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Puliyannoor P.O., PALA

STUDY CENTRE
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Paper I
KERALA CEE MEDICAL MODEL-3 UNIT I
30 - 01 - 2012 Batch: C, D, E, F, G, H, L, J, K
M1
Version
Code
1. NaCN is sometimes added in the froth flotation process as a depressant when ZnS and PbS minerals are
expected because :
A) Pb(CN)
2
is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
B) ZnS forms soluble complex Na
2
[Zn(CN)
4
] while PbS forms froth
C) PbS forms soluble complex Na
2
[Pb(CN)
4
] while ZnS forms froth
D) NaCN is never added in froth flotation process E) Both B & C
2. Which of the following reaction represents a calcination reaction.
A)
2 2
HgS O Hg SO + +
B)
3 3
AgNO NaCl AgCl NaNO + +
C)
3 2 2 2
CuCO . Cu(OH) CuO CO H O + +
D)
2 3 2 2
Al O NaOH NaAlO H O + +
E) All the above
3. Which of the following reactions reprsents the self-reduction process?
A)
2 2
2
HgS O HgO SO
HgO HgS Hg SO
+ +

+ +

B)
2 2 2 2
2 2 2
Cu S O Cu O SO
Cu S Cu O Cu SO
+ +

+ +

C)
2 2
2
PbS O PbO SO
PbO PbS Pb SO
+ +

+ +

D) All of these E) Both A and C

4. Which of the following methods is used for concentration of bauxite ore?
A) Levigation B) Froth floatation
C) Magnetic separation D) Leaching E) None
5. German silver contains
A) Cu = 25 - 30%, Zn = 25 - 30% & Ni = 40 - 50%
B) Ag = 25 - 40%, Cu = 25 - 35% & Al = 10 - 35%
C) Al = 25 - 40%, Cu = 25 - 35% & Sn = 10 - 35%
D) Sn = 25 - 40%, Ag = 25 - 35% & Al = 10 - 35%
E) None of these
6. The process of auto reduction or self reduction is employed in the extraction metal such as:
A) Cu & Pb B) Ag & Au C) Zn & Sn D) Cr & Mo E) Fe & Cu
7. During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as anode mud.
These are :
A) pb and Zn B) Sn and Ag C) Fe and Ni D) Ag and Au E) None
8. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated for froth flotation process. Which one of the following
sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by chemical leaching :
A) Sulphalerite B) Argentite C) Galena D) Copper pyrites E) None
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9. Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace :
A)
2 3 2
2Fe O 3C 4Fe 3CO + + B)
2
CO C 2CO +
C)
3 2
CaCO CaO CO + D)
2 3
CaO SiO CaSiO + E) None
10. The method not used in metallurgy to refine the impure metal is :
A) Monds process B) Van-Arkel process
C) Amalgamation process D) Liquation E) Zone refining
11. The alloy best suited for making meter scales is
A) Stainless steel B) Invar
C) Alnico D) Tungsten steel E) Chromium tungsten steel
12. The reaction of CH
3
MgBr with acetone and hydrolysis of the resulting product gives?
A) CH
3
- CH
2
- CH
2
OH B) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
OH
C) (CH
3
)
2
CHOH D) (CH
3
)
3
COH E)
13. Among the following, one which reacts most readily with ethanol is :
A) p - nitrobenzyl bromide B) p - chlorobenzyl chloride
C) p - methoxybenzyl bromide D) p - methyl benzyl bromide
E) None of these
14. Which of the following compound reacts fastest with Lucas reagent?
A) 2 - methyl - 2 - propanol B) 1 - butanol C) 2 - butanol
D) 2 methyl - 1 - propanol E) propanol
15. Tetrahydrofuran is treated with excess of HBr at 100
0
C. The product obtained is
A) 4 - bromo - 1 - butanol B) 1, 4 - butan diol
C) 1, 4 - dibromo butane D) 1, 3 butadiene E) None of these
16. A compound X of the formula C
3
H
8
O yields a compound C
3
H
6
O on oxidation. To which of the following
class of compound would X belong.
A) aldehyde B) secondary alcohol C) alkene D) tert alcohol E) ether
17. Arrange the following set of compounds in the order of their increasing boiling point?
propan - 1 - ol, but - 1 - ol, but - 2 - ol, ethanol, methanol
A) methanol, ethanol, butan - 1 - ol, butan - 2 - ol, propan - 1 - ol
B) methanol, ethanol, propan - 1 - ol, butan - 2 - ol, butan - 1 - ol
C) ethanol, propan - 1 - ol, methanol, butan - 2 - ol, butan - 1 - ol
D) ethanol, propan - 1 - ol, butan - 1 - ol, butan - 2 - ol, methanol
E) propan - 1 - ol, butan - 1 - ol, butan - 2 - ol, ethanol, methanol
18. Which one of the following alcohols undergoes acid-catalysed dehydration to alkenes most readily?
A) (CH
3
)
2
CH CH
2
OH B) (CH
3
)
3
COH C)
D) CH
3
- CH
2
- CH
2
OH E) CH
3
-OH
19. Periodic acid oxidises
A) |-ketoaldehyde B) 1, 4 diol C) 1, 3 diols D) 1, 2 diols E) Both B, C & D
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20. Which of the following Grignard reactions not suitable for the preparation of 2 methyl - 2 butanol
A) Acetone + ethyl magnesium bromide
B) Acetaldehyde + iso propyl magnesium bromide
C) Formaldehyde + ethyl magnesium bromide
D) 2 butanone + methyl magnesium bromide
E) Both B & C
21. Ethanol when reacted with PCl
5
gives A, POCl
3
and HCl. A react with AgNO
2
to form B (major product) and
a white precipitate A and B respectively
A) C
2
H
5
Cl and C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5
B) C
2
H
6
and C
2
H
5
CO C
2
H
5
C) C
2
H
5
Cl and C
2
H
5
NO
2
D) C
2
H
6
and C
2
H
5
NO
2
E) None of these
22. Consider the following sequence of reactions 2 5 2
C H MgI H / H O
A B
+

