1- All of the following disorders are precancerous lesions of the colon Except : A. Ulcerative colitis . B. Villous adenomas . C.

Peutj-Jegers syndrome . D. Familial polyposis . E. Gardner's syndrome . 2. Hirschsprung's disease : A. Is the result of acquired aganglionosis of the large bowel. B. Usually becomes evident in early adult life . C. Can usually be diagnosed on a barium enema D. Can usually be managed by dietary means . E. NULL 3- Malignant tumours of the anal canal include : A. Keratoacanthoma B. Oylindroma C. Melanoma . D. Basaloid . E. Condylomata lata . 4- Faeculent vomiting A. Is commonly seen after upper gastroinestinal tract bleeding, B. Indicates large bowel obstruction . C. Indicates bacterial proliferation in the upper intestinal tract. D. Suggests a gastro-colic fistula . E. NULL 5- In the treatment of oesophageal cancers all are false Except : A. Surgical excision of the tumour is feasible in the majority of patients B. Radio therapy is frequently used. C. Chemotherapy is of particular value in squamous cell lesions. D. Gastrostomy provides good palliation for patients with complete dygphagi a . E. NULL 6- Indication for surgery in hiatus hernia : A. Obesity B. Significant persistent anaemia and haemorrhage C. Sliding hernia . D. Hyperacidity. E. NULL 7- Extracellular fluid losses are often extensive in except : A. Intestinal obstruction . B. Peritonitis . C. Pancreatitis D. Hepatic coma E. NULL 8- Postoperative gastric dilatation treatment : all true except: A. Suction B. Oxygen and sedatives . C. Fluid I. V. D. Gas trojejenostomy . E. NULL 9. Pharyngeal pouches . A. Usually occur at the pharyngo-oesophageal junction. B. are commonest in young people . C. Usually require surgical excision. D. NULL E. NULL 10- ERCP : A. Performed via side-viewing duodenoscope . B. Contraindicated in recent acute pancreatitis C. Valuable in poatcholecystectomy syndrome D. Non of the above

E. All of the above 11- The carcinoid syndrome : A. Is produced by the release of vaaoconstricting substances from the tumou r B. Occurs most commonly with metastatic carcinoid tumours . C. Is usually cured by excision of the primary tumour . D. NULL E. NULL 12- The complications of typhoid infection include : A. Paralytic ileus . B. Intestinal haemorrhage . C. Gallstone formation . D. Osteomyelitis E. Laryngitis 13- In traumatic rupture of the liver . A. The left lobe is more commonly affected than the right lobe. B. The spleen escapes injury . C. Major hepatic resection is likely to be indicated . D. Packing of the rupture should be avoided . E. Haemobilia is a recognised feature . 14- Purpura occurs characteristically in a patient who has : A. A thrombocytopathy B. Port wine staining C. Venous gangrene . D. Phlegmasia caerulea dolens . E. Septicaemia 15- Postoperative gastric dilatation treatment : all true except : A. Suction . B. Oxygen & sedatives . C. Fluid I.V. D. Gasirojejenostomy E. NULL 16- Pyloric stenosis : A. Can be due to a carcinoma at or near the pylorus . B. Is due to cicatrisation from a duodenal or pyloric gastric ulcer. C. Classically occurs in men with a long history of ulcer . D. Causes hyponatraemia. E. Occurs in children . 17- Extracellular fluid losses are often extensive in : A. Intestinal obstruction . B. Peritonitis . C. Pancreatitis D. Hepatic coma . E. NULL 18- The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome : A. la the result of hypergastrinaemia . B. Is produced by parietal cell neoplasia . C. Includes diarrhoea and malabsorption among its presenting features D. Is most effectively treated by total gastrectomy . E. NULL 19- Carcinoid tumours of the gastrointestinal tract : A. Are most commonly located in the appendix . B. Are usually malignant . C. Arise in the submucosa . D. Are frequently the cause of gastrointestinal haemorrhage E. NULL 20- The following statements concerning imperforate anus are true except A. The rectum usually ends in a fistulous communication B. Imporforate anus affects males and females with equal frequency C. The rectum has descended to below the level of the levator ani muscles comple

