QRE 1 DIAMS TEST FOR MCI SCREENING

1. All should be done in stable angina with aortic stenosis except: a. Thallium scan b. Angiography c. Echo-cardiography d. Treadmill test 2. The ulnar nerve does NOT supply: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor pollicis brevis C. Abductor pollicis brevis D. Dorsal interossei 3. A patient with stab wound in the 7th intercostals space mid axillary line can die due to all except a. Tension Pneumothorax b. hemo -thorax c. Hemo- peritoneum d. Acute cor pulmonale 4. Culex transmits all except: a. bancroftian filarial b. Japanese encephalitis c. West nile fever d. Brugyain filarial 5. TRUE about the popliteus muscle: A. Forms roof of popliteal fossa B. Intracapsular origin C. Locks the knee joint D. Supplied by deep peroneal nerve 6. All are direct articulations of a true rib EXCEPT: A. Costotransverse joint B. Costovertebral joint C. Costochondral joint D. Costosternal joint 7. Which of the following is NOT attached to the perineal body: A. External anal sphincter B. Deep transversus perinea C. Levator ani D. Obturator externus

1. Cotents of inguinal canal passing through superficial inguinal ring are all except a. Ilioinguinal nerve b. Vas deferens c. Pampiniform plexsus of veins d. Inferior epigastric art 2. Deep inguinal ring is a defect in

a. Ext oblique b. Int oblique c. Trans abdominis d. Fascia transversalis 1. Which of the following is the only medial branch of external carotid artery in neck a. Supelor thyroid artery b. Inferior thyroid artery c. Ascending pharyngeal artery d. Occipital artery Answer: C 2. First 2 cms of duodenum is supplied by all except a. Right gastric artery b. Superior pancreatico-duodenal artery c. Gastro duodenal artery d. Hepatic artery Answer: B 3. Inferior alveolar nerve block medial to pterygomandibular raphe is given between buccinator and a. Superior constrictor b. Middle constrictor c. Masseter d. Temporalis Answer: A 4. Mental foramen is nearest to a. Canine of mandible b. First molar of mandible c. Second molar of mandible d. Premolar of mandible Answer: D 5. In the temporomandibular joint, which of the following is devoid of vascular supply? a. Anterior cartilage b. Posterior cartilage c. Central region d. Central articular disk Answer: D 6. All the following are tributaries of the cavernous sinus except a. Superficial middle cerebral vein b. Superior petrosal sinus c. Inferior ophthalmic vein d. Sphenoparietal sinus

Answer: B 7. Injury to which nerve during a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of scrotum and base of penis. a. Ilioinguinal nerve b. Pudendal c. Genitofemoral d. Lliohypogastric Answer: A 8. The structures piercing the clavipectoral fascia are all except a. Cephalic vein b. Thoraco acromial artery c. Lateral pectoral nerve d. Lateral pectoral artery Answer: D 9. Erection of penis is mediated by all the following except a. Nervi erigentes b. Pudendal nerve c. Sacral plexus d. Hypogastric plexus Answer: D 10. If a missile enters the body just above the pubic ramus through the anterior abdominal wall, it will most likely pierce which of the following structures? a. Abdominal aorta b. Left renal vein c. Urinary bladder d. Spinal cord Answer: C 11. Which of the following is not a boundary of the Kochs triangle? a. Tendon of Tadaro b. Limbus fossa ovalis c. Coronay sinus d. Tricuspid valve ring Answer: B 12. patient presents with pain in the hip joint and the knee joint. There is defective adduction of his hip joint. Which of the following nerves is most likely involved? a. Femoral nerve b. Obturator nerve c. Saphenous nerve d. Sciatic nerve Answer: B

13. A patient was undergoing abdominal surgery under local anesthesia. He suddenly developed sharp severe pain. Which of the following structures will be responsible for his pain? a. Parietal peritoneum b. Liver parenchyma c. Colon d. Small intestine Answer: A 14. Which of the following structure passes through the aortic hiatus a. Thoracic duct and azygous vein b. Thoracic duct and hemiazygous vein c. Thoracic duct and left gastric artery d. Vagus nerve and azygous vein Answer: A
25. A. B. C. D. Difference between typical cervical & thoracic vertebra Has a triangular body Has a formaen transversarium Superior articular facet directed backwards & upwards Has a large vertebral body

Biochemistry 1. Which of the following does not cross cell membrane easily? a. Glucose b. Nitric oxide c. Glucose 6 PO4 d. Carbon dioxide Answer: C 2. In fatty acid synthesis, the reducing agent is a. NADH b. FADH c. NADPH d. ATP Answer: C 3. D and L enatiomers occur in which of the following drugs? a. Digoxin b. Verapamil c. Diphenyl hydantoin d. Octreotide Answer: B

4. Starvation after 72 hours has changes which include which of the following combinations a. Increased glycogenolysis to prevent hypoglycemia b. Increased protein catabolism and increased gluconeogenesis c. Hypercholesterolemia due to increased FFA d. Ketoacidosis because of increased lipolysis Answer: B 5. What is the possible cause for gout in a patient who has glucose 6phosphatase deficiency? a. Decreased a vailability of glucose to tissues b. Increased accumulation of sorbitol c. Increased synthesis of glycerol d. Decreased function of krebs cycle Answer: A 6. Amber codon refers to a. Initiating codon b. Mutant codon c. Stop codon d. Codon coding fro multiple amino acids Answer: C 7. At physiological pH, the most stable amino acid is a. Histidine b. Lysine c. Arginine d. Leucine 8. Answer: A In cystinuria, amino acids excreted are all the following except a. Ornithine b. Arginine c. Lysine d. Histidine Answer: D 9. Dietary triglycerides are transported by a. Chylomicrons b. LDL c. VLDL d. HDL Answer: A 10. A child presents with metabolic lactic acidosis along with hyperammonemia and convulsion is due to detect in a. Urea cycle defect b. Reys syndrome c. Mitochondrial enzyme disorder (MELAS)

d. Phenyl ketonuria Answer: C 11. At pH-7.0. which moety of Hb binds to 2,3 DPG a. Alcoholic termina b. Carboxylic terminal c. Amino terminal d. Sulphydryl terminal Answer: C 12. Tertiary structure of protein is detected by a. X-ray diffraction b. Crystallography c. Spectrophotometry d. Chromatography Answer: A 13. Gene for major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is located on a. Short arm of chromosome 6 b. Long arm of chromosome 6 c. Short arm of chromosome 4 d. Long arm of chromosome 8 Answer: A 14. All the following enzymes are rate limiting EXCEPT a. Acetyl Co A carboxylase b. Malonate dehydrogenase c. HMG Co A reductase d. Phosphofructokinase Answer: B 15. Energy mediated/Receptor mediated endocytosis is a. Porine b. Clathrine c. Vimentin d. Cytocin Answer: B 16. Random arrangement of molecule results in a. Crystallization b. Precipitation c. Denaturation d. High solubility Answer: C 17. Molecular size is assessed by a. Sedimentation b. Absorption mass spectroscopy c. Liophilization