tert-pentyl alcohol. A is
A) 2 - Butanone B) Acetaldehyde C) Acetone D) Propanal E) None of these
23. Tertiary butyl alcohol is heated with con. H
2
SO
4
and the alkene thus formed is subjected to ozonolysis. The
products of ozonolysis are reduced with LiAlH
4
. The final products are
A) 2 - methyl propan - 2 - ol B) Mixture of methanol + Ethanol
C) Mixture of 2 - propanol + methanol D) Mixture of ethanol + formic acid E) None of these
24. Acid-catalysed addition of methanol to 2-methyl propene gives
A) tert-Butyl alcohol B) tert - Butyl methyl ether
C) Di - tert - butyl ether D) Dimethyl ether E) None
25. 46 g of sodium on complete reaction with methanol would produce.......... of H
2
at N.T.P
A) 22.4 L B) 11.2 L C) 44.8 L D) 5.6 L E) 33.1 L
26. In the following compounds,
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
the order of acidity is :
A) III > IV > I > II B) I > IV > III > II
C) II > I > III > IV D) IV > III > I > II E) I > II > III > IV
27. Alcohols can be obtained from primary amines by :
A) Reaction with aquous KOH B) Fusion with KOH
C) Reaction with alcoholic KOH D) Reaction with NaNO
2
& HCl
E) Reaction with conc. H
2
SO
4
& conc. HNO
3
28. In the reaction given below, 2C
2
H
5
OH C
2
H
5
OC
2
H
5
+ H
2
O, which of the following is not a step
in the reaction mechanism:
A) Protonation of alcohol
B) Protonated alcohol react with unprotonated alcohol
C) Elimination of water molecule by the oxonium ion
D) Addition of water molecule
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29. In the reaction A Products, time required to complete 50% reaction was found to increases 9 times when
the concentration of the reactant was decreased to one - third. The rate law equation is
A)
j
j
1
2
d A
k A
dt
=
B)
j
j
d A
k A
dt
=
C)
j
j
2
d A
k A
dt
= D)
j
j
3
d A
k A
dt
= E)
j
j
0
d A
k A
dt
=
30. Half life of the reaction : H
2
O
2(aq)
H
2
O
(l)
+ 1/2O
2(g)
, is independent of initial concentration of H
2
O
2
. Volume
of O
2
gas after 20 minutes is 5L at 1 atm and 27
0
C, and after completion of the reaction 50L. The rate constant
A)
1
1
log10min
20

B)
1
2.303
log10 min
20

C)
1
2.303 50
log min
20 45

D)
1
2.303 45
log min
20 50

E)
1
2.303
log 2 min
20

31. For the reaction: 4KClO

3
3KClO
4
+ KCl if
j
j
4
3
1 3
d KClO
k KClO
dt

=
j
j
4
4
2 3
d KClO
k KClO
dt
=
j
j
4
3 3
d KCl
k KClO
dt
= , the correct relation between k
1
, k
2
and k
3
is
A) k
1
= k
2
= k
3
B) 4k
1
= 3k
2
= k
1
C) 3k
1
= 4k
2
= 12k
3
D) 2k
1
= k
1
= k
3
E) none of these
32. Half lives of the first order and zeroth order reaction are