x in most females D. The chance for eventual continence is greater when the rectum has descended t o below the levator ani muscles. E. Immediate defenitive repair is required to increase the chance of eventual co ntinance 21- Sixty six percent of pancreatic adenocarcinomas arise in the head of the pan creas. This tumor is characterized by which of the following statements? A. It is often demarcated from adjacent normal pancreas. B. It has a spongy papillary consistency . C. It usually arises from, acinar epithelium . D. It often spares adjacent islet tissue . E. It is associated with pancreatitis in approximately 70 percent of affected pa tients 22- Involvement of the stomach by malignant lymphoma is suggested by which of th e following findings ? A. Invasion of the pylorus by tumor . B. transition zone from normal to abnormal epithelium. C. The microscopic presence of mucin in tumor cells . D. Giant rugal folds resembling cerebral convolutions . E. NULL 23- If biopsy of a sigmoid colon polyp reveals a reveals a villous a adenoma, th e surgeon should . A. Observe the patient and perform frequent slgmoidoscopy . B. Observe the patient and remove the lesion only if symptoms develop C. Perform, a left heroicolectomy . D. Perform a segmental resection to include the polyp . E. Perform a simple polypeotomy via the sigraoidoscope, 24- In traumatic rupture of small intestine from whatever cause A. 'It is liable to occur in the presence of irreducible inguinal hernia B. The mucosa prolapses in small perforations and tends partially to seal the re nt . C. Injury to the duodenojejunal junction is easly overlooked. D. The mesentry usually escapes injury . E. NULL 25- Intussusception is not related to : A. A submucous lipoma B. Swollen payer's patches . C. An inverted Meckel's diverticulum . D. A Littre's hernia . E. NULL 26- Treatment of choice in hirschsprung's disease is : A. Resection of aganglionic colon... B. Antibiotics C. Conservative treatment with intestinal deflation and IV fluids . D. Rectal dilatation E. None of these . 27- Liver metastases are : A. Umbilicated ., B. Confidently diagnosed by palpation at laparotomy C. Treated by enucleation . D. Associated with primary melanoma in the eye E. A cause of pyrexia 28- Mixed gallstones : A. Contain calcium . B. Can contain salmonella . C. Constitute the majority of gallstones . D. Can be faceted E. Contain bilirubin. 29- Partial rectal prolapse in enfants is best treated by :

A. Tierch operation ( circulage ) B. Linear cauterization of the mucosa C. Injection therapy . D. All of the above E. None of the above . 30- Hernia of Bockdalek is defined as : A. Hernia through the opening into the leser sac . B. Congienital umbilical hernia . C. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia through the pleuroperitonenl canal D. Hernia passing through the obturator for a men . E. Hernia through the ocsophageal hiatus of the diaphragm . 31- The most appropriate sentence as regarding congental mega colon is: A. Trans anal rectal biopsy confirms the diagnosis . B. Absence of submucosal and myenteric plexuses . C. Skip area is very common . D. All of the above . E. NULL 32- Patients with portal hypertension and with history of bleeding are treated b y A. High risk patients chronic injection sclerotherapy B. Good risk patients -porto-caval shunt . C. Patients with favourable anatomy (patent splenic vein,normal left renal vein) distal lineo-renallshunt . D. All of the above E. Non of the above . 33- Salivary duct calculi : A. Produce pain on eating . B. Are commonest in the parotid ducts C. Are a common cause of acute parotitis . D. Are associated with hypercalcaemic states. E. NULL 34- String sing of Kantor is seen in : A. Ulcerative colitis B. Mesenteric vascular occlusion C. Siginoid volvulus . D. Regional ileitis E. Carcinoma of the rectum 35- Hepatic tumors most amenable for cure by resection : A. Hepatoma B. Cholangioma . C. Cholangiohepatoma . D. Hepatoblastoma E. NULL 36- An exomphalos : A. Is a congenital defect of the urethra . B. Is a congenital defect of the anterior abdominal wall C. Is otherwise known as gastroschisis . D. Needs urgent surgical treatment . E. NULL 37- Which of the following types of polyps is most likly to be found in familial polyposis : A. Hyperplastic polyp B. Adenoma tous polyp C. Retention polyp D. Pseudopolyp E. NULL 38- A patient who has acute pancreatitis is least likely to have which of the fo llowing underlying disorders ? A. Hyperparathyroidism . B. Hypothyroidism