d. Salting out Answer: A 18. Iso electric pH is a. Point at which all amino acids are in zwitter ion form b. Point at which positive and negative charges are equal c. Point at which pH of ions are same d. Point at which pH of ion does not alter Answer: B 19. Which enzyme is absent in skeletal muscles a. Glucose -6-PO4 b. Creatinine phosphokinase c. Hexokinase d. Phosphofructokinase Answer: A 20. DNA supercoling is done by a. DNA gyrase b. DNA topoisomerase c. DNA polymerase d. RNA polymerase II Answer: A 21. All are pyridoxine dependent, EXCEPT a. Oxaluria b. Homocystinuria c. Xanthinuria d. Maple syrup urine disease Answer: D 22. What is deficient in familial hypercholesterolemia a. Apo enzyme A b. Acetyl CoA c. Apo protein A d. LDL receptor Answer: D 23. Enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is a. Enzyme stabilizer b. Thermostable enzymes c. Inorganic ion d. Inorganic metal Answer: B 24. Two helix of DNA are separated by a. Thin layer chromatography b. Paper chromatography c. High speed centrifugation

Answer: D

d. Gel centrifugation

Opthamology 1. Length of Intraorbital portion of OPTIC NERVE is a. 18 mm b. 20 mm c. 25 mm d. 30 mm 2. Which is incorrect of papilloedema a. Blurred disc margins b. Transient blurring of vision c. Sudden painless loss of vision d. Vascular engorgement 3. Enlargement of Blind spot is indicative of a. Papillitis b. Pailloedema c. Optic Neuritis d. Optic N. avulsion 4. Painful ocular movements is seen in a. Inflamed pingecula b. Paillitis c. Retrobulalr Neuritis d. ACG 5. The filed defect in Tobacco Amblyopia is a. Central b. Centrocacal c. Segmental d. Cecal 6. Optic atrophy of one side with papilloedema on the other side is known as a. Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome b. Foster kennedy syndrome c. Devics syndrome d. Sturge weber syndrome 7. Supra sellar calcificastionis characteristic of a. Meningioma b. Craniopharyngioma c. Pituitary adenoma d. Carotid aneurysm 8. Field defects seen in Pituitary adenomas are a. Homonymous Infero Nasal field defects b. Homonymous Supero Temporal field defects c. Heteronymous Infero Nasal field defects d. Heteronymous Supero Temporal field defects 9. Treatment of choice in Myasthenia gravis a. Sympathomimetic drugs b. Anticholinesterase drugs c. Sympatholytic drugs d. Parasympatholytic drugs

Anesthesia
1. Magil Attachment is a: a. Mapleson A system b. Mapleson B system. c. Mapleson D system d. Mapleson E system. Ans. (B) Aneasthesia agent with least effect of myocardial contractility is: a. Halothane b. Trilene c. Isoflurane. d. Ether. Ans. (C) Aneasthesia of choice for manual removal of placenta: a. Epidural. b. Paracervial block. c. Spinal. d. GA. Ans. (D) Postspinal headache can last: a. 1 to 2 Hour b. 1 to 2 weeks. c. 3 to 7 days. d. 2 to 3 weeks. Ans. (C) Armoured endotracheal tubes, whose walls are reinforced with a nylon spiral, are good for: a. Paediatric aneasthesia. b. Cardiovascular surgery aneasthesia. c. Neurosurgical aneasthesia. d. Obstetric aneasthesia. Ans. (C) Entonox is: a. 50%-2 & 50%- N20 b. 75%-2 c. Mixture ofhalothane & 02 & 02 d. Cyeopropane. Ans. (A) Ayres T-piece breathing system is a: a. Mapleson A system b. Mapleson B. c. Chloroform d. Halothane. Ans. (D) The following has the most potent analgesic action: a. Diethyl ether b. Trichloroethyene c. Chloroform d. Halothane. Ans. (B)

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9.

Flushing of the face is more commonly encountered in children following prea. Medication. b. Promethazine. c. Atropine. d. Diazepam. e. Glycopyrolate. Ans. (C)

10. Minimum respiratory depression caused by: a. Morphine. b. Pethidine. c. Fentanyl. d. Pentazocine. Ans. (D) 11. The specific antagonist for benzodiazepines is: a. Flumazenil. b. Aplrozolam c. Di-isoprophyl phenol d. Flunitrazepam. Ans. (A)

12. Epidural analgesia is produced at: a. Substance gelatinosa b. Spinal sensory nerve c. Ventral horn d. Dorsal horn Ans. (A) Orthopedics

1.

All are features of Charcots joints except: a. b. c. d. hypermobility movements are painful osteophyte formation copious effusion

2.

Tardy ulnar nerve palsy occurs as a delayed sequence of a. b. c. d. Supracondylar fracture of humerus Olecranon fracture Fracture-lateral condyle humerus Posterior dislocation of elbow

3.

Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of: a. b. c. d. Ulnar Median Radial Musculo cutneous

4.

Von Rosen splint is used in management of a. b. congenital dislocation of hip club foot

c. d. 5.

Congenital coax vara Perthes disease

Terminal interphalangeal joints of hand are commonly involved in a. b. c. d. Rheumatoid arthritis Stills disease Psoriatic arthropathy Ankylosing spondylitis

1.

