Q.1. The mean sun: A) Moves with constant speed along the celestial equator.

B) Is only of interest to users of astronomical navigation. C) Is the middle position of the sun. D) Has a declination equal to the apparent sun. Q.2. Fuel flow is 22 USG per hour. With 83 Imperial gallons available what is the endurance of the aircraft? A) 3 hrs 51 mins. B) 3 hrs 46 mins. C) 8 hrs 20 mins. D) 4 hrs 31 mins. Q.3. When turning right from 330 (C) to 040 (C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will: A) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. B) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect. C) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect. D) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect. Q.4. .An aircraft at position 2700N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180T, then 3000 km on a track of 090T, then 3000 km on a track of 000T, then 3000 km on a track of 270T. What is its final position? A) 2700N 14300W. B) 2700N 17000W. C) 0000N/S 17000W. D) 2700N 17318W. Q.5. As you move from a lower to a higher southern magnetic latitude, the characteristics of the terrestrial magnetic field will change: A) the horizontal component of the field will increase and the inclination will decrease. B) the inclination will increase and the vertical component of the field will increase. C) the magnetic lines of force will spread further apart. D) the magnetic meridian will become more and more vertical. Q.6. . A straight line is drawn on a North Polar Stereographic chart joining Point A (7000N 06000W) to Point B (7000N 06000E). What is the initial track direction (going eastwards) of the line at A? A) 090 T B) 030 T C) 330 T D) 120 T

Q.7. An aircraft travels from point A to point B , using the Autopilot connected to the aircrafts INS. The co-ordinates of A ( 65 S 010 W ) and B ( 65 S 020 W ) have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree is ? a) 275 b) 286 c) 265 d) 270 Q.8. What type of Projection is normally used for charts used for navigation in North and South Polar regions ? a) Lamberts Conformal b) Polar Stereographical projection c) Direct Mercator d) Oblique Mercator

Q.9. Calculate the dlat from N 001 15 E090 00 to S090 00: A) 88 45N B) 91 15S C) 268 15N D) 91 15N Q.10. Which map projection is described as follows: - Meridians are straight lines - The scale vary with latitude - Most rhumb lines are curved lines: A) An Equatorial Mercator projection. B) A polar Stereographic projection. C) A Lambert conformal or a Polar stereographic projection. D) A Lambert conformal projection. Q.11. The North and South Magnetic poles are the only positions on the earths surface where ? a) The Value of Magnetic Variation equals 90 degrees b) A Freely Suspended Compass needle will stand vertical c) Isogonals Converge d) A Freely Suspended compass needle will stand horizontal

Q.12. A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels: A) shows all great circles as straight lines. B) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin. C) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels. D) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines. Q.13. Sun rise at 50 N 072 E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will the sun rise at 50 N 007 E on that day? A) 0514 UTC B) 0254 UTC C) 0714 UTC D) 2154 UTC Q.14. If an IRS fails in flight it can provide: A) navigation information but not attitude information. B) attitude and navigation information. C) attitude information only. D) attitude and heading information Q.15. Distance A to B is 2346 NMs . GS out 365 Kts, GS back 480 Kts. The time from A to PET between A and B is ? a) 167 NMs b) 219 NMs c) 290 NMs d) 197 NMs

Q.16. In which two months is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and the Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest ? a) February & November b) March & July c) June & December d) January & August

Q.17. The total length of the 45 N parallel on a Direct Mercator chart is 200 cms. What is the approximate Scale of the chart at 60 N ? a) 1 : 26050000 b) 1 : 10000000 c) 1 : 125000 d) 1 : 6000000 Q.18. Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. What is the approximate rate of descent? A) 700 FT/MIN. B) 300 FT/MIN. C) 350 FT/MIN. D) 875 FT/MIN. Q.19. Which of the following regarding DME is correct ? a) DME can receive TACAN ranges without Modification b) DME can give ranges upto 200 aircraft at a time c) Simultaneous DME ranges from two stations give a Unique fix d) DME station sends a signal 36 MHz different from Interrogator

Q.20. Which frequency would be most suitable for MLS station ? a) 50.59 MHz b) 505.9 MHz c) 5059 MHz d) 5.059 MHz Q.21. On which displays will the range markers be displayed regardless of the weather selection? A) EXP ILSIVOR, MAP & CTR MAP B) MAP C) PLAN, EXP ILSNOR, MAP & CTR MAP D) MAP & CTR MAP

Q.22. What indication would a pilot see on his ACAS II display if an aircraft was assessed as requiring advisory action ? a) A White Square b) A Blue Diamond c) A Yellow Circle d) A Red Square

Q.23. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is: A) +/-1 nm. B) +/-1 deg. C) +/-5 deg. D) +/-5 nm. Q.24. Deviation compensation in a flux gate compass is done: A) Mechanically B) Both mechanically and electronically C) By the pilot D) Electronically Q.25. A turn and balance indicator uses a: A) Tied gyro B) Space gyro C) Rate gyro D) Earth gyro Q.26. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon: A) too much nose up and bank correct. B) too much nose up and bank to high. C) too much nose up and bank to low. D) attitude and bank are correct.

