Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

1. The most characteristic features of antiseptics: a) non-selective antimicrobial action b) selective antimicrobial action c) high toxicity d) low toxicity e) short latency period of their effect development f) long latency period of their effect development 2. Which of the antiseptics are aliphatic substances? a) nitrofural b) ethyl alcohol c) chloramine B d) solution of formaldehyde e) aethonium 3. Which of the antiseptics are stains? a) nitrofural b) aethacridinum lactate c) potassium permanganate d) methylene blue e) brilliant green f) silver nitrate 4. Which of the antiseptics are oxidants? a) alcohol solution of Iodine b) aethacridinum lactate c) hydrogen peroxide d) potassium permanganate e) chlorhexidine 5. Which of the antiseptics are chlorine-containing? a) nitrofural b) chloramine B c) potassium permanganate d) methylene blue e) chlorhexidine f) silver nitrate 6. Which of the antiseptics are detergents? a) roccal b) aethonium c) potassium permanganate d) methylene blue e) brilliant green f) hydrogen peroxide 7. The activity of antiseptics and disinfectants depends on: a) their concentration b) their exposure c) the presence of proteins in the focus of inflammation d) their ability to interact with skin and mucous receptors e) pH-value 8. Which of the antiseptics given below are used for washing surgeons hands? a) nitrofural b) ethyl alcohol c) silver nitrate d) alcohol solution of Iodine e) roccal f) permanganate of potassium 9. Which of the antiseptics are used for the treatment of stomatitis? a) solution of formaldehyde

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

b) ethyl alcohol c) solution of ammonia d) permanganate of potassium e) chlorhexidine f) nitrofural 10. Nitrofural has such properties as: a) irritant effect b) antibacterial effect c) stimulation of regeneration d) inhibition of regeneration e) inhibition of fungus growth 11. Acid-resistant penicillins are: a) phenoxymethylpenicillin b) benzylpenicillin c) bicillin-5 d) oxacillin e) benzathine benzylpenicillin 12. Name the penicillin drugs protected from -Lactamase action: a) benzylpenicillin b) ampicillin c) unasyn d) amoksiklav e) bicillin-5 13. Choose specific features of ampicillin: a) it has a broad spectrum of action b) it has a spectrum of action similar to benzylpenicillin c) it has a resistance to penicillinase d) it has not a resistance to penicillinase e) it isnt disintegrated in the stomach f) it is disintegrated in the stomach 14. What is typical for benzylpenicillin drugs? a) they have bactericidal action b) they have bacteriostatic action c) they have resistance to penicillinase d) they have not any resistance to penicillinase e) they are not disintegrated in the stomach f) they are disintegrated in the stomach g) they have a broad spectrum of action 15. Name the indications for administration of benzylpenicillin drugs: a) streptococcal sepsis b) gonorrhoea c) epidemic meningitis d) epidemic typhus e) gas gangrene f) anthrax (Siberian plague) 16. Name semisynthetic penicillins: a) benzylpenicillin-sodium b) carbenicillin c) phenoxymethylpenicillin d) ampicillin e) oxacillin f) benzathine benzylpenicillin 17. Name cephalosporins: a) cefotaxime b) erythromycin c) ceftriaxone