C. Alcoholism . D. Gallstones . E. Mumps . 39- Which of the following types of intestinal obstruction would warrant immedia te emergency surgery ? A. Strangulation . B. Colon obstruction . C. Closed loop obstruction . D. Late simple mechanical obstruction . E. NULL 40- The Bochdaleck diaphragmatic hernia is an important surgical emergency of th e neobron because it produces : A. Severe vomiting B. Marked respiratory distress C. Diarrhea D. All of these E. None of these 41- The most important diagnostic aid in the management of imperforate anas is A. Upper GI series B. X-ray of chest C. Colon series D. Plain x-ray of the abdomen with the infant in inverted position E. Upright scout film of the abdomen . 42- Most frequently encountered diverticulm of small intestine is : A. Meckel's diverticulum B. Duodenal diverticulum C. Jejunal diverticulum D. None of these E. All of these 43- The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize Is best assessed by: A. Size of primary tumour . B. Circumference affection C. Depth of penetration . D. Level above peritoneal refection . E. CEA levels . 44- Poor prognostic factors In colonic cancer include the following except : A. Intestinal obstruction . B. Circumferential bowel involvement C. Ulcerated primary lesion . D. Age over 70 years E. Fistula formation . 45- Which of the following causes adynamic intestinal obstruction (paralytic , i leus ) A. Bezoars . B. Annular pancrease C. Peritonitis . D. Volvulus E. Intussusception . 46- Gastrochisis all true except A. Defect lateral to the umbilicus . B. The gut is oedema to us . C. No protective covering layers D. Usually associated with, congental anomalies . E. NULL 47- Orchiopexy better to be done at the age of : A. Below 1 year . B. 2 years C. 2-4 years D. After 6 years E. NULL

48- Benign Mixed parotid tumour treatment by A. Simple excision B. Radical excision C. Superficial conservative parotidectomy D. Simple excision & postoperative irradiation E. NULL 49- Carcinoma of the pancreas . A. Occurs mostly in the head of the gland . B. Is associated with a distended gall bladder . C. Can cause the passage of 'aluminium1 stools . D. Is not related to diabetes . E. Causes mucoviscidosis 50-Complete prolapse of the rectum : A. Is common in children B. Is virtually an intussusception of the return upon itself, but there is no in tussuscepiens . C. When large may contain a pouch of peritoneum containing small intestine , D. Can be distinguished from rectosigmoid intussusception . E. Is best excised . 51- Traumatic bile duct strictures A. Usually at the level of common hepatic duct B. Commonly at the level of common bile duct C. Treated by oholecystectomy D. All of the above E. None of the above . 52- A subphrenic abscess A. Is uaually accompanied by considerable systemic effects. B. Is associated with local rib tenderness C. Rarely produces abnormal signs in the chest D. NULL E. NULL 53- An anal fistula s A. Is usually a congenital condition B. Often presents with pruritis C. Can be successfully treated with a low residue diet D. NULL E. NULL 54- Strictures of the common bile duct : A. Are usually due to operative trauma . B. Are related to ignorance of the anatomical anomalies of the bile ducts C. Can be due to sclerosing cholangitis D. Present immediately after operation with jaundice . E. Can be repaired over a T-tube 55- Regarding fistula-in-ano : A. A high intersphincteric anal fistula runs between the internal and external sphincters along the plane of the longitudinal muscle fibres . B. A high interephincteric fistula is treated by dividing the external sphin cter . C. A high transphincteric fistula should be treated by laying the track open D. A low level fistula will respond to and heal under the influence of antibio tics . E. A protective colostomy may be required in the treatment of a high lev el fistula 56- Regarding an anastomotic ulcer following operations for duodenal ulcer : A. It is most likely after a Polya gastrectomy . B. It is usually in the mesenteric side of the jejunum . C. A piece of suture material from the previous operation is frequently found i n its base D. The pain it causes is usually felt in the right hypochondrium and travels d