Histology of Ewings sarcoma shows small round cells. These cells are filled with: a. Glycogen b. Mucin c. Fat d. Iron

2. Chordoma arises from all except: a. Sacrum b. Ribs c. Vertebrae d. Clivus 3. The most common site of origin of an osteoid osteoma is: a. Spine b. Diaphysis of long bones c. Skull d. Pelvis

1. Which out of the following is not true about shoemakers line: a. Shoe makers line is drawn by extending the line joining the tip of greater trochanter of femur to anterior superior iliac spine on anterior abdominal wall b. Usually it passes at or above umbilicus c. It indicates raising or greater trochanter d. It indicates displaced fracture pelvis Dermatology 1. Herald patch is seen in:
A. Pityriasis rosea

A. Tinea vesicolor B. Scarlet fever C. Psoriasis 2. Intraepithelial bullae are a feature of:
B. Pemphigus

A. Pemphigoid B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Polymorphous light eruption 3. Koebners phenomenon is seen in:

A. Lupus erythematosus B. Syphilis C. Lupus vulgaris

C. Psoriasis

4. Chloroquine is indicated in the treatment of: A. Pemphigoid B. Psoriasis C. Lichen planus D. Discoid lupus erythematosus

Pathology
1. Gastrio intestinal Stromal tumor of stomach is derived from a. Epithelial cell b. Endothelial cell c. Smooth muscle cell d. Autonomic nervous system ANSWER: C 2. Distant metastatsis of cancer cells is through a. Type 4 collagen b. Integrins c. Laminin d. Cadherin protein ANSWER: D 3. All of the following are antigen presenting cells except a. Astrocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Endothelial cells d. Dendritic cells ANSWER: C 4. Papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except a. SLE b. Vascular thrombosis c. Diabetes d. NSAIDs induced nephrotoxicity ANSWER: A 5. Where do call exner bodies occur? a. Granulosa cell tumor b. Theca cell tumor c. Dysgerminoma d. Brenners tumor Answer: A 6. Which condition does NOT feature granulomas?

a. b. c. d.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae Mycobacterium tuberculosis Mycobacterium leprae Yersinia enterocolitica/Pneumocystis camii

Answer: A 7. From where do dividing cancer cells derive enrgy? a. Glycolysis b. Mitochondria c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Anerobic metabolism Answer: A 8. What does diapedesis refer to? a. Attachment of neutrophilis to blood vessel b. Escape of neutrophils from capillaries from capillary endothelium c. Stimulation of cytokine secretion by inflammatory cells d. Response of mediator cells to cytokine secretion Answer: B 9. A patient dies of myocardial infarction. The autopsy finding after 12 hours is a. Coagulative necrosis b. Caseous necrosis c. Liquificative necrosis d. Fat necrosis Answer: A 10. The cell necrosis is due to a. Enzymatic digestion b. Water imbibatian in cells c. Fat deposition in cells d. Ca++ efflux in cell Answer: A 11. Wallerion degeneration is seen in a. Part of nerve attached to cell body in nerve that is cut peripherally b. Part of nerve not attached to cell body c. Cell body that is attached to nerve that is cut. d. Cell body that is not attached to the nerve that is out. Answer: B 12. Reversible injury of cell are all of the following except a. Vacuole b. Karyorrhexis c. Cell wall swelling d. Fat accumulation Answer: B

13. Firm, warty vegetation along the line of closure of heart valve is seen in a. Rheumatic heart disease b. NBTE c. Libman sachs endocarditis d. Bacterial endocariditis Answer: A 14. True regarding oncogenes are all, except a. Derived from proto oncogenes b. Oncogenes code for specific protein c. Causes invitro cell variation in animals d. Multiple growth factors governing the gene Answer: D 15. Clara cells are seen in a. Alveoli b. Bronchos c. Trachea d. Bronchiole Answer: D 16. In Ryes syndrome, liver is stained with a. PAS b. Oil red O c. Mucicarmine d. Reticulin stain Answer: B 17. FNAC is least diagnostic in which thyroid carcinoma a. Anaplastic b. Papillary c. Follicular d. Thyroiditis Answer: C 18. Macrophages are seen in a. Early phase of inflammation b. Late phase of inflammation c. Phase of repair d. Phase of scar formation Answer: B 19. Granulation tissue is formed due to a. Budding new capillaries b. Infiltration of cells c. Thrombosed vessels d. Mucosal proliferation Answer: A

20. All are the regarding cytokines, except a. Mediators of inflammation b. Are soluble proteins c. Does not mediate specific reactions d. Produced by macrophages Answer: C 21. Most common tumor caused by virus is a. Warts b. Carcinoma cervix c. Nasoopharyngeal carcinoma d. Lymphoma Answer: A

Forensic medicine
1. Catamite refers to a. Active agent in sodomy b. Any passive agent in sodomy c. Small child acting as passive agent in sodomy d. A female acting as passive agent in sodomy 2. In which of the following legal action against the offender can be directly taken by police a. Incest b. Fetichism c. Exhibitionism d. Sadism 1. Time limit for exhumation in India is a. 10 yrs b. 20 yrs c. 30 yrs d. no time limit 2. Suspended animation may be found in following conditions except a. Drowning b. Electricution c. Throttling d. Hypothermia 3. Intraocular tension is nil after death in about a. 1 hr b. 2 hrs c. 3 hrs d. 4 hrs
Individual telling a lie under oath is a. Hostile witness b. Professional liar c. Charged with perjury

4.

d. Professional Misconduct

Psychiatry
39. A 3-year-old child developmental milestones normal with delayed speech, and Difficulty in Communication, concentration, not making friends A. Autism B. ADHD C. Specific learning disability D. Mental retardation 40. A. B. C. D. Delusion is a disorder of Thought Perception Insight Cognition is not useful for MRSA, Cefaclor Cotrimoxazole Ciprofloxacin Vancomycin

41. The following drug A. B. C. D.

Microbiology

44. Which of the following bacterial act by increasing c-AMP, A. Vibrio cholera B. Staphyloccus aereus C. E.coli, heat stable toxin D. Salmonella 45. A patient in ICU is on central venous line for the past one week. He is on caftazidime and maikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started, but the culture remained positive, for the same organism even after 10 days of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Viridans streptococci C. Enterococcus fecalis D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus 46. A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram-positive cocci in chains, which were hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best indentify the organism. A. Bile solubility

B. C. D.

Optochin sensitivity Bacitracin sensitivity Catalase positive

47. A young male patient presented with UTI, on urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best used for culture? A. MC Coy cell line B. Thayer Martin medium C. L.J. Medium D. Levinthal Medium 48. Which one of the A. B. C. D. following is true? Agar has nutrient properties Chocolate medium is selective medium Addition of selective substances in a soild medium is called enrichment media Nutrient broth is basal medium

49. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice? A. Q fever B. Trench fever C. Relapsing fever D. Epidemic typhus 50. Chlamydia trachomatis false is. A. Elementary body is metabolically active B. It is biphasic C. Reticulate body divdes by binary fission D. Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome 51. A elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is. A. H. Influenza B. Moraxella cartarrhails C. Legionella D. Burkholderia capacia 52. A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer, which will best help in diagnosis. A. Trichrome Methylene Blue B. Carbol Fuschin C. Acid Fast Stain D. Calcoflour White Miscellaneous topics

