostomy and Colostomy 3) Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty 4) Enzyme Block in Ryles Tube Feeding 5) Somgyi Effect 6) Quetlet Index 7) ORT and specify formula 8) Dialysate 9) Dawn Phenomenon 10) Cor Pulmonale SECTION B 2. Differentiate between the following: (3x5=15 marks) 1) Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis 2) Type 2 and Type 4 Hyperlipidemia 3) Hemodialysis and CAPD 3. Outline Dietary Guidelines for: (3x5=15 marks) 1) A Patient suffering from Wilsons Disease 2) A Patient suffering from Gluten Induced Enteropathy 3) A Patient recovered from Hepatic Coma 4. Answer all questions. (20x1=20 marks) 1) In a Standard Parenteral Nutrition Solution, what should be the percentage distribution of Kilocalorie from Carbohydrate, Protein and Fat? a. 50% Carbohydrate, 15 % Protein and 35 % Fat. b. 50% Carbohydrate, 30 % Protein, 20 % Fat c. 70% Carbohydrate, 20 % Protein, 10% Fat 2) Which of the following Amino Acids shown to reduce Intestinal injury following Chemotherapy, is also thought to be a major fuel for the gut? a. Glycin b. Alanine c. Arginine d. Glutamine 3) Patients on restricted food intake who are on broad spectrum antibiotics are predisposed to a deficiency of which of the following nutrients?

a. Fluorine b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin K 4) Which of the following digestive enzyme shows the greatest decrease in activity from malnutrition? a. Lipase b. Lactase c. Amylase d. Peptidase 5) Convert 600 MGM Sodium and 1600 MGM Potassium into MEQ. 6) Composition of Rice Bran Oil SFA, MUFA, N6/N3 Ratio. 7) Cholesterol content of any two foods. 8) List any four foods avoided by a patient suffering from oral cancer During Chemotherapy/ 9) Name the functional food in Carrot and Soya bean. 10) Diet recommended in Epilepsy is a. Ketogenic Diet b. Kempners Diet c. Karrel Diet 11) List any four food adulterants. 12) What is the temperature of:a. Refrigerator b. Freezer 13) What is GG Diet? 14) Formulae for calculation of Mid Upper Arm Muscle Circumference 15) Formulae for positive Nitrogen Balance 16) Write any two labor laws affecting Food Service Establishments 17) Iron content of any two foods. 18) What three items help control the blood sugar level in the body? a. Alcohol, Candy, Milk b. Food, Insulin, Exercise c. Bread, Meat, Fruit 19) One Pint of 5 % Dextrose gives --------- Kilo Calories 20) List four foods avoided by a Gout patient. SECTION C Answer Any TWO Questions (2x15=30 Marks)

1. Mrs. Qureshi is 59 years old and is a diabetic for the last 15 years and is on Human Mixtard 22 U before Breakfast and 20 U before Dinner. She has undergone cataract surgery four days back. Her height is 158 cm and weight is 74 Kg. Plan a diet. 2. Mr Umesh Prasahd Gupta, 33 years old post Renal Transplant patient in 2005 has uremia and volume overload stage Weight: 51.3 Kg, height: 162 CM, S. Creatinine: 6.7-> 5.3 Mg% Blood Urea: 141 Mg%, Fluid Restriction 800 ml only. Plan a Diet 3. Mrs. Savita Katkari had accidental 2nd degree burns due to gas cylinder burst and has developed Jaundice. She is unable to eat orally so a RT tube has been passed, Plan an RT feed for her. Age: 35 years, Weight: 57 Kgs, Height 157 CM. Total Protein: 4.8 Gm%, Albumin:2.3 Gm%, Globulin:2.5gm%, Bilirubin: 8.3 Mg/DL

IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMINATION NOVEMBER 2008 Paper I (Physiology, Microbiology, Biochemistry) Time : 2 Hrs Answer All Questions Marks : 100 Section A Give the correct answer (10x2=20 marks) 1. Growth hormone stimulates the growth of bones and cartilages through a. Calcitonin b. Calmodulin c.. Somatomedin d. None of the above 2. Proportion of carbohydrate, fat and protein in the balanced diet is a. 1:1:4 b. 1:4:1 c. 1:1:1 d. none of the above 3. Soyabean is recommended for menopausal women due to its content of a. Amino acids b. fatty acids c. Phyto-estrogen d. minerals 4. The organism used in Bakers yeast is a. Saccharomyces b. Aspergillus c. Bacillus subtilis d. Monilia 5. GM foods are a. Germinated and Malted b. Granular and Moist c. Genetically Modified d. Glucose and Milk 6. The reaction between sugar and amino acid is known as a. Denaturation b. Hydrolysis c. Maillard d. Browning 7. All the following are the functions of Vitamin C except a. Cellular Oxidation reduction b. Absorption of iron c.Ca & P metabolism d. Synthesis of collagen 8. Muscle protein absent in smooth muscle is