own the right side of the abdomen E. The pain is not relieved by antacids or milk . 57- Hematologic indications for elective splenectomy include all, Except A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Sickle cell anemin. C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency . E. Felty's syndrome . 58- Congenital hemolytic anaemia is characterized by all Except A. Anemia . B. Pruritus C. Jaundice D. Spherocytosis . E. Absence of bile in the urine 59- The undesirable effects of vagotomy include A. Diarrhoea . B. Loss of gastric motility producing distensions . C. Gastric ulceration D. Iron-deficiency anaemia E. NULL 60- In acute pancreatitis all of these are correct Except : A. Is commonly associated with the presence of gallstones. B. Has a high incidence in alcoholics . C. Produces exaggerated bowel sounds D. May have a viral origin . E. May be complicated by renal failure . 61- In left sided colonic cancer all following presentations are correct except : A. Anaemia B. Intestinal obstruction . C. NULL D. Abdominal pain . E. Spurious diarrhea . 62- In patients with obstructive jaundice all there investigations are used Exce pt : A. Abdominal ultrasoncgraphy . B. E.R.C P. C. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography . D. Intravenous chalangiogrnphy . E. Axial CT scan of the abdomen . 63- What is the most common cause of massive bleeding per rectum : A. Diverticulonis B. Carcinoma of colon . C. Amaebic of colon D. Corhons colitis E. Bilhazial colitis 64- Considering the pathogonesis of Hirsch sprung's disease, the most accepted t heory is : A. Congenital absence of nerve fibres . B. Congenital absence of nerve cells C. Acquired degeneration of the neural axis of the colon and rectum . D. Viral infection of the neuroinusculer end plate E. None of the above . 65- Regarding the blind loop syndrome A. Its effects are due to bacterial fouling of the intestinal pathway , B. A high loop tends to produce anaemia . C. A low loop tends to produce steatorrhoea . D. Cure follows the prolonged use of antibiotics . E. A gantrocolic fistula behaves as a blind loop syndrome 66- According to the type, tuberculous peritonitis

A. Can be confused with peritoneal carcinomatosis . B. Cause congenital hydrocoeles to appear . C. Can be confused with on overian cyst . D. If causing obstruction should be treated by anastomosis between an obviously dilated loop end a collapsed loop of intestine . E. Can present as a cold abscess near the umbilicus . 67-Para-esophagoal hiatus hernia is clinically charactized by all of the followi ngs Except : A. Dysphagia B. Heart bum C. Dyspnoea D. Arrhythmia . E. Anaemia 68- What has been found to be an acceptable screening technique for recurrent colon cancer A. Screeing sigmoidoscopy B. Ocoult blood in stool C. Measurement of carcinoorabryonic antigen . D. Colonoscony E. Laparoscopy 69- The most accepted surgical procedure used to treat a chronic pancreatic pseudocyst is A. Percutaneous drainage B. Internal drainrage to stomach (cystogastrostomy) C. Pancareatcotomy D. Execision of pceudocyst E. Exeision of tail of pancrease 70- Colomoscopy for patient reveals an Inflammatory process within the colon wit h skip areas, the rectum is spared, The most likely diagnosis is : A. Ischaemic colitis B. b. Chron's disease . C. b. Arnebic dysentry D. d. Ulcerative colitis E. e. Toxic megacolon 71- Esophageal perforation is most likely to be caused by : A. Treauma B. Foreign bodies C. Instrumentation D. Prolonged vomiting E. None of the above 72- Which of the fallowing gastric operations is most likely to lead a recurrent ulcer ? A. Castroenterstomy B. Partial resection ( 70 percent ) C. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty D. Vagotomy and Billrith 11 E. NULL 73- The most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum in adults is A. Perforation . B. Bleeding C. Obstruction D. Caroinoma E. None of the above 74- Actinomycosis is a rare infection caused by the organism Actinomyces israeli i . The abdominal site that is most likely to be involved by this disease is th e A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Call bladder D. Caecum

