DEPARTMENT OF MATHEMATICS, UNIVERSITY OF TORONTO MAT257: Analysis II First Midterm Test Solutions November 3, 2011, 4:10-6pm.

Four questions, 2 pages.

Many of these questions can be solved in more than one way, and of course it is ne if you give a correct solution that diers from the solution presented here. 1. [15 points] a. Suppose that X is a metric space, with metric d. Prove directly from the denitions that for any a X, the function f (x) = d(x, a) is continuous. b. Suppose that K is a nonempty compact subset of Rn . Prove that for every a Rn , there exists some x K such that |x a| = inf |y a|.
yK

(Thus, x is a closest point to a in K.) c. Now prove the same thing, assuming only that K is a nonempty closed subset of Rn . solution a. Note that if x, y X then f (x) = d(x, a) d(x, y) + d(y, a) = d(x, y) + f (y). Reversing the roles of x and y, we also have f (y) f (x) + d(x, y). It follows that |f (x) f (y)| d(x, y) for all x and y in X. In particular, if d(x, y) < , then |f (x) f (y)| < , which shows that f is uniformly continuous (and hence continuous) in X. b. Let f (x) = |x a|. We know from above that this is a continuous function. Then it follows immediately from the extreme value theorem for compact sets that there exists some x A such that f (x) = inf f (y)
yA

which is what we have to prove. c. Fix an arbitrary point x0 K, which we can do because L is nonempty, and let r = |x0 a|. Consider the set K = {x K : |x a| r} = K {x Rn : |x a| r}. Claim 1. K is a nonempty compact set. It is nonempty because x0 K. To show that it is compact, it suces (by the Heine-Borel theorem) to show that it is closed and bounded. It is clearly bounded, since it is contained in the ball of radius r
1

about a. And it is closed, since it is the intersection f two closed sets (recalling that K is closed by hypothesis.) Thus we have proved the claim. Now by part b above and Claim 1, there exists x K such that |xa| = inf yK |y a|. Claim 2. We claim that this point x has the property we want. So we must show that |x a| |y a| for every y K. If y K , then this is true by the dening property of x. And if y K \ K , then the denition of K implies that |y a| > r, so that |y a| > r = |x0 a| inf |z a| = |x a|.
zK

This proves the claim. 2. Dene f : R3 R2 by f (x, y, z) := (xzey , yzex ). a. [5 points] Compute the Jacobian matrix f at an arbitrary point (x, y, z) R3 . b. [5 points] Which of the following ways of completing the sentence are correct: The implicit function, and/or ideas from its proof, guarantees that all solutions (x, y, z) of the equation f (x, y, z) = 0 near (0, 0, 1) can be written in the form (A) z = g(x, y) for some dierentiable function g : U R2 V R. (B) x = g(y, z) for some dierentiable function g : U R2 V R. (C) y = g(x, z) for some dierentiable function g : U R2 V R. (D) (y, z) = g(x) for some dierentiable function g : U R V R2 . (E) (x, z) = g(y) for some dierentiable function g : U R V R2 . (F) (x, y) = g(z) for some dierentiable function g : U R V R2 . You need not justify your answer. solutions. a. f (x, y, z) = b. At the point a = (0, 0, 1), 1 0 0 0 1 0 From this one concludes that statement (F) is correct, and that the others are not. f (a) = The point is that the matrix formed by the rst two columns of f (a) is invertible, so that if we rearrange the Implicit Function Theorem to look for a solution of f (g(z), z) = 0, for some function g : V R W R2 , then the hypotheses of the rearranged version of the theorem are satised. (If you wanted to repeat the proof of the implicit function theorem, you could do so by dening F (x, y, z) = (f (x, y, z), z) R3 , and then verifying that DF (a) is invertible..... zey xzey xey yzex zex yex

Following the same arguments as in the proof, this would eventually lead to conclusion (F).) Also, no other 2 2 sub-matrix of f (a) is invertible, so (F) is the only conclusion of this sort that we are able to draw from the implicit function theorem. (The implicit function theorem does not allow us to draw any conclusions from invertible 1 1 submatrices.) It is interesting to ask yourself, of possibilities (A) - (E), which ones are denitely wrong, and which ones simply cannot be conrmed or ruled out by the implicit function theorem? 3. [15 points] Assume that A is an open subset of Rn , and that f : A R is a continuously dierentiable function such that Df (x) = 0 at every x A. Assume that a A and let b := f (a). a. Prove that the set {x A : f (x) = b} is open. b. Prove that the set {x A : f (x) = b} is (relatively) closed in A. c. State an additional hypothesis on A that would allow you to conclude that f (x) = b for all x A, and prove that your answer is correct. solutions. a. Fix an arbitrary x f 1 (b), and let O be an open rectangle contained in A and containing x. We claim that O f 1 (b). proof of the claim: Because Df = 0, we know that every partial derivative of f equals 0 in O. It then follows from calculus (e.g., the mean value theorem) that f is constant along every line segment in O that is parallel to one of the coordinate axes. Since any two points in O can be connected by at most n such line segments, it follows that f is constant in O. Since x O and f (x) = b, it follows that f (y) = b for all y O, so that O f 1 (b) as claimed. This shows that f 1 (b) is open. b. Since f is continuously dierentiable at every point of A, it is dierentiable, and hence continuous, at every point of A. Thus {x A : f (x) = b} is open in A, since it is the inverse image of the open set (, b) (b, ). Since {x A : f (x) = b} = A \ {x A : f (x) = b}, it follows that {x A : f (x) = b} is closed in A. c. If A is connected, then f is constant in A. Indeed, suppose that A is connected. Note that A = {x A : f (x) = b} {x A : f (x) = b}, and that these sets are pairwise disjoint and open. By the denition of connected, they cannot both be nonempty, and since f (a) = b, the rst set is non-empty. Thus the second set {x A : f (x) = b} must be empty. It follows that f (y) = b for all y A.

4. [5 points] Assume that V and W are open subsets of Rn , and that f : V W is a continuously dierentiable bijection such that f (x) is an invertible matrix everywhere in V . We know from the Inverse Function Theorem that f 1 is dierentiable everywhere in W . Show that if f is twice dierentiable everywhere in V , then the Jacobian matrix (f 1 ) is dierentiable everywhere in W .
remark It is also true, under the same hypotheses, that f 1 is twice dierentiable everywhere in W , but the proof of that statement would require worrying about a few additional technical issues. It is further true that if we assume the hypotheses above, and in addition we assume that f is k times continuously dierentiable in V , then f 1 is k times continuously dierentiable in W .

solution. We know from the inverse function theorem (actually just as an application of the chain rule) that (f 1 ) (y) = (f (f 1 (y))1 for y W . We can write this as: (f 1 ) = Inv f f 1 where Inv is the function dened by Inv(A) = A1 , when A is an invertible matrix. (Both side of this identity are functions from W into the space of n n matrices.) We know from a problem on handout 7, discussed in the tutorial on October 27, that Inv is a dierentiable function on X := {n n matrices M : det M = 0}, and by hypothesis f f 1 (y) X for every y W . we have further assumed that f is dierentiable everywhere in V = f 1 (W ), and as already remarked, f 1 is dierentiable. Thus (f 1 ) is a composition of dierentiable functions, and so the chain rule implies that (f 1 ) is dierentiable.