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Incorrect about Refsum disease is all except: a. icthyosis Vulgaris b. Retintis Pigmentosa c. Corneal Opacities d. Anosmia HHV 8 can cause all except: a. kaposi Sarcoma b. Primary effusion Lyphoma c. Multicentric Castleman disease d. B cell Lympho-proliferative disorder Incorrect about the blood supply of conducting system of the heart: a. SAN- sinus node artery derived from Right coronary artery b. AV node from Posterior descending coronary artery c. Bundle of his from AV nodal Artery and Asnterior descending coronary artery d. Purkinje fibres from left circumflex coronary artery. All are causes of Erythromelagia except: a. Polycyathemia Vera b. Essential thrombocytosis c. Bromocriptine d. Thromboangitis obliterans Pseudochylous ascites is seen with: a. Sarcoidosis b. Silicosis c. Lymphoma d. Tuberculosis All are contraindications to cardiac catheterization and angiography except: a. End stage renal disease b. Hypokalemia c. Anti-coagulated state with PT >18sec d. Pulmonary artery hypertension Incorrect about Optic nerve Drusen is: a. Increased blind spot on perimetry b. Arcuate scotomas c. Papilledema d. CT scan is the diagnostic investigation of choice revealing calcification. Dangerous area of the eye is: a. Ciliary body b. Iris c. Lens d. Choroid

SPM Q1. ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is a part of which program 1 ICDS 1975 2 National health policy 2002 3 National Vector Borne Disease Control Program 2001-02

4 National Rural Health Mission 2005-12 Q2. Which is false according to Census 2001 for India 1 Population count was taken as on 01 March 2001 2 Gowth rate of population is 1.93% 3 Literacy rate is 36% 4 Sex ratio is 933 Q3. Small pox vaccine was introduced by 1 Paul Ehrlich 2 Robert Koch 3 Louis Pasteur 4 Edward Jenner Q4. Torniquet test is positive in Dengue if no. of petechial spots per square inch (in cubital fossa) is 1 >5 2 >10 3 >15 4 >20 Q5. False regarding MTCT of HIV is 1 MTCT in developing countries is 30% 2 MTCT through breast feeding is 12 16% 3 Nevirapine for prevention of MTCT is given to newborn born of HIV+ mother within 72 hours of birth 4 Elective caesarean section has no role in prevention of MTCT Q6. Which pair of disease and vector is not correctly matched 1 Malaria Anopheles 2 Japanese Encephalitis Culex 3 Kala Azar Phlebotamus 4 Brugian filariasis Culex Q7. Which of the following contraceptives in not available free of cost through RCH programme 1 Vasectomy 2 CuT 380 A 3 Mala D 4 Nirodh Q8. A 29 yr old male has Single Skin Lesion (SSL) of Leprosy. Treatment is 1 ROM therapy single dose 2 ROM therapy one month 3 Rifampicin + Dapsone for 6 months 4 Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine for 6 months

Q9. Which of the follwonig is incorrect abour treatment of malaria: 1 DOC in severe and complicated malaria: Quinine i/v 2 Primaquine is contraindicated in infancy, pregnancy and G6PD deficiency 3 DOC in Malaria in pregnancy: Chloroquine 4 Pryimathamine is contraindicated in Malaria in pregnancy Q10. Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all the following except : 1 Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases 2 Identifying new cases of infection 3 Identifying old & new cases 4 Identifying cases free of disability Q11. The Physical Quality of the Life Index considers I. Expectancy of life at birth. II. Expectancy of life at age one. III. Infant mortality rate IV. Literacy rate. . Of these, 1 I alone is correct 2 I, III and IV are correct 3 I, II and III are correct 4 II, III and IV are correct. Q12.In a prospective study comprising 10000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not. 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above? 1 Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer 2 Beta carotene is not protective in lung cancer 3 The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions 4 Beta carotene is carcinogenic Q13. In a controlled trial to compare two treatments, the main purpose of randomization is to ensure that: 1 The two groupswill be similar in prognostic factors. 2 The clinican does not know which treatment the subjects will recerive. 3 The sample may be refrred to a known population. 4 The clinican can predict in advance which treatment the subjects will receive. Q14. Residence of three village with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carries. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone present at the time submitted to examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carries was computed and compared. This study is a : 1 Cross- sectional study.

2 Case-control study. 3 Concurrent cohort study. 4 Non-concurrent. Q15. In WHO recommended Death Certificate, Main Underlying Cause of Death is recorded on 1 Line Ia 2 Line Ib 3 Line Ic 4 Line II Q16. Which of the statements is incorrect 1 Cohort study is generally prospective 2 There is minimal ethical problems in cohort study 3 Relative risk can be calculated from Cohort Study 4 Cohort study cannot be used for rare diseases Q17. Chandlers Index is used for evaluation of problem of 1 Dracunculiasis 2 Ascariasis 3 Ancylostomiasis 4 Dental caries Q18. No plant source is available for 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin B1 3 Vitamin B4 and Vitamin B12 4 Vitamin B12 and Vitamin D Q19. Minimum recommended amount of residual chlorine in drinking water 1 0.1 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour 2 0.3 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour 3 0.5 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour 4 0.9 mg/litre for contact period 1 hour Q20. A 3 yr old completely unimmunised child comes to an immunization clinic at PHC for the first time. He should receive 1 BCG, Measles, Vitamin-A 2 DT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A 3 BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A 4 DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles, Vitamin-A Q21. In "Iceberg Phenomenon " the tip represents what the physician sees in clinical practice & submerged portion of the iceberg represents sub clinical cases, carriers, undiagnosed cases. Essential purpose of screening test for a chronic disease is to identify

1 Tip of the iceberg 2 Hidden portion of the iceberg 3 Both 1 + 2 4 Waterline demarcation Q22. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of: 1 Tetracycline. 2 Co-trimoxazole. 3 Doxycycline. 4 Furazolidone. Q23. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to eat/drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from: 1 Very severe disease. 2 Severe Pneumonia. 3 Pneumonia. 4 No Pneumonia. Q24. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except 1. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases. 2. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year. 3. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended. 4. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age. Q25. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than: 1. 1 per 10,000 2. 2 per 10,000 3. 5 per 10,000 4. 10 per 10,000 Q26. All of the following statements about rheumatic fever/heart disease epidemiology in India are true except: 1. Its prevalence varies between 2 to 11 per 1000 children aged 5-16 years. 2. Mitral regurgiration is the commonest cardiac lesion seen. 3. It occurs equally in females and males. 4. Rheumatic fever occurs in about 2% of streptococcal sore throats. Q27. WHO vaccination strategy of catch-up, keep-up & follow-up has been designed for 1 Measles 2 Chicken pox 3 Polio 4 Diphtheria

