GOD IS A GREEK? (The Hebrew Name of Jesus) By Jeffrey D. Dean Sr.

October 6, 2011 Some have mistakenly (or perhaps deliberately) assumed that I am part of some "Hebrew Roots Movement" because I use the name Y'shua (Yeshua, Yahoshua etc.) when referring to the Son of God. This is a debate that is silly and childlike in it's very nature and engenders itself to questions and strifes of words (something the Apostles stated is "devilish"). So we know that when someone wants to make ANY issue at all about which transliterated name I use in reference to the Son of God they are not coming from the Holy Spirit but some other spirit which is NOT of God. I will herein lay my case before the public for scrutiny. I shall not rely on historical records (which easily can and have been altered). I shall not rely on anything but the old noggin my Father gave me and (hopefully) the Holy Spirit discernment that I have received and upon which I have relied from my youth to answer these devils who insist on making some mountain out of a mole hill and who insist on creating strife over a name translation. I have always said and will continue to say that when you call upon the name of the Son of God, the Father knows upon WHOM you are calling (even if you were taught his name was George or Ringo). It matters not. Yet, I have at the same time encouraged the use of the name Y'shua (Yeshua). Occassionally some devil will call me on this and demand to know why I insist upon doing this. Their arguments are numerous but they are summarized in this manner: "Everyone knows that the Hebrews of Jesus' time spoke and wrote in Greek, the New Testament was WRITTEN in Greek originally and the name Jesus (the Greek name of the Son of God) appears in all of the oldest Greek manuscripts. Why should I call Jesus by an Hebrew name when there is no proof he ever had an Hebrew name to begin with?" In short, these devils want to forget many important facts that cannot be denied. First but not foremost is that Jesus, his parent, his grandparents, his ants, uncles, cousins, brothers (yes he had brothers but that is another article all in itself), all of these people were HEBREW. They grew up in an Hebrew culture that was deep and rich and they were an OCCUPIED country at the time of Jesus' birth. What does any of this have to do with anything? It's inconceivable and even laughable to think that they gave Jesus a GREEK name. (It cannot be denied that the name Jesus is Greek because the letter J does not even exist in the Hebrew alphabet). Putting that aside, it is at least REMOTELY possible that Jesus' parents could

give him a Greek name. The foremost FACT they ignore is that even if it were true Mary and Joseph spoke and read Greek (and if you hear the Catholics tell it they didn't even KNOW Hebrew), Mary and Joseph did not name the Son of God! They were TOLD what to name him by God!

Matthew 1: 19-21 "19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privately. 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take to you Mary your wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and you shall call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins."
For those who insist that the angel uttered the name JESUS (the Greek Name) and that was the ORIGINAL name and it has never been transliterated I have but one question. Is God a Greek? Why did God command a Greek name for the Hebrew born child of Mary and Joseph? Especially when you consider that the Greek name "Jesus" does NOT IN ANY WAY SHAPE OR FORM denote a SAVIOR and the angel states that the name was given BECAUSE he was to be a SAVIOR? This is not rocket science people! Nowhere in Greek mythos, legend, or in any Greek tradition at that time did the name "Jesus" have any significance or meaning of "Savior." Yet, here is an angel saying "call him Jesus because he will be a savior." This defies all logic and common sense (which is just fine with the people who insist that Jesus was the original name because they don't really possess much of either, that is clear from talking to them). Yet, there is ANOTHER name, a HEBREW name that DOES denote a "savior." It's a very FAMOUS name in Hebrew culture. That name is Y'shua (Yeshua) which is translated in English JOSHUA! Joshua was the one who finally led the Children of Israel into the PROMISED LAND!

Not surprisingly, Jesus led them into the TRUE PROMISED LAND. It is more likely that when the angel uttered the name he said this, "you shall call his name Yeshua (Joshua) for he shall save the people from their sins." Do we have any proof at all that the name might have been originally "Joshua?" We have very SIMPLE PROOF and this proof also, not surprisingly, is proof that the creators of the coveted "GREEK MANUSCRIPTS" the Jesus name proporters like to point to went through the New Testament at some point and everywhere the name Y'shua (Joshua) appeared changed it to the name Jesus. The first scripture is Acts 7:44- 45 "44 Our fathers had the tabernacle of witness in the wilderness, as he had appointed, speaking unto Moses, that he should make it according to the fashion that he had seen. 45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drove out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;" These verses are talking CLEARLY about JOSHUA but it says JESUS in the Greek Manuscripts (and in earlier versions of the King James Version of which I possess several copies). They have since CORRECTED this error in the newer translations to cover up their lies but the truth is out there for everyone to see. Someone CHANGED the name Joshua in the GREEK MANUSCRIPTS to the name JESUS. In their zeal to ERADICATE the Hebrew name of the Son of God they messed up and they are now caught with their pants down!

Hebrews 8:4 "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day."
Again, this verse is talking about JOSHUA of OLD but they mitransliterated it to JESUS (because they simply were replacing the name Y'shua with Jesus everywhere they saw it in the New Testament)! Everyone KNOWS that Jesus indeed has given us "rest." No apostle would say "IF Jesus HAD given them rest." It doesn't take a genius in linguistics or an expert in the subject of transliterations to SPOT these two errors and the conclusion is inescapable! Someone was changing the name Y'Shua (Joshua) to Jesus at some point and there were two references to the ORIGINAL JOSHUA that got translated erroneously in the

process! All you really have to do is READ your scriptures and rely on your NOGGIN and the Holy Spirit and the LIES will be revealed! Yes, Jesus is a GREEK TRANSLATION of the name Y'Shua (Joshua) there can be no doubt (and NOT the other way around as the Roman Beasts would have you to believe)! Does this make me some sort of radical "Hebrew Roots Movement" preacher? Some devils might say so to try and discredit me somehow (so they don't have to believe in the TRUE MESSIAH). That's the last I will probably say on this subject (I hope). Jeffrey D. Dean, Sr.