a. Actin b. Myosin c. Calmodulin d. Troponin 9. The enzyme deficient in Von Gierkes disease is a. Glycogen Synthase b. Glucose -6 -phosphatase c. Glucokinase d. Phosphorylase 10. Normal diastolic blood pressure in an adult man is a. 60mmHg b. 80 mmHg c. 120 mmHg d. 140 mmHg Section B 1. State whether the following statements are true or false (1x5=5 marks) a. Uric Acid is the end product of protein metabolism b. High concentration of C-reactive protein is found in case of Coronary Artery Disease. c. Superoxide dismutase scavenges toxic free radicals. d. Glucose -6-P de-hydrogenase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia e. No gas acts as a vasodilator 2. Fill in the blanks (1x5=5 marks) a. The ----------------- Lipoprotein has the lowest density b. ------------------- type of enzyme inhibition is irreversible c. ---------------- is active form of methionine d. ---------------- are cholerectic agents e. Preservation of food by canning involves ----------------3. Name one organism involved in each of the following (1x5=5 marks) a. cholera b. Leprosy c. Ripening of cheese d. Yoghurt e. beer manufacture 4. Differentiate between (3x3=9 marks) a. Yeasts and molds b. Active and passive transport c. LDL & HDL 5. Match the following (1x6 =6 marks) a. Glucose -6-phosphatase 1. Carboxylation b. HMG CA reductase 2. Alexander Fleming c. N-Carbamoyl (P) Synthetase 3. Flavinoids d. Penicillin 4.Carbamoyl Phosphate e. Red wine 5. Mevalonate f. Biotin 6. Glucose 6. Explain the terms (2x5=10 marks) a. Hypobaric storage

b. Facultative anaerobe c. COPD d. Anaplerotic reactions e. Omega-3-fatty acids 7. Complete the following reactions (10 marks) a. Citrulline _ Arginosuccinic acid b. Malate _ Oxalo acetate c. Tyrosine_ Epinephrine Section C (2x15=30 marks) Answer any TWO questions 1. Explain why Glucose -6-(P) is regarded as the Key intermediate metabolic product of carbohydrate metabolism. 2. Write notes on : a. Hormones of the kidney b. Transport, storage and functions of iron in the body 3. Discuss oxidation and biosynthesis of even C fatty acids in the body.

IDA REGISTERED DIETITIAN EXAMINATION NOVEMBER 2008 Paper II (Nutrition, Dietetics, Food Service Management) Time : 2 Hrs Answer All Questions Marks : 100 Section A (10x2=20 marks) 1. Categorize the following BMI levels: a. 31 b. 15 c. 25 d. 19 2. If the urinary Iodine concentration is < 40 mcg/dl, it indicates---------3. Differentiate between chronic and acute condition Classify the following accordingly a. Tuberculosis b. Diarrhea c. Peptic Ulcer d. Infectious Hepatitis 4. State whether true or false: All foods with low glycemic index can be given to diabetic patients. 5. Immuno-competence during old age depends on several nutrients. Pick out four key nutrients from the following list: Calcium, Magnesium, Iron, Ascorbic Acid, Copper, Riboflavin, Niacin, Zinc. 6. Why are trans- fatty acids bad for health? 7 In a 2000 Kcal diet if 70% of energy is derived from CHO, 10% from protein and 20 % from fat, then how many grams of each is required to be provided in the diet? 8 What is the meaning of Organic Foods? 9 Endemic Fluorosis is a public health problem when drinking water contains naturally occurring fluoride of more than: a. 0.5ppm b. 1ppm c. 1.5ppm d. 2ppm 10 Pick out the odd combination a. Vitamin E and Selenium b. Zinc and Insulin c. Tyrosine and Thyroxine d. Tryptophan and Glucagon Section B (25x2=50 marks) 1. What do you understand by height for age and weight for height in assessing

