MODULE WEEK SEMESTER YEAR

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INFECTION AND IMMUNITY 3 (23-27 OCT 2011) 3 2 (2011-2012)

1. Which of the following is the non specific primary prevention except? A. Nutritional intervention B. Immunization C. Health education D. Environmental sanitation 2. What is the meaning of secondary prevention? A. Actions taken prior to the onset of disease B. Action which hinder the progress of disease at early stage. C. Action taken after the onset of disease D. Action taken to control the causation of disease 3. What is the term for is the application of disinfective measures as soon as possible after the discharge of infectious material from the body of an infected person? A. Sterilization B. Terminal disinfection C. Concurrent disinfection D. Cleaning 4. Arrange the measures applied to cases of communicable disease? i)isolation of the patient ii)reporting iii)case finding and early detection iv)treatment A. iii,ii,i,iv B. iii,ii,iv,i C. ii,iii,iv,i D. i,ii,iii,iv 5. How long the best period to observe the contacts of communicable disease? A. Shortest incubation period B. Longest incubation period C. Forever D. Until the communicable disease disappear

6. Which of the following is FALSE regarding virus? A. It is a parasite at genetic level B. Required energy,protein synthesis machine & building blocks for synthesis of viral protein & nucleic acids C. Its interaction with cell may end in either lytic,steady state or latent state of cell D. Virus not depend on susceptible cell to become metabolically active

7. Choose the CORRECT pair regarding virus growth cycle I. Uncoating > adsorption>penetration>eclipse phase>assembly>release II. Eclipse phase is the phase of transcription & translation of viral genome III. The penetration of virus into susceptible host depend on its structure either envelope or not IV. Uncoating involve the separation of virus envelope away from its virion A. B. C. D. I,II II,III III,IV I,III

8. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bacteriophage? A. Used in prophylaxis and treatment of bacterial infections B. It may exist inside the host as mature phage and developed either to vegetative or prophage C. The DNA phage is chemically & physically different from bacteria it infects D. Tail consists of hollow core, contractile sheath, terminal base-plate attached to prongs, fibers or both. 9. Choose the correct pair regarding bacteriophage replication I. The tail act as the adsorption organ II. The viruss DNA is injected into bacteria after the action of gyrase present on base plate III. The action of the gyrase result in lysis of the bacteria IV. Eclipse phase involve the translation & transcription of viral genome A. I,II B. II,III C. III,IV D. I,IV 10. Which is true regarding effect of lysogeny on genome bacteria cell? A. Lysogenic conversion will result in production of toxin by staphylococcus B. Transducing phages may contain RNA strand and DNA strand C. New property in bacteria found in bacterias genome D. The transduction process deal with the phage genome 11. Which of the following is true about the properties of interferon? A. Stimulus specific in function B. Divided into two groups that is IFN- and IFN- C. Host species specific in function D. None of the above

12. All of the following are true about interferon EXCEPT A. It is a host-coded protein that inhibit viral replication B. Have immunomodulatory effects C. A member of the large cytokine family D. It is believed to be the body's third line of defense against viral infection 13. Which of the following can be used to describe the synthesis of interferon? A. Produced by cells of all vertebrate species in response to stimuli B. Viral infection is a potent inducer for interferon synthesis C. Its synthesis can also be induced by synthetic double stranded dna ,bacterial endotoxin, and mitogen D. All of the above 14. All of the following are the cell regulatory activity of interferon EXCEPT A. Inhibition of viral replication B. Inhibition of cell growth C. Increased expression of histocompatibility antigens D. Activation of cytotoxic cells 15. All of the following are true about the clinical use of interferon EXCEPT A. Chronic hepatitis C B. Acute hepatitis B C. Treatment of multiple sclerosis D. Used as anti-cancer agent 16. The role of acyclovir triphosphate A. Activate viral DNA synthesis B. Inhibit viral RNA synthesis C. Inhibit nucleoside reverse tansciptase D. Inhibit viral DNA synthesis 17. All of the following are the adverse effects of acyclovir except: A. Bone marrow suppression B. Neurotoxicities C. Nephropathy D. GIT disturbance 18. Which of the following can be used to treat cytomegalovirus infections? A. Acyclovir B. Valacyclovir C. Gancyclovir D. Valgancyclovir 19. Forcarnet is given to the patient that resistant to: A. Acyclovir B. Gancyclovir C. Valacyclovir D. Valgancyclovir