E. liver 75- Which of the following types of carcinoma is the most common malignancy of t he anus ? A. Melanoma B. Cloacogenic transitional cell carcinoma C. Epiderraoid (squamous) cell carcinoma . D. Leiomyosarcoma E. Lymphoma . 76. Mucoviscidosis of the pancreas A. is acquired. B. only affects that organ. C. causes gallstone ileus. D. affects the sweat glands. E. begins in adult life. 77. Features characteristic of oesophageal atresia include A. a newborn baby regurgitating all its first feed. B. abdominal distension. C. saliva pouring almost continuously from the mouth. D. attacks of coughing on feeding. E. cleft palate. 78. Of the surgical procedures listed below, all are useful in the management o f non-Hodgkin's lymphomas EXCEPT A. exploratory celiotomy for staging B. splenectomy for localized splenic involvement C. resection of small intestinal lesions D. excisional lymph node biopsy E. total gastrectomy for lesions localized to the stomach 79. Carcinoma of the stomach A. is a squamous cell tumour. B. gives a negative test for occult blood. C. causes a lowered sedimentation rate. D. is associated with achlorhydria or hypochlorhydria. E. begins as a benign gastric ulcer characteristically. 80. No Question A. NULL B. NULL C. NULL D. NULL E. NULL 81. No Question A. NULL B. NULL C. NULL D. NULL E. NULL 82. The clinical features of a mesenteric cyst include A. a painless abdominal swelling. B. recurrent attacks of abdominal pain. C. mobility in the long axis of the mesentery. D. presentation as an acute abdomen. E. expansile pulsation. 83. Internal piles A. contain veins, arteries and nerves. B. are often symptomatic of portal hypertension. C. are principally three in number located at 1, 5 and 7 o'clock withthe pa tient in the lithotomy position. D. are the cause of proctalgia fugax. E. are called second degree when they are permanently prolapsed. 84. The most common clinical presentation of idiopathic retro-peritoneal fibrosi s is