malnutrition? 2. What is ICDS? Give four major services offered by ICDS to the community 3. Give any two Government run programs each for (a) supplementary feeding program (b) Nutrient efficiency program. 4. What is the Calcium and Protein content of human milk? Create a slogan for promotion of breast feeding. 5. Give four important pieces of information to be collected as a dietitian for an OPD patient. 6. What is an Organization chart? Give one example. 7. Classify equipments used in a hospital dietary service according to their use in production cycle giving examples. 8. Give two benefits of consuming Omega-3-fattyacid in the diet. 9. Mention two adverse effects of dehydration. 10. What is Vegan Diet? 11. Explain Oxidative Stress. 12. Give two benefits of minimizing drug interaction. 13. Differentiate between liquids and soft diet. Give examples. 14. What is the recommended route of feeding in the following disorder, explain by giving reasons. a. Cystic Fibrosis b. Bone Marrow Transplantation 15. Define Net Protein Utilization (NPU). What is it used for? 16. Explain a 40-30-30 diet 17. What nutritional care guidelines would you recommend for patients with Dumping Syndrome? 18. Which of the following foods cannot be incorporated in a gluten free diet and why? a. Tandoori roti b. Pineapple cake c. Vegetable pulav d. Noodles 19. Give the full form of BIS, PDS, ISO 20. What is the basis of fluid requirement in acute renal failure? 21. What is Bulimia Nervosa? 22. Define RDA, who formulates them in India? 23. Expand and differentiate between LBW, VLBW & ELBW. 24. What is Glycemic Index? 25. What is the difference between: a. Refrigerated storage b. Cold storage c. Freezer storage Section C (2x15=30 marks) Answer any TWO of the following 1. A 40 year old male (height 170cm, weight 55 kg) is undergoing haemo-dialysis and is waiting for kidney transplant. Plan and calculate a diet you would recommend to this patient. His biochemical parameters are BP 150/95 mmHg, Creatinine 6.2 mg/dl, BUN 78 mg/dl, Potassium 5.7 mmo/L, Sodium 150 mmo/L 2. Plan and calculate a non-vegetarian diet for a 30 year old pregnant woman whose weight is 56 kg, height 160 cms. The biochemical parameters are Haemoglobin 8.5gm/dl, fasting sugar 110mg/dl, GTT 1st hour 140 mg/dl. 2nd hour 180mg/dl, 3rd hour 130 mg/dl, GRBS 147 mg/dl. Give basic principles in planning the diet. 3. Plan and calculate a vegetarian diet for a 60 year hypertensive male (height 172 cms, weight 87 kg). His BP is 160/100 mmHg, total cholesterol 275mg/dl, triglycerides 340 mg/dl, HDL 44mg/dl, VLDL 41 mg/dl and LDL 170mg/dl.

R.D. Examination Pattern

There will be two test papers - each of two hours duration Paper I Physiology, Microbiology, Biochemistry Paper II Nutrition, Dietetics, Food Service Management. Each paper will consist of 3 sections. Section A&B: Objective questions (50 marks) & Multiple choice (20 marks) Section C Clinical oriented question (30 marks) The candidate is required to obtain 50% for qualifying, and a minimum of 45% for each paper.

HOSPITAL FACILITIES FOR HAVING INTERNS APPEARING FOR RD EXAM CONDUCTED BY INDIAN DIETETIC ASSOCIATION REGISTERED DIETITIAN (RD) BOARD Format 1 1. Serial Number 2. Organisation 3. No. of Beds 4. Dietitians a. With RD b. Senior Dietitians (years of experience) c. Head Dietitian Format 2 1. Name of organization 2. Super specialty/Multi specialty 3. Number of RD Dietitians 4. Number of non-RD Dietitians 5. Number of kitchen dietitians 6. Total number of dietitians 7. Full time / part time 8. Number of catering supervisor or diet clerk 9. Dietitian-patient ratio 10. Number of RD interns at any given point of time 11. Number of cases or specialty 12. Number of hours a student works in each specialty 13. Number of hours a dietitian / student works in FSD 14. Number of cases studied 15. Whether thesis / dissertation given to RD interns 16. Job profile of Head / Chief dietitian 17. Number of years post RD of Chief Dietitian Name and signature Contact no Email ID -

The above formats should be completed and submitted to local / nearest IDA chapter. The President / Secretary in turn should send it to the current RD Board Chairperson for the perusal of RD Board. Current RD Board Chairperson Dr Molly Joshi, PhD, RD Consultant Dietitian Chairperson, Registration Board, IDA Professor, Nutrition & Dietetics Address: 'ANUGRAH' B-234, BRS Nagar Ludhiana 141012 Punjab, India Email: mollyjoshi2004@yahoo.com Phone: +91 161 2452452(Residence) +91 161 2428428 (Clinic) Mobile: +91 98761 07574