20. Acyclovir is converted to triphosphate compound by virus-specified thymidine kinase (VTK) to be activated showing the selective toxicity of acyclovir. A. True B. False 21. All of the followings are medical importance of fungi EXCEPT : (page 32) A. Antifungal B. Ergot C. Toxins D. Mycoses 22. Which of the following are pre disposing factor that leads to mycoses : (lecture) I. Prolonged treatment of antibiotics II. Concurrent disease as malignancy III. Debilitating condition of host such as diabetic IV. Transient treatment of corticosteroids A. I and II B. II and III C. I,II and III D. I,II,III and IV 23. Aflatoxin are : (page 32) I. Active in inducing uterine contractions and controllong bleeding II. Powerful toxin that produced by Aspergillusflavus III. It can induce hallucination IV. Generally incriminated in liver malignancy A. II and IV B. II and III C. I, II and III D. II, III and IV 24. Which of the following are TRUE about morphological classification of fungi : (page 33) A. Filamentous fungi short branching hyphae B. Yeasts example of this fungi is Candida C. Dimorphic fungi typical yeast morphology when grown at room temperature D. Yeast-like fungi form of budding yeast-like cells and as chains of elongated unbrancehd filamentous cells 25. Fungi that never produces filaments is : (lecture ) A. Yeasts B. Yeast-like fungi C. Filamentous fungi D. Dimorphic fungi

26. Which of following specific or obligatory mysiasis causing fly larvae do not cause furuncularmyiasis? IIIIIIIVVA. B. C. D. Dermatobia Cordylobiaanthropophaga Wohlfartia and Oestrus CochliomyiaChrysmyia Hypoderma

I and II I, II and IV I, III and V III, IV and V

27. All of the following is true about internal myiasis EXCEPT: A. intestinal myiasis can be diagnosed from dead larvae that may appear in stools or vomitus B. larvae of Eristalis fly is commonly called rat-tailed larva because of its long posterior tail like process C. in urogenital myiasis, higher diptera cause obstruction to urinary flows if their eggs are in urinary tract D. intestinal myiasis is facilitated by lowered gastric acidity

28. Screw worm that invade wounds and ulcers can cause A. B. C. D. furuncular swellings traumatic cutaneous myiasis creeping eruption conjunctivitis

29. All of following is incorrect about myiasis according to biological habit of fly EXCEPT: A. in accidental myiasis, fly eggs or larvae that are deposited on food material can accidentally ingested leading to gastric myiasis B. presence of facultative myiasis causing larvae prevent healing of the affected site C. in the ear, Wolhfartia and Oestrus can cause internal otitis D. eggs of chrysmyia on mosquito abdomen hatch into larvae when it is stimulated by the warmth of human

30. Which of all of following related to diagnosis and treatment of myiasis ? I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D. Pattern of larvae posterior spiracles are characteristic for each of different group of flies Surgical removal of larvae then treating the lesion Treatment of furuncularmyiasis by stimulating the larva to leave the wound with Vaseline application Irrigation of the area with 5- 10 % chloroform in animal oil I, II, and III I, III, and IV II, III and IV I, II, III and IV

31. The following are INCORRECT regarding anti-influenza virus agent EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. H1N1 and H1N5 strains are treated and prevented by amantadine and rimantidine drugs Zanamivir is given orally while oseltamivir is given through inhalation Cross resistance will not develop between oseltamivir and zanamivir Oseltamivir and zanamivir have the same target and the same site of action

32. Choose the correct adverse effect with its anti-viral drug? I.Bronchospasm-Zanamivir II.Bone marrow suppression-Oseltamivir III.Neurotoxicity-Interferon IV.Hemolytic anemia-Ribavirin A. B. C. D. I,II and III ONLY II and IV ONLY I,III, and IV ONLY IV ONLY

33. The following are patients that are NOT suitable for intake of Interferon EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Pregnant female with hepatitis B Hepatitis C patient with kidney failure Hepatitis C patient with rheumatoid arthritis Patient with chronic hepatitis B Patient after heart transplantation

34. Choose the correct statement from the following: I. II. III. IV. A. B. C. D. HCV can be eliminated through treatment with standard or pegylated interferon alpha Main side effect of Lamivudine is pancreatitis HBV infection can be eradicated through anti-hepatitis drugs Unmodified interferon alpha must be injected only once a week I ONLY I and II ONLY I, II and III ONLY All of the above

35. The following are main factors that affect the response to IFN infection EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. The viral load The viral phenotype The duration of the disease The hepatic iron concentration