A. ureteral obstruction B. leg edema C. calf claudication D. jaundice E. intestinal obstruction 85. Which of the following is most likely to require surgical correction? A. Large sliding esophageal hiatal hernia B. Paraesophageal hiatal hernia C. Traction diverticulum of esophagus D. Schatzki's ring of distal esophagus E. Esophageal web 86. Which of the following organisms is most closely associated with gastric a nd duodenal ulcer disease? A. Campylobacter B. Cytomegalovirus C. Helicobacter D. Mycobacterium avium-intra-cellulare E. Yersinia enterocolitica 87. In planning the management of a 2.8-cm epidermoid carcinoma of the anus, th e first therapeutic approach should be A. abdominoperineal resection B. wide local resection with bilateral inguinal node dissection C. local radiation therapy D. systemic chemotherapy E. combined radiation therapy and chemotherapy 88. Which of the following statements concerning Hirsch-sprung's disease is true ? A. It is initially treated by colostomy B. It is best diagnosed in the newborn period by barium enema C. It is characterized by absence of ganglion cells in the transverse Colon D. It is associated with high incidence of genitourinary tract Anomalies E. It is the congenital disease that most commonly leads to subsequent fecal inc ontinence 89. Infants with anorectal anomalies tend to have other congenital anomalies. Associated abnormalities include all the following EXCEPT A. fistulas to the perineum or vagina B. fistulas to the urinary tract C. esophageal atresia D. heart disease E. corneal opacities 90. In determining the proper treatment for a sliding hiatal hernia, the most us eful step would be A. barium swallow with cine-fluoroscopy during Valsalva maneuver B. flexible endoscopy C. 24-h monitoring of esophageal pH D. measuring the size of the her-nia E. assessing the patient's smoking and drinking history 91. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is relatively contraindicated in each of the fo llowing EXCEPT A. cirrhosis B. prior upper abdominal surgery C. suspected carcinoma of the gallbladder D. morbid obesity E. coagulopathy 92. A previously healthy 9-year-old child comes to the emergency room because of fulminant upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The hemorrhage is most likely to be the result of A. esophageal varices B. the Mallory-Weiss syndrome

C. gastritis D. a gastric ulcer E. a duodenal ulcer 93. Operative planning and pre-operative counseling for a patient with a recta l carcinoma can be best provided if the patient is staged before surgery by A. rigid proctoscopy B. barium enema C. MRI of the pelvis D. CT scanning of the pelvis E. rectal endosonography 94. For a symptomatic partial duodenal obstruction secondary to an annular pancr eas, the operative treatment of choice is A. a Whipple procedure B. gastrojejunostomy C. vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy D. partial resection of the annular pancreas E. duodenojejunostomy 95. Evidence that a splenectomy might benefit a patient with immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) includes A. a significant enlargement of the spleen B. a high reticulocyte count C. megakaryocytic elements in the bone marrow D. an increase in the platelet count on cortisone therapy E. patient's age less than 5 96. The following statements concerning imperforate anus true EXCEPT that A. imperforate anus affects males and females with equal frequency B. the rectum has descended to below the level of the levator ani muscle complex in most females C. the rectum usually ends in a fistulous communication D. the chance for eventual continence is greater when the rectum has descended t o below the levator ani muscles E. immediate definitive repair of the anatomical defect is required to maximize the chance of eventual continence 97. What is the most common serious complication of an end colostomy? A. Bleeding B. Skin breakdown C. Parastomal hernia D. Colonic perforation during irrigation E. Stomal prolapse 98. All the following statements regarding pancreatic carcinoma are true EXCEPT A. the majority of cases present with jaundice alone B. the overall rate of resectability for potential cure is 5 to 10 percent C. if a patient is jaundiced, the resectability rate is 10 to 25 percent D. 99 percent of patients with pancreatic cancer have meta-static disease at the time of diagnosis E. the 5-year survival rate after a Whipple procedure (pancre-aticoduodenectomy) performed for cure is 5 to 20 percent 99. Regarding regional enteritis, all the following are true statements EXCEPT t hat A. regional enteritis may involve any segment of the GI tract B. the most frequent site of involvement is the terminal ileum C. massive hemorrhage per rectum is common D. adenocarcinoma of the small bowel associated with the disease has a poor prog nosis E. the actual cause of the disease is unknown 100. True statements regarding stress ulceration include A. it is true ulceration, extending into and through the muscularis mucosa B. it classically involves the an-trum C. increased secretion of gastric acid has been shown to play a causative r ole