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

d) amikacin e) cefuroxime f) ciprofloxacin 18. What is typical for cephalosporins? a) they have bactericidal action b) they have bacteriostatic action c) they belong to -lactam antibiotics d) they have a limited spectrum of action e) they have high toxicity 19. Choose carbapenems among -lactam antibiotics: a) aztreonam b) amoxicillin c) azlocillin d) imipenem e) meropenem f) cefixime 20. Name aminoglycoside antibiotics: a) streptomycin b) oxacillin c) cefalexin d) gentamicin e) amikacin 21. Name aminoglycoside of the 3rd generation: a) amikacin b) streptomycin c) tobramycin d) gentamicin e) neomycin 22. Name typical adverse effects of aminoglycosides: a) nephrotoxicity b) ototoxicity (cochlear damage) c) hepatotoxicity d) vestibular damage e) neuromuscular block f) bone marrow depression (hematotoxicity) 23. In simultaneous administration of streptomycin and gentamicin the development of all listed below effects can be seen except: a) enhancement of antimicrobial action b) enhancement of ototoxicity c) enhancement of neuromuscular blockage action (curarelike action) d) enhancement of hepatotoxicity e) enhancement of nephrotoxicity 24. Which of the drugs are semisynthetic macrolides? a) erythromycin b) spiramycin c) josamycin d) azythromycin e) clarithromycin f) roxithromycin 25. Name typical features of macrolides: a) they have bacteriostatic action b) they have bactericidal action c) they have high toxicity d) they have low toxicity e) they impair protein synthesis in ribosomes of microorganisms f) they impair the formation of cellular wall of microorganisms

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

26. Azithromycin differs from erythromycin because: a) it is an aminoglycoside antibiotic b) it has a prolonged action c) it penetrates into host cells and acts on intracellular microorganisms d) it has a broader spectrum of action e) it has a poor absorptive ability from the gastrointestinal tract 27. Simultaneous administration of tetracycline and chloramphenicol can be responsible for: a) the weakening of antimicrobial effect b) the increase in bone marrow depression c) the weakening of hepatotoxicity d) the increase in dysbacteriosis e) all the statements are correct 28. Chloramphenicol can produce all listed below complications except: a) inhibition of haemopoiesis (blood formation) b) dermatitis c) acute psychosis d) myocarditis e) osteoporosis 29. The basic pharmacokinetic principles of antibiotic therapy are: a) the choice of a proper drug dose b) the choice of a proper route of administration c) to reduce toxicity of an antibiotic minimal doses producing a proper effect should be administered d) the choice of a good scheme of an antibiotic therapy 30. Nalidixic acid is characterized by: a) a broad spectrum of antimicrobial action b) the influence on gram-positive bacteria c) the influence on gram-negative bacteria d) good absorption from the gastrointestinal tract e) poor absorption from the gastrointestinal tract f) excretion mainly through kidneys 31. Name the drugs that are fluoroquinolones: a) ciprofloxacin b) amoxicillin c) norfloxacin d) nalidixic acid e) lomefloxacin f) furazolidone 32. Name specific features of fluoroquinolones: a) they are quickly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract b) they penetrate into tissues well c) they bind with plasma proteins poorly d) they disturb the process of cartilage tissue formation e) they have a short-term action 33. Find a wrong statement regarding ofloxacin: a) it has a bactericidal action b) it disturbs the superhelix of DNA due to DNA-gyrase block c) it has a broad antibacterial spectrum d) it is widely used for respiratory tract, urinary bladder, biliary tract infections and bacterial skin and soft tissue infections. e) it inhibits synthesis of cellular wall of bacteria 34. Find a wrong statement regarding ciprofloxacin: a) it has a bactericidal action b) it has a significant systemic action c) its action is limited (up to 2 hours) d) it penetrates into organs and tissues well