Q28. A synthetic cocktail vaccine SPf66 has shown potential for the protection against 1 Dengue/ DHF 2 Japanese encephalitis 3 Falciparum Malaria 4 Lymphatic filariasis Q29. Vaccine which is of highest priority to be given in post disaster phase; 1 Cholera 2 Tetanus 3 Typhoid 4 Measles Q30. MMR (maternal mortality rate) is a 1 Rate 2 Ratio 3 Proportion 4 Percentile Q31. A male 42 years old has Weight 100 kg and height 160 cms. He has 1 Normal BMI 2 Obesity Grade I 3 Obesity Grade II 4 Obesity Grade III Q32. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on 1 Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 2 Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90 3 Days 0, 3 4 Days 0, 7, 28
MCI 25 November 2008 mock test -2
1. Carotid sinus massage acts via controlling the heart rate by: a. Decreasing AV blockage b. Decreasing SA node discharge c. Increasing AV blockade d. Increasing Absolute refractory period of purkinje fibres Prophylaxis for meninigococcal meningitis is: a. Tetracycline b. Rifampicin c. Sulfadiazine d. Trimethoprim More bleeding occurs in scalp because of: a. Separation of ruptured ends of blood vessels due to separation of galea aponeurotica b. Relatively More vascular area

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c. Sub-periosteal bleeding from emissary veins d. Tortous course of scalp blood vessels 4. Epleys maneurver is used for management of? a. Beningn positional paroxysmal vertigo b. Acoustic neuroma c. Meneriers disease d. otosclerosis Marcus Gunn pupil seen in? a. Neurosyphilis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Multiple sclerosis d. Gullian barre syndrome. Zollinger Ellison syndrome the best diagnostic protocol: a. 24 hr basal acid output and maximal acid output. b. 24 hr secretin study c. 24 hr gastrin study d. Histamine stimulation test Bitemporal hemianopia is seen with a. Pituitary tumor b. Empty sella syndrome c. Optic tract damage d. Occipital cortex damage Definitive diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma? a. 24 hr urinary catecholamines b. MIBG Scan c. CTU d. Metapyrone test Vessel rupture in hypertension in all parts of the brain except: a. Temporal lobe b. Thalamus c. Cerebellum d. Putamen Most common cause of mortality after 70 yrs of age? a. Cardiovascular mortality b. Diabetes mellitus and complications c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Mesenteric insufficiency Which is a pre-cancerous lesion of esophagus a. barret esophagus b. peutz jehgers c. crohn disease d. Ulcerative colitis Recurrent episodes of Blood stained sputum can be the presenting symptom of? a. Bronchial adenoma b. Cavity c. Bronchiectasis d. Tuberculosis Lesion of the caudate lobe of basal ganglia causes a. Chorea

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12.

13.

b. atheotosis c. hemiballismus d. Intentional tremors 14. Deficiency of which vitamin does not cause anemia? a. Biotin b. Pyridoxine c. Folic acid d. B12 Punched out lesion in the skull is seen in: a. Mutiple myeloma b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Pagets disease d. Osteopetrosis Closed Pneumothorax, the best position of the CXR shall be? a. Expiration in erect position b. Lateral decubitus position c. Inspiration in erect position d. Inspiration in lateral decubitus position. Wide fixed split S2 is seen in: a. ASD b. VSD c. PDA d. TOF Thrombocytopenia is diagnosed by a. Bleeding time b. Clotting time c. Prothrombin time d. Activated partial thromboplastin time Extrinsic pathway is measured by a. BT b. CT c. APTT d. PT Hemophilia pattern of inheritance is: a. XLR b. XLD c. AR d. AD Digitalis toxicity is managed by: a. Potassium b. digiband c. amiodarone d. lignocaine Preserved blood does not contain a. Citrate b. Heparin c. Dextrose d. Phosphate

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

Tumor marker for pancreatic cancer a. Ca19.9 b. Ca 125 c. BRCA d. CEA Lumbar puncture needle doesnt puncture a. supraspinatus b. infraspinatus c. ligamentum flavum d. lamina propria CSF glucose levels are reduced in all of the following except: a. Bacterial meningitis b. Viral meningitis c. Tubercular meningitis d. Subdural Empyema Diagnostic procedure for kala azar can be which of the following? a. Indirect fluoroscent antibody test b. L.D. bodies in splenic aspirate c. Aldehyde test d. ELISA NNN media is used for diagnosis of a. Brucella b. Leshmania c. ankylostoma d. strongyloides stercoralis Young female with complaints of dysnea on exertion and related symptoms of heart etiology. Best modality for investigation shall be: a. CXR b. ECG c. Echocardiography d. Angiography The following can cause Hypocalcemia a. calcitonin b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Sarcoidosis d. Lithium therapy The following vitamin is given with vitamin D for osteoporosis a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin E Least common fungal infection in immunocompromised hosts shall be: a. Malazzia furfur b. Cryptosporidium c. Candida d. Penicillium marafucci All are features of hypothyroidism except

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

a. b. c. d. 33.

pretibial myxedema Puffiness of face Low voltage ECG Alopecia and constipation

34.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is caused by: a. Deficiency of insulin b. Excess of insulin c. Resistance to insulin d. Defective structure of insulin Most common Valvular lesion after MI is seen in: a. Mitral regurgitation b. Mitral stenosis c. Aortic stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation Auer rods are seen in: a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. CLL Falciparum malaria causes all except: a. blackwater fever b. Algid malaria c. Hypoglycemia d. Alkalosis Splenomegaly is not seen in: a. Sickle cell anemia b. Gaucher c. TORCH d. Kala Azar

35.

36.

37.

38.

Bilaterally shrunken kidneys are seen in: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Amyloidosis c. Hydronephrosis d. Renal vein thrombosis Daily sodium requirement per day would be? a. 3-5gm b. 300mg-500mg c. 3ug- 5ug d. 3-5mg e. FTA ABS is used for diagnosis of a. Syphilis b. Borrelia c. Brucella d. Lyme disease curcshman spirals are seen in:

39.

40.

41.