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LIST OF RECOGNISED HOSPITALS FOR RD INTERNSHIP IN INDIA

NAME OF HOSPITAL
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Sagar Hospitals Bangalore Baptist Hospital Manipal Hospital Bhagwan Mahaveer Jain Hospital Mallya Hospital Bhopal Memorial Hospital & Research Centre Govt. Medical College & Hospital Govt. Multi Speciality Hospital Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research

CITY
Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore Bangalore Bhopal Chandigarh Chandigarh

LANDLINE
080-26536700 080-22024700 080-25023358 080- 41100550 08023235599 0755-2742212 0172-2665253 0172-2768230 0172-2756044

MOBILE
9980850085 9945640397 9945689325 9845818642 9845292590 9926619755 9815414231 9876697332 9872615429

EMAIL ADDRE

kakaniss@gmail.c

daphnebalan@yahoo.

jyothi.chakravarthy@gm

julievijay.30@gmail.

tara.diet@gmail.co

swarna004@rediffma

manju_mathur123@redif

manishadhingra101s@ya

boseratna@ymail.c

Chandigarh

10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

Frontier Lifeline Hospital General Hospital and Madras Medical College Institute of Child Health Institute of Obstretics and Gynecology Apollo Hospitals Sri Ramachandra Medical Center Sundaram Medical Foundation PSG IMSR Hospitals All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) St.Stephens Hospital Kamineni Wockhardt Hospitals Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences Apollo Hospitals Osmania General Hospital , Govt of AP Fernandez Hospitals Pvt Ltd Gandhi Hospital, Secundrabad Asian Institute Of Gastroenterology Sri Aurobindo Institute of Medical Sciences Choithram Hospital and Research Center Geeta Bhawan Hospital and Research Center Bombay Hospital Lakeshore Hospital and Research Center Christian Medical College and Hospital

Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai Chennai Coimbatore Delhi Delhi Hyderabad Hyderabad

044-42017575 044-26427929 044-26511788 044-28255049 044-28296637 044-24765515 044-26268844 0422-2570170 011-26588700

9840062657 9841036607 9840078491 9443251036

nimmijesudason@hotm

meenakshibajaj@hotm

sabita10@gmail.co

bhuvaneshwari_s@apolloh 9840054964 9941016805 9943323443 9873164643 9971941078

kundhala@rediffmai

bamini.m@yahoo.c

kavithadietician@yaho

anujamarch26@yaho

enidhabil@gmail.c

040-66924444 040-23489128

9912407012 98497467759848809988

nagu0508@gmail.c

hithasri@yahoo.co 040-23607777 9949962228 Hyderabad Hyderabad Hyderabad Hyderabad Hyderabad Indore 040-27505566 040-23378888 9885025565 9849486874 9849434639 040-24600146 040-40222300 9848135621

22 23 24 25 26 27

harithashyam@hotmai

nutrifit09@gmail.co

venkateswarrbr@gmai esther.sathiaraj@gmail.com

0731-4231000

9301137893

ritusharma11july@rediffm

bhalepurnima@gmail Indore 0731-23624918 9425313241 Indore Indore Kochi 0731-2491863 0731-2559811 0484-2701032 9826091555 9993714824 9946325389

28

drrashmi@ymail.co

29 30 31

priyankachauhan76@gm

blesslinu8@yahoo.c Ludhiana 0161-5026999 9872849945

32

ruma_singh8@yahoo

33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52

Kasturba Hospital Asian Heart Institute and Research Center B Y L Nair Hospital K E M Hospital Jaslok Hospital Bombay Hospital Harkisandas Hospital Bhatia Hospital Breach Candy Hospital Tata Memorial Cancer Research Hospital Balabhai Nanavati Hospital Wadia Hospital Gokuldas Tejpal Govt Hospital Fortis Hospital Ltd P D Hinduja Hospital & Research Center S L Raheja Hospital J J Hospital Holy Family Hospital Holy Spirit Hospital Parsi General Hospital Prince Aly Khan Hospital

Manipal Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai Mumbai

0820-2572533 022-24461854 022-23081490 022-24136051 022-66573102 022-22067676 022-28955517 022-56660359 022-23667933 022-24177000 022-26182255 022-24129786 022-24129787