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

e) it is highly effective at renal infections 35. Name preventive measures against crystalluria due to sulfonamide drug action: a) sulfonamides are administered before meal b) sulfonamides should be taken with a large amount of fluid and coadministered with acetazolamide (diacarb) c) sulfonamides should be taken with alkaline mineral water d) sulfonamides should be administered with ascorbic acid e) all the statements are correct 36. Antibacterial mechanism of action of sulfonamides is due to: a) the impairment of penetrability of a cellular membrane b) their competitive antagonism with PABA c) inhibition of enzyme activity of microorganisms d) coagulation of protoplasm proteins e) all the statements are correct 37. The combined sulfonamides are: a) sulfamethoxazole b) sulfadimidine c) sulfamonomethoxine d) co-trimoxazole e) sulfaton (sulfamonomethoxine/ trimethoprim) 38. Find a wrong statement regarding co-trimoxazole action: a) co-trimoxazole impairs conversion of PABA into dihydrofolic acid b) co-trimoxazole blocks dihydrofolate reductase and impairs synthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid c) co-trimoxazole inhibits the process of uridine methylation d) co-trimoxazole blocks superhelix of DNA e) co-trimoxazole impairs the process of cell replication 39. Why does trimethoprim increase antibacterial activity of sulfonamides? a) trimethoprim provides uptake sulfonamides by microorganisms b) trimethoprim inhibits synthesis of nucleotides in a microbial cell c) trimethoprim slows down the process of sulfonamide elimination 40. Possible adverse effects due to sulfonamide administration: a) anemia b) thrombopenia c) crystalluria d) loss of hearing e) loss of vision 41. Name systemic sulfonamides: a) sulfamethoxypyridazine b) phthalylsulfathiazole c) sulfadimidine d) sulfaguanidine e) sulfalene f) sulfacetamide (sulfacyl-sodium) 42. Name sulfonamides acting only in the intestinal lumen: a) sulfamethoxypyridazine b) phthalylsulfathiazole c) sulfadimidine d) sulfaguanidine e) mesalazine (salazopyridazine) f) sulfacetamide (sulfacyl-sodium) 43. Name furazolidone properties: a) it has a good absorption from the gastrointestinal tract b) it has a poor absorption from the gastrointestinal tract c) it is used for gastrointestinal bacterial infections and lambliasis d) it is used in urinary tract infections e) it can cause an effect similar to the effect of teturam

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

44. Furazolidone is not administered in: a) bacillary dysentery (shigellosis) b) trichomoniasis c) amebic dysentery d) lambliasis e) food toxicoinfections 45. Drugs used for the treatment of urinary tract infections: a) nitroxoline b) nalidixic acid c) nitrofurantoin d) furazolidone e) furazidin f) ambazone (faringosept) 46. Name a derivative of thiosemicarbazone: a) nitroxoline b) nalidixic acid c) co-trimoxazole d) furazolidone e) ciprofloxacin f) ambazone (faringosept) 47. Faringosept (Ambazone) is used for the treatment of: a) tonsillitis b) pneumonia c) intestinal toxicoinfections d) stomatitis (sore mouth) e) genitourinary infections 48. Name an antituberculous drug inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in cellular wall of M. tuberculosis: a) rifampicin b) streptomycin c) isoniazid d) p- aminosalicylic acid e) cycloserine 49. Name antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis: a) polymyxin b) rifampicin c) streptomycin d) kanamycin e) dactinomycin 50. Name specific features of isoniazid: a) it has a broad antimicrobial spectrum of action b) it has selective action on M. tuberculosis c) it has a good absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract d) it has a poor absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract e) it has an ability to penetrate through the blood-brain barrier 51. Which of the antifungal drugs can be administered orally? a) nitrofungin b) nystatin c) griseofulvin d) levorin e) clotrimazole 52. Which of the listed below antibiotics are antifungal? a) amphotericin B b) nystatin c) griseofulvin d) olivomycin e) vincristine