D. it frequently involves multiple sites E. NULL 101. A patient who has a total pancreatectomy might be expected to develop which of the following complications? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Iron deficiency C. Malabsorption D. Hypophosphatemia E. NULL 102. Correct statements regarding rectal carcinoid tumors include A. endoscopic resection is sufficient for tumors smaller than 2 cm B. patients frequently present with the carcinoid syndrome they are rapidly growing tumors C. local recurrence is rare with complete resection of the primary lesion D. NULL E. NULL 103. Indications for operation in Crohn's disease include all the following EXCE PT A. intestinal obstruction B. enterovesical fistula C. ileum-ascending colon fistula D. enterovaginal fistula E. free perforation 104. Diverticular disease characteristically is A. restricted to the sigmoid colon. B. associated with gastric ulceration. C. related to the sites where blood vessels penetrate the bowel wall. D. precancerous. E. essentially congenital in origin. 105. Carcinoma of the colon characteristically A. spreads to inguinal lymph nodes. B. is transitional celled. C. presents early when on the right side. D. is markedly radiosensitive. E. causes anaemia. 106. Volvulus of the sigmoid colon A. only affects infants. B. is not a cause of strangulation. C. characteristically follows volvulus of the stomach. D. is unknown in India. E. causes abdominal distension. 107. Intussusception is related to A. mucoviscidosis. B. swollen Peyer's patches. C. intestinal volvulus. D. a Richter's hernia. E. a patent vitello intestinal duct. 108. Characteristically in acute appendicitis A. the tongue is clean. B. rigidity can be absent if the appendix is pelvic in position. C. vomiting always precedes pain. D. the pain begins in the RIF. E. conservative treatment is the rule. 109. A chronic gastric ulcer is A. more common in men than women. B. not associated with smoking. C. characteristically associated with hypertrophic gastritis. D. situated on the greater curvature of the stomach. E. cause of hour-glass stomach. 110. A gastrocolic fistula characteristically

A. presents by the vomiting of faeces. B. is a cause of steatorrhoea. C. does not involve the function of the small intestine. D. causes all the gastric contents to pass directly into the colon. E. is caused by gallstones. 111. Grey-Turner sign in acute pancreatitis is a A. discolouration in the loins. B. shifting dullness over the spleen. C. discolouration around the umbilicus. D. fluid level seen on x-ray in the first loop of the jejunum E. soreness of the skin beside the vertebral border of the right scapula 112. The word haemobilia means A. bilharzia in the blood. B. blood and bile in the peritoneal cavity. C. blood in the bile duct. D. bile fistula into the hepatic venous system. E. a haemorrhagic diathesis. 113. Mixed gallstones characteristically contain A. urates. B. triple phosphates. C. cholesterol. D. oxalate. E. citrates. 114. Meckel's diverticulum A. is present in 20% of the human race. B. arises from the mesenteric border of the jejunum. C. may contain heterotopic pancreas. D. is only present in the male sex. E. is a diverticulum of the bladder. 115. Cardiospasm is associated with A. oesophageal webs. B. coronary artery spasm. C. presbyoesophagus. D. hiatus hernia. E. Chagas' disease. 116. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the A. coeliac axis. B. hepatic artery. C. superior mesenteric artery. D. gastroepiploic artery. E. splenic artery. 117. The foramen of Bochdalek occurs in A. the base of the skull. B. the heart. C. the diaphragm. D. the pelvis. E. the brain. 118. The followings are symptoms of acute appendicitis except: A. Shifting pain. B. Nausea. C. Repeated vomiting. D. Anorexia. E. NULL 119- The commonest lie of the appendix is A. Paracaecal B. Retrocaecal C. Pelvic D. Subcaecal E. NULL 120. The commonest age for acute appendicitis is

A. Infants. B. Children. C. Teens & early twinties D. Old age. E. NULL 121. one of the followings is not a sign of acute appendicitis : A. Muscle guarding in the right iliac fossa. B. Psoas spasm C. Pain in the right iliac fossa . D. Rebound tenderness. E. NULL 122- All of the followings are correct for MecKle's diverticul A. Anomaly of the vilello- intestinal duct B. Colonic. C. Content of Littre's hernia. D. Bleeding per rectum. E. NULL