9880510626

puspagiri@yahoo.c

9004043202 9869634734 9833756710 9820103704 9821062577 9824530088 9819226825 9820203142 9820037676 9892323143 9820074337 9821740148

idamumbaichapter@yah

safalmahadik@yahoo

dietitian@jaslokhospit

gdkoppikar@hotmail

dietitian@hnhospital.

lubna-s81@rediffma

eileencandy@yahoo

diet-anjali@yahoo.c

usha.sisodia@gmail.

bmkori@rediffmail.c

chai3jam@yahoo.c

022-67994444 022-24447924 022-66529869 022-26404081 022-26423777 022-26421992 02230610345 022-28248500 022-22633212 022-23633213 022-23777857 022-23777800

9820746008 9833978900 9819182373 9823154685 9833398431

purwaduggal@fortishos

dietician@hindujahospi

solyjames@rediffma

bharati.muntode@gma

leena4martin@yahoo. 9869543505

9821494426

lucyjohn04@yahoo.

Mumbai Mumbai

53

54 55 56

Saifee Hospital Deenanath Mangeshkar Hospital Aditya Birla Memorial Hospital

Mumbai

022-67570111

9833142688

amitasalgi6@yahoo.

Pune Pune

020-40151000 02030717671

9823052614 9881123096

anjukalkar@hotmail

dharmattigeeta@rediffm

57
58

KEM Hospital and Research Center

Christian Medical College and Hospital

Pune
Vellore 0416-2282715

9850663949

vaishaliatulmadkaikar@red

diet@cmcvellore.a

Constitution | Former Presidents | Registered Dietitians | Disclaimer | About Us | IDA Board | Membership | Contact Us Copyright Indian Dietetic Association

Registered Dietitian (RD) Exam

Registration is awarded to applicants who successfully qualify in the Registration examination. Eligibility Requirements for Registration Examination (To be completed by August 31st of the year of applying for the RD exam)

Six months Life Membership of Indian Dietetic Association (IDA). Graduation in Nutrition & Dietetics / Post Graduate Diploma in Nutrition & Dietetics / Post Graduate (Masters) Degree in Nutrition & Dietetics. Six months internship (after completion of qualifying examination) in a multi-specialty hospital recognized by IDA for internship & supervised by a Registered Dietitian (RD) or a senior dietitian with at least 10 years experience. The internship can be done continuously or in two installments of two to four (2-4) months each with a break of not more than six (6) weeks. The internship should be completed before August 31st of the year of applying for the RD exam. OR Two years of experience as a full time dietitian in a multi-specialty hospital of minimum 150 beds.

Internship certificate - Should clearly state dietetic internship / training done - Should have dates of starting and completing internship - Should be signed by the Supervising dietitian (RD) Registration Examination Exam Date - November 12, 2011 (Saturday). Time - 9:00 am to 1:00 pm Application form Click here to download Please apply after May 1st of the examination year. Last date of submitting completed application form - August 31st of the year of applying for the RD exam. Examination Fee - Rupees 500/Demand Draft on Indian Overseas Bank or any Nationalized bank in favor of "Dr. Molly Joshi, Chairperson, RD Board" payable at LUDHIANA

CITY (please send by courier or speed post or registered post). Address for Communication for Applications Dr. Molly Joshi, Sant Isher Singh Nagar 41 GF (Pink Flats), Pakhowal Road, Ludhiana 141002, Punjab. Email: mollyjoshi2004@yahoo.com Exam Centers

Dr MGR-Janaki College of Arts and Science for Women "Sathyabama MGR Maligai", 11 & 13, Durgabai Deshmukh Road, Raja Annamalai puram, Chennai 600028 Topiwala National Medical College & Nair Hospital, Dr. A. L. Nair Road, Mumbai Central, Mumbai Dietary Department, AIIMS, New Delhi

Registered Dietitian Test

Registration Examination for Dietitians Test Specifications I. Food and Nutrition (15% of exam) Food Science, Food Safety, Nutrient Composition of Foods Nutrition and Supporting Sciences

II. Clinical and Community Nutrition (40% of exam) Nutrition Screening and Assessment Normal Nutrition/Health Promotion/ Disease Prevention Medical Nutrition Therapy

III. Education and Research (7% of exam) Counseling Education and Training Research

IV. Food and Nutrition Systems (18% of exam) Menu Planning Purchasing, Production, Distribution and Service Safety and Sanitation Facility Planning

V. Management (20% of exam) Human Resources Finance and Materials Marketing Products and Services Functions and Characteristics Quality Improvement