42.

a. Bronchial asthma b. Chronic bronchitis c. Acute bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis SSPE is a complication of a. Measles b. Mumps c. Rubella d. Hepatitis Rickets radiological features are; a. Widening cupping and splaying of distal end of radius b. Widening cupping and splaying of distal end of femur c. White line of calcification d. Fraying of distal end of ulna Frenkel line and Wimberger sign is seen in: a. Scurvy b. Rickets c. Enhler Danlos d. Muco-polysaccharidosis koplik spots are seen in : a. Measles b. Mumps c. Rubella d. Hepatitis D Surfactant is produced by? a. Type 2 pneumocytes b. Type 1 pneumocytes c. Pores of kahn d. Cuboidal lining of surfactant Normal birth weight of a baby shall be: a. 2.5kg b. 2.7kg c. 2.8kg d. 3.0kg Physiological jaundice is not seen in which of the following on the first day of life of a baby? a. Low birth weight baby b. G 6PD deficiency c. Term small for date baby d. Term large for date baby Physiological jaundice is relieved in how many days? a. 3 days b. 5 days c. 7 days d. 14 days A child can draw a circle by the age of: a. 2 yrs b. 3yrs

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

c. 4yrs d. 5yrs 51. 6month old baby with an abdominal mass shall be: a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilms tumor c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. Cavernous Hemangioma liver Breast milk secretion is mediated by: a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin c. ADH d. All of above. Commonest leukemia in down syndrome a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. CLL Zinc deficiency causes a. acrodermatuitis enterohepatica b. casal necklace c. Chronic diarrhea d. Megalobalstic anemia Dose of folic acid required per day to prevent neural tube defects would be ? a. 400mcg b. 400mg c. 4mg d. 40mg

52.

53.

54.

55.

1. In an emphysematous patient with bulla lesion which is the best investigation to measure
lung volumes? A. Body plethysmography b. Helium dilution c. Trans diaphragmatic pressure d. DLCO

2. A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hairs and climbing upstairs since 6 months. She
has Gowers sign positive and maculopapular rash over metacarpo phalangeal joints. What should be the next appropriate investigation to be done? A. ESR b. RA factor c. Creatine kinase d. Electromyography 2.antibody found in myositis is? A. Anti jo1 b anti scl 70 c. Anti ds dna d.anti sm antibody 3. A girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis. In

later ages of life she is prone to develop? A. SLE b. Scleroderma c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. systemic sclerosis 4. Which radiological feature would help differentiate rheumatoid arthritis with SLE? A. Erosion b. Juxta articular osteoporosis c. Subluxation of MCP joint d. Swelling of pip joint 5.all are seen in Reiters syndrome except? A. Subcutaneous nodules b. Oral ulcers c. Keratoderma belanorrhagicum d. Circinate balanitis 6.which of the organism causes reactive arthritis? A. Ureaplasma urealyticum b. Group a beta hemolytic streptococci c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Nocadia 7.All is true about metachromatic leucodystrophy except? A. Follows an indolent course and slow to progress b. Tissue biopsy is diagnostic c. Presents as visual loss and speech abnormality d. Involves deep cortical neurons 8. Most common cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india is? A. Hansens disease b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Tuberculosis d. Polyarteritis Nodosa 9.wiskott aldrich syndrome is characterised by all except? A. Thrombocytopenia b. Autosomal recessive c. Failure of aggregation of platelets in response to agonists d. Eczema 10.spontaneous CSF leak occurs in all except? A. Increased ICT b. Partial or complete empty sella syndrome c. Pseudotumour cerebri d. Low risk encephalocoele 11. True about fluorescent antibody detection test in diagnosis of plasmodium falcifarum are a/e?

A. Its an immunochromatic test b. Detection of histidine rich protein 1 c. Detection of lactate dehydrogenase antigen d. Detection of aldolase antigen 12.microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is seen in a/e? A. Antiphosphplipid antibody syndrome b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura c. Microscopic polyangitis d. Metallic cardiac valves 13. Which of these is not a marker of active replicative phase of chronic hepatitis B? A. Anti-HBs Ag b. Hbv DNA polymerase c. Anti HBc d. AST and ALT 14.vasodialation in spider naevi is due to? A. Hepato-toxin b. Estrogen c. Testosterone d. DHEA 16.a 29 yr old unmarried female presents with dyspnea, her chest x ray is normal, fvc-92% fevi/fvc-89% dlco-59%. On exercise her oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 86%. What is the diagnosis? A. Alveolar hypoventilation b. Primary pulmonary hypertension c. Interstitial lung disease d. Anxiety 17. A man on 10 days course of cephalosporins on 8th day of treatment develops high-grade fever and rashes all over the body. What is the diagnosis? A. Partially treated meningitis b. Type iii hypersensitivity reaction c. Kawasakis ds d. weils disease 18. Which is false about acrodermatitis enteropathica? A. Triad of Diarrhoea dementia dermatitis b. Low serum zinc levels c. Symptoms improve with zinc supplementation d. perianal Rash 20.which of the following features of uremia will not improve with hemodialysis? A. Peripheral neuropathy b. Pericarditis c. Seizures d. Metabolic acidosis

21.not a major Framingham criteria for diagnosis of congestive Heart failure? A. Hepatomegaly b. Cardiomegaly c. S3 gallop d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 22.a 54 yr old smoker man comes with fever hemoptysis weight loss and oligo-arthritis. Serial skiagram shows fleeting opacities. What is the diagnosis? A. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis b. Ca lung c. Tuberculosis d. Wegeners granulomatosis 23.Misfolded proteins are seen in a/e? A. Prion disease b. Multiple sclerosis c. Amyloidosis d. Creutzfeldt jacob disease
A PREGNANT LADY ACQUIRES CHICKEN POX 3 DAYS PRIOR TO DELIVERY.SHE DELIVERS BY NORMAL VAGINAL ROUTE.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE? A. BOTH MOTHER AND BABY ARE SAFE B. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO MOTHER BEFORE DELIVERY C. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO BABY D. BABY WILL DEVELOP CONGENITAL VARICELLA SYNDROME

173.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE TO PREVENT THE TRANSMISSION OF HIV FROM MOTHER TO BABY EXCEPT? A. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION TO MOTHER B. NO BREAST FEEDING C. VAGINAL DELIVERY D. ZIDOVUDINE TO MOTHER

D. Surgery

1. Incompletely descended testis is most common on: a. Right side b. Both sides c. Right sided only d. Left side 2. Undescended testis is characterized by all except: a. 50% occur in premature babies b. Generally descend during 1st year of life c. To be operated at puberty d. May be bilateral
Indications of surgery in bening prostatic hypertrophy are all except: (a) Prostatism (b) Chronic retention (c) Haemorrhage (d) Enlarged prostate

Grade I benign prostate with outflow obstruction is best treated with:

(a) Retropubic prostatectomy (b) Transurethral rescetion (c) Transversical prostatectomy (d) Androgen therapy
Spigelian hernia is in: (a) supraumbilical (b) Subumbilical (c) Paraumbilical (d) Lumbar A grid- iron incision becomes a Rutherford-Morrison incision when the incision is extended by: (a) Splitting the muscles laterally (b) Cutting the muscles laterally (c) Cutting the muscles medially into the rectus sheath (d) Incising vertically along the rectus muscle

Line of surgical division of the lobes of the liver is: (a) Falciform ligament to the diaphragm (b) Gallbladder bed to IVC (c) Gallbladder bed on the icterus of diaphragm (d) One inch to the lift of falciform ligament to the IVC One of the following is not indicated for arterial leg ulcer: a. Debridement b. Elevation of limb c. Head end of bed is r aised d. Low dose Aspirin 2. All are seen in acute aterial ischemia except: a. Pallor b. Cyanosis c. Perasthesia d. Paralysis 1. A split skin graft will not take on a bed consisting of: (a) Fascia (b) Muscle (c) Periostium (d) Cartilage 2. Best source in split skin graft: (a) Autograft (b) Homograft (c) Isograft (d) Xenograft

3. Skin grafting is not done in infection with: (a) Pseudomonas aeroginosa (b) Staph aureus (c) Beta hemolytic streptococci (d) E. Coli 1. A 21-year-old woman has a 3 cm deep cervical node on left. Biopsy is interpreted as normal thyroid tissue in lymph node, diagnosis is : (a) Subacute thyroiditis (b) Metastatic carcinoma thyroid (c) Hashimotos disease (d) Lateral aberrant thyroid 2. Excision of the hyoid bone is done in: (a) Branchial cyst (b) Branchial fistula (c) Thyroglossal cyst (d) Sublingual dermoids 3. Most common site for thyroglossal cyst is: (a) Suprahyoid (b) Subhyoid (c) Beneath the foramen caecum (d) Floor of mouth Lemon on match sticks like contour seen in: (a) Cushings syndrome (b) Pheochromocytoma (c) Ganglioneuroma (d) Wilms tumor 1. Lymphatic drainage of the female breast is predominantly into the following group of lymph nodes: (a) Pectoral (b) Subscapular (c) Supraclavicular (d) Internal mammary 2. Best position for self-palpation of breast in women is: (a) Sitting (b) Standing (c) Leaning forward (d) Lying down 3. In a mammogram, all of the following are features of carcinoma breast except: (a) A solid lesion with ill defined edge or stellate configuration (b) True microcalcification

(c) Areas of macro calcification (d) Increased skin thickness 4. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates: (a) Breast abscess (b) Fibroadenoma (c) Duct pailloma (d) Fat necrosis of breast

OBG and gynecology

1. Polyhydramnios occur in all of the following except: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Anencephaly c. Multiple pregnancy d. Renal agenesis
1. Commonest site of implantation of ectopic pregnancy: a. Ovary b. Ampulla c. Isthmus d. Interstitial Most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is: a. IUCD b. Previous tubal disease c. Endometriosis d. Minipill Ectopic pregnancy occurs in all except: a. IUCD b. Combined estrogen progesterone pill c. Tubal ligation d. Clomiphene therapy

2.

3.

1. Grand multipara is presisposed tl all of the following complication except: a. Pregnancy-induced hypertension b. Malpresentation c. Anaemia d. Postpartum haemorrhage 2. At necropsy pathognomic lesions of eclampsia is seen in: a. Heart b. Brain c. Liver d. Kidney 3. Pregnancy induced hypertension, sudden vision loss is due to: a. Retinal detachment b. CRAO c. Vitreous haemorrhage d. CRVO

1. Basal body temperature falls as the times of ovulation by about:

a. 0.5 degree Fahrenheit b. 0.5 degree Fahrenheit c. 1.5 degree Fahrenheit d. 2 degree Fahrenheit 2. Best results in tuboplasty are seen in: a. Isthmic-Isthmic type b. Isthmic-ampullary type c. Corneal implanation d. Removal of hydrosalpinx 3. Diabetic woman with malignant retinopathy requires: a. Permanent sterilization b. Conventional contraceptives c. IU devices d. Oral pills 1. Commonest cause of pyometra is a. Carcinoma endometrium b. Carcinoma cervix c. Carcinoma vagina d. Uterine myoma 2. Endometrial carcinoma is usually associated with all except: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypertension c. Obesity d. Multiparity 3. Commonest malignancy of the body of the uterus is: a. Adenoacanthoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Sarcoma Adenocarcinoma 1. Fibroids in pregnancy should be removed: a. In pregnancy b. During caeserean section c. In the early pueperium d. Should not be removed 2. Degeneration of the myomata is more likely to start from: a. Centre b. Periphery c. From any portion d. None of the above 3. Which of the following is not a complication of fibroid in pregnancy: a. Pre term labour b. Post partum haemorrhage c. Abortion d. APH

4. Which one of the following is a non-steroidal contraceptive: a. Ru-486 b. Minipill c. NET EN d. CENTCHROMAN Pharmacology
1. Gum hyperplasia and hirsutism is caused by ingestion of which drug a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Chloroquin d. Thiazides Answer: B 2. Myopathy is not a side effect of a. Zidovudin b. Chloroquin c. Chloramphenicol d. Prednisone Answer: C 3. Which of the following is not used in BPH? a. Finasteride b. Flutamide c. Testosterone d. DES Answer: C 4. All the following are true regarding HMG CoA reductase inhibitors except a. Simvastatin is extensively metabolized and Provastatin least b. Fibrinogen levels are increased by Provastatin c. Bioavailability is maximally modified when Provastatin is taken along with food d. Simvastatin and Lovastatin have maximal CNS accumulation Answer: B 5. The most bactericidal drug is leprosy is a. Rifampicin b. Dapsone c. Clofazimine d. Ofloxacin Answer: A 6. There is albumin urea resulting in decreased albumin conc. In blood. Which of the following drugs transport is least affected a. Digoxin b. Phenytoin c. Valproic acid d. Prazosin Answer: D 7. Which of the following is contraindicated in a patient with head injury a. Mannitol b. Furesemide c. Thiopentone