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

53. Which of the drugs are used for the treatment of candidiasis? a) griseofulvin b) fluconazole (diflucan) c) nystatin d) clotrimazole e) nitrofungin 54. For local treatment of oral cavity candidiasis are used: a) griseofulvin b) amphotericin B c) nystatin d) clotrimazole e) dequalinium chloride f) itraconazole 55. Name pathogens that are sensitive to nystatin: a) pathogens of systemic mycoses b) pathogens of dermatomycoses c) pathogens of candidiasis 56. Name specific features of nystatin: a) it has a good absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract b) it has a poor absorbability from the gastrointestinal tract c) it has a low toxicity d) it has a high toxicity e) it is used for the treatment of candidiasis f) it is used for the treatment of dermatomycoses 57. Which of drugs are effective for the treatment of systemic mycoses? a) amphotericin B b) ketoconazole c) fluconazole (diflucan) d) nystatin e) terbinafine (lamizyl) f) clotrimazole 58. Name the drugs used for the treatment and prevention of malaria: a) streptomycin b) isoniazid c) chloroquine (chingamin) d) primaquine e) pyrimethamine (chloridin) 59. Metronidazole acts against all microorganisms except: a) lamblia b) trichomonas c) amoebas d) campilobacteria e) spirochetes 60. Dimercaprol (unithiol) is used as antidote in poisoning with such drugs as: a) metronidazole b) sulfalene c) solyusurmin d) bijochinol e) furazolidone f) isoniazid 61. Which of the drugs are used for enterobiosis? a) mebendazole b) pyrantel c) piperazine adipate d) phthalylsulfathiazole e) metronidazole

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

f) nystatin 62. Drugs used for the treatment of intestinal cestodosis: a) piperazine adipate b) niclosamide c) praziquantel d) pyrantel e) levamisole f) metronidazole 63. Drugs used for prevention of the influenza: a) co-trimoxazole (biseptol) b) rimantadine (remantadine) c) paracetamol d) arbidol e) interferon f) aciclovir 64. Name drugs preventing adhesion of viruses on cell membranes and their penetration into the cells. a) rimantadine (remantadine) b) zidovudine (azidothymidine) c) amantadine (midantan) d) oxoline e) aciclovir f) ganciclovir 65. Name a drug inhibiting formation of smallpox virions due to block of synthesis of structural viral proteins: a) zidovudine (azidothymidine) b) aciclovir c) methisazone d) amantadine (midantan) e) interferon f) rimantadine (remantadine) 66. Name drugs for stimulation of interferon synthesis: a) arbidol b) bendazol (dibazol) c) poludan d) aciclovir e) rimantadine (remantadine) f) ganciclovir 67. Name drugs having antiherpetic action: a) arbidol b) rimantadine (remantadine) c) aciclovir d) valaciclovir e) idoxuridine f) zidovudine (azidothymidine) 68. Name reverse transcriptase inhibitors of oncornaviruses used for HIV treatment: a) aciclovir b) zidovudine (azidothymidine) c) amantadine (midantan) d) idoxuridine e) arbidol f) zalcitabine 69. Name antineoplastic antibiotics: a) dactinomycin b) doxorubicin c) olivomycin d) kanamycin e) mercaptopurine

Antiinfectious and antineoplastic drugs

f) roxithromycin 70. The mechanism of mercaptopurine action is: a) block of sulfhydryl groups b) antagonism with purine bases c) antagonism with folic acid d) alkylating action e) induction of free radicals 71. Cyclophosphamide is: a) an antimetabolite b) an antineoplastic antibiotic c) an alkylating drug d) a vegetable alkaloid e) an antagonist of hormones 72. Which of the drugs are alkylating drugs? a) thiotepa (thiophosphamide) b) cyclophosphamide (cyclophosphane) c) busulfan (myelosan) d) methotrexate e) cisplatin f) demecolcine (colchamine) 73. Name mechanism of alkylating drug action: a) disturbance of stability and replication of DNA b) disturbance of nucleic acid synthesis c) disturbance of ribosome function 74. Which of the antineoplastic drugs are antimetabolites? a) vincristine b) cyclophosphamide (cyclophosphan) c) mercaptopurine d) methotrexate e) tegafur f) 5-fluorouracil 75. Demecolcine (colchicine) is: a) an alkylating drug b) an antimetabolic drug c) a mitotic inhibitor 76. Name the cytostatic of choice for the treatment of acute leukemias in children: a) busulfan (myelosan) b) methotrexate c) dactinomycin d) cisplatin e) demecolcine (colchamine)