36. Choice of the method of decontamination depends on all the following except: A. B. C. D. Nature of object to be decontaminated Objects tolerance to the process of decontamination Destroys all vegetative bacteria including tubercle bacilli Objects microbial load

37. What is the meaning of disinfection? A. B. C. D. Process by which organisms are removed or destroyed in order to render an object safe Freeing of an article from some or all of its contaminating microorganisms except spores Kill microorganisms by causing a destructive oxidation of essential cell constituents Process which achieves the complete destruction or killing of all microorganism including spores

38. All the following are true regarding cleaning except: A. B. C. D. Essential step before successful disinfection and sterilization Suitable method for decontamination of environmental surfaces Visible dirt or organic matter are mechanically removed Rinsing laundry or eating utensil in water at 70-80Cfor few minutes

39. Choose the false statement regarding tyndallization process: A. B. C. D. Exposure to boiling water for 20 minutes achieves high level disinfection Spores that survive the initial heating will germinate in the medium in room temperature Useful method of sterilization of laboratory media containing sugar or gelatin Vegetative forms will be killed on the second day when medium is reheated

40. All the following are true regarding sterilization by moist heat except: A. B. C. D. Requires temperatures above that of boiling water Raising the pressure to double atmosphere increases the temperature to 150C Autoclave is used in all operating theatres for sterilization of high risk (critical items) Kills microorganisms by coagulating and denaturing their enzymes and structural proteins

41. Component of antigen can be the following EXCEPT A. pure lipids B. protein C. polysaccharide D. lipopolysaccharide 42. ALL the following are iso-antigens EXCEPT A. B. C. D. blood group antigens Rh factors MHC H antigens Superantigens are mostly of bacterial origin. 43. Which of the following is WRONG? I- Staphylococcal exotoxin II- Staphylococcal pyrogenic exotoxin III- Exfoliative dermatitis toxin IV- Toxic shock syndrome endotoxin A. I, II, III B. III, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, IV Antibodies are immunoglobulins formed in response to antigens and they react specifically with them.

44. Which of the following immunoglobulins fixes the complement? I- IgG II- IgM III- IgE IV- IgA A. B. C. D. I, II I, II, III II, III All of the above

Hybridoma cell has the ability to produce unlimited quantities of highly specific monoclonal antibodies. 45. Why myeloma cells (malignant plasma cells) are chose to produce hybridoma cells? A. B. C. D. those poses broken cell division cycle myeloma cells have unique enzymes that accelerate antibodies production genetic coding for antibodies found in myeloma cells only malignant plasma cells can produce antibodies in our body

46. Statements below are all true regarding the importance of MHC EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. paternity testing MHC Restriction in T helper cells recognizing the Ag in association with MHC I MHC Restriction in APC cells recognizing the Ag in association with MHC I Disease association

47. Choose the correct characteristic of MHC class-1:I- Found on all nucleated cells II- They include HLA-DP, DQ , DR for classical types III- It can be determined by serological tests IV- They include HLA-G, E for non classical types A. B. C. D. I , II, III II, III, IV I , III, IV All of the above

48. Statements below are all about Complement system EXCEPT:I- A complex group of serum proteins only II- Only being synthetised by hepatic parenchymal cells, monocytes and intestinal epithelium III- It is a system that help in completing the immune system of the body IV- Alternative pathway is the natural immunity of the body A. B. C. D. II , III I, II III, IV I, IV

It is a certain components of complement system that can produce degranulation of an inflammatory cell that causes increased in vascular permeability 49. The statement above refers to : A. B. C. D. anaphylatoxins chemotaxis cell lysis opsonization

50. This substance are believed to be one of the major causes of graft rejecting. What is this substance? A. B. C. D. immunoglobulin M Short arm of chromosome 6 serum proteins human leukocytic antigens HLA

ANSWERS: <QUESTION NUMBER><PAGE REFERENCE> Eg: B 27-8 (Answer B, page 27 and 28) 1.B 74 2.B 74 3.C 75 4.A 76 5.B 77 6.D 27 7.B 27-8 8.B 29 9.D 30 10.A 31 11. C 150 12. C 150 13. D 150 14. A 151 15. B 151-2 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. D 59-60 27. C 59 28. B 59 29. B 60 30. A 61 31. C 153 32. C 153 33. D 155 34. B 153-4 35. B 154-5 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. B 41. A 89 42. D 89 43. C 90 44. A 90-1 45. B 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D

Be nice to nerds. Chances are you'll end up working for one. Bill Gates