d. Morphine Answer: D 8. True are A/E a. Atenolol has longer half life than metoprolol b. Labetalol is selective -1 adrenergic blocker but it also has some adrenergic blocking properties c. Celeprolol is selective - 1 blocker d. Carvedilol is selective -1 blocker and also has vasoconstrictor activity due to -1 adrenergic agonist action Answer: D 9. Which of the following drugs is not given in renal failure a. Isoniozid b. Ampicillin c. Fluoroquinolones d. Amphotericin B Answer: D 10. All of the following are true about metformin except a. Concomitant alcohol consumption increases the risk of lactic acidosis b. It increases the insulin secretion c. It reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis d. It increases peripheral utilization of glucose Answer: B 11. Which of these is NOT caused by amphotericin B? a. Azotemia b. Glomerulonephritis c. Hypokalemia d. Renal tubular acidosis Answer: B 12. What is the most common cardiac defect caused due to lithium? a. Ebsteins anomaly b. HOCM c. Aortic aneurysm d. Eisenmenger syndrome Answer: A 13. While prescribing propranolol, a particular side effect of the drug should be kept in mind while prescribing it to susceptible patients. Which side effect is being reffered to? a. Bronchial asthma b. Arrythmias c. Hyperglycemia d. Severe post operative hypotension Answer: A 14. A 25 year old male experienced severe flushing, fall in blood pressure after intake of alcohol. The above described attack can be precipitated by the simultaneous intake of all the following drugs along with alcohol EXCEPT which? a. Cefamandole b. Metronidazole c. Dexamethasone d. Chlorpropamide Answer: C

15. A patient with H/O asthma develops respiratory tract infection. He is on theophylline, which of the following antibiotics may precipitate theophylline toxicity? a. Erythromycin b. Sparfloxacin c. Ampicillin d. Cotrimoxazole Answer: A 16. A patient receiving allopurinol requires dose reduction of a. 6 mercaptopurine b. cyclophosphamide c. Azathioprine d. Cimetidine Answer: A 17. An elderely hypertensive has diabetes mellitus and bilateral renal artery stenosis. The best management is a. Enalapril b. Verapamil c. Beta blockers d. Thiazides Answer: B 18. A patient on cisapride for Barrets ulcer suffers from pneumonia. The physician prescribes erythromycin. Which of the following is the correct statement a. Increase the dose of cisapride needed b. Increase the dose of erythromycin needed c. Increased risk of ventricular arrythmias present d. Decreased bioavailability of cisapride Answer: C 19. Zileuton is a. 5-lipo oxygenase inhibitor b. TX A2 inhibitor c. Leukotriene receptor antagonist Answer: A 20. Which of the following can be given with adjustment a. Levodopa + metoclopramide b. Gentamicin + Frusemide c. Ferrous sulphate + Tetracylcine d. Clonidine + Chlorpromazine Answer: B 21. A 50 year old man had an attack of myocardial infarction and developed ventricular ectopics and low ejection fraction. Which of the following antiarrhymic drug to be given a. Flecainide b. Mexiletine c. Beta-blockers d. Radio-frequency ablation technique Answer: B 22. Mechanism of action of epinephrine in cardio-pulmonary resuscitation is a. Increase myocardical demand b. Increase SA node activity c. Peripheral vasoconstriction and directing blood flow to heart d. Ratio of blood flow to epicardium and endo cardium decreases Answer: B

23. New drug study and development can be done by a. Pharmacogenetics b. Molecular modeling c. Pharmaco library d. Neo pharmacy Answer: B 24. A drug X has affinity to bind with albumin and Y has 150 times more affinity to bind with albumin than X. TRUE statement is a. Drug X will be available more in tissues b. Drug Y will be available in tissues c. Free concentration of drug x in blood will be more d. Toxicity of Y will be more Answer: C 25. Dipyridamole acts by a. Thrombaxane A2 synthesis inhibition b. Antagonise the uptake of adenosine by platelet c. Calcium channel blocking property d. PGl2 stimulation Answer: B

Q62. National Family Health Survey has successfully completed 1 One round 2 Two rounds 3 Three rounds 4 Four rounds Q63. The following is true about prevalence and incidence 1 Both are rates 2 Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not 3 Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not 4 Both are not rates Q64. Hardy Weinberg law is related to 1 Gene therapy 2 Human genome project 3 Population genetics 4 Eugenics Q65. The drug preferred for chloroquine resistant malaria in pregnancy is: 1 mefloquine 2 primaquine 3 cloxacilin 4 quinine

Q66. The commonest morbidity in schools is: 1 dental ailments 2 worm infestations 3 malnutrition 4 skin diseases Q67. At age 1 year 1 Birth weight doubles 2 Birth height doubles 3 Birth weight triples 4 Birth height triples Q68. Incubation period of measles is 1 2 6 days 2 10 14 days 3 2 4 months 4 2 6 hours Q69. Antenatal visits recommended in pregnancy is 1 Only 3 29 3 >12 41 Q70. Following occupational diseases are notifianble under the Indian Factory Act, 1976, except: 1 silicosis 2 asbestosis 3 byssinosis 4 bagassosis Q71. Cluster testing is useful in detecting cases of: 1 measles 2 sexually transmitted infections 3 unimmunized children 4 cancer Q72. RDA iron requirement is 1 28 mg 2 48 mg 3 68 mg 4 98 mg Q73. Vaccination is 1 Primary level of prevention 2 Secondary level of prevention

3 Tertiary level of prevention 4 Primordial level of prevention Q74. Maize is deficient in 1 Methionine 2 Tryptophan 3 Threonine 4 Lysine Q75. All of the following involve a two way communication except: 1 symposium 2 lecture 3 panel discussion 4 workshop Q76. Under the national population policy 2000, it is aimed to reduce the maternal mortality ratio to below: 1 50 per 100,000 live births 2 100 per 100,000 live births 3 150 per 100,000 live births 4 200 per 100,000 live births Q77. Which is the right number of doses of ATT for a category II patient under DOTS 1 IP 24, CP - 54 2 IP 36 CP - 66 3 IP 24 CP - 48 4 IP 36 CP 54 Q78. MC Opportunistic infection in AIDS in India 1 Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 2 Candida 3 Tuberculosis 4 Cryptococcosis Q79. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is: 1 Median 2 First quartile 3 Third quartile 4 Mode Q80. Mean + 2 SD contains 1 68% 2 91% 3 95% 4 99%

Q81 Eligible Couple Register is maintained at 1 Subcenter 2 PHC 3 CHC 4 District headquarters Q82. INERTIZATION deals with 1 Mixing biomedical waste with cement& other substance before disposal 2 Incineration of biomedical waste with cement & other substance before disposal 3 Dumping of Biomedical waste in sanitary landfills 4 Screw feed technology to disinfect sharps Q83. IMR (Infant mortality rate) is expressed per 1 1000 pregnancies 2 1000 Live births 3 100,000 Live births 4 1000 abortions