Q.27. A Direct Reading Magnetic Compass can be affected by

a) Hard Iron b) Mild Iron c) Soft iron d) Northerly Acclerations Q.28. If the Choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked a) The VSI indications will be too high when climbing b) The VSI indications will be too low when descending c) The VSI indication will be too high at all the times d) The VSI indications will be too high when climbing or descending Q.29. What would give Maximum Glide Range in a Headwind ? a) Flying faster than Vmd b) Flying Slower than Vmp c) Flying Slower than Vmd d) Flying Faster than Vmd Q.30. The fineness ratio of an airfoil is: A) thickness / span ratio. B) mean camber chord ratio / thickness ratio. C) thickness / chord ratio. D) mean chord / thickness ratio. Q.31. A Yaw Damper ? a) Improves Lateral Stability b) Prevents Spiral instability c) Is useful at low speeds only d) Is not necessary in swept wing aircraft Q.32. What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps? A) Krueger flaps form a slot, Slats do not. B) Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not. C) Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not. D) Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not.

Q.33. What will be the effect f Increasing altitude on the TAS at which an aircraft will stall assuming weight and load factor remain unchanged ? a) Increases b) Remains Unchanged provided speed doesnt approach Mcrit c) Remains unchanged regardless of actual speed d) Decreases Q.34. The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by: A) (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim. B) (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position. C) (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position. D) (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim. Q.35. If the Stalling speed in a 3g pull up is 100 Kts, what is the maximum bank angle in a level flight at 100 Kts ? a) 50.5 b) 60.5 c) 70.5 d) 80.5 Q.36. The propeller noise can be minimised by: A) Increase number of blades. B) Reduce the propeller area. C) Decrease the angle of attack of the propeller D) Reduce the RPM of the engine. Q.37. How does Maximum ROC of a Jet engine vary with increasing airspeed ? a) Decreases b) Increases upto Vmp then decreases c) Remains Constant d) Increases upto 1.3Vmd then decreases Q.38. For a Constant IAS descent , gradient must

a) Decrease b) Increase c) Increase then Decrease d) Remain Constant Q.39. During straight descent, lift is equal to: A) thrust. B) weight. C) W x sin(climb angle). D) W x cos(climb angle). Q.40. When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will: A) increase. B) stay constant. C) decrease. D) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. Q.41. The Rudder trim wheel & the rudder bar ? a) Operate in opposite directions b) Operate in the same direction c) Operate together d) Can not be operated together Q.42. If a Generator Ammeter is indicating 14 Amperes ? a) Battery is Dead b) Battery is Charging c) Generator is Offline d) Generator is Online

Q.43. If the generator RPM decreases ?

a) Resistance will decrease b) Inductive Reactance will increase c) Capacitance Reactance will increase d) Reactance will increase Q.44. Supplemental Oxygen is ? a) Used following Cabin Depressurisation at high altitudes b) Used by Flight Deck Crew only c) Used only by Cabin Staff to move about Cabin when it is filed smoke d) Used by Unwell passengers only Q.45. Power for Landing gear is usually provided by a) HP Pneumatic Systems b) DC electrics c) AC electrics d) HP hydraulics Q.46. Hand pumps are usually fitted to aircraft systems to: A) Maintain the level of fluid in the reservoir. B) Provide a ground service facility and for emergency use. C) Allow the normal operation of in-flight services. D) Ensure that the gas charge in the accumulator remains at the correct value. Q.47. The main preoccupation in modern airline operations should be: A) safety. B) profit. C) maximum utilisation of resources. D) efficient utilisation of resources. Q.48. How can a pilot increase his tolerance to + Gz? A) Tighten shoulder harness. B) Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward. C) Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing. D) Take an upright seat position.

Q.49. Haemoglobin is manufactured mainly in the: A) liver. B) heart. C) capillaries. D) bone Marrow. Q.50. The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about: A) 32 cycles per minute. B) 4 cycles per minute. C) 16 cycles per minute. D) 72 cycles per minute. Q.51. A person experiences increased breathing rate. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A) a low level of water vapour in the lungs B) a high level of waste carbon dioxide in the lungs C) a high level of water vapour in the lungs D) a low level of waste carbon dioxide in the lungs Q.52. The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to: A) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded B) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded C) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes D) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating Q.53. Which of the following materials are often used in the hot section of a turbo-engine? A) cadmium and iron B) aluminum and steel C) nickel-alloys and cobalt-alloys D) bronze and silver Q.54. On a twin spool engine: A) the HP and LP compressors are operated by their respective HP and LP turbines B) the intermediate pressure turbine (IPT) drives the intermediate pressure compressor (IPC) C) the LP compressor is driven by the HP turbine D) the HP compressor is driven by the LP turbine

Q.55. Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer are caused by: A) deferential heating of the earths surface. B) insolation. C) change of air mass. D) advection. Q.56. Air at T = +16 and DP = +4 , is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side. If the leeward condensation level is observed to be 8,000 ft what will be the final temperature? A ) 18 B ) 20 C ) 22 D) 24 Q.57. Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground? A ) At the centre of a high pressure system B ) At the centre of a low pressure system C ) In the transition zone between two air masses D ) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months Q.58. When a rain shower approaches and passes an airfield, the following will happen: A) The temperature rises and dew point remains unchanged. B) The temperature drops and dew point rises. C) The temperature remains unchanged and dew point drops. D) The temperature rises and dew point drops. Q.59. The time at which the aircraft will commence the movement associated with Departure ? a) Estimated Departing time b) Estimated Taxi time c) Estimated Off Block time d) Estimated Movement time Q.60. The Seperation for departing aircrafts is as two aircrafts would have to have a) 2 Min Seperation if aircrafts are on 45 degrees diverging tracks b) 3 Min Seperation if aircraft ahead is faster by 40 Kts c) 5 Minutes Seperation if aircrafts have to follow the same route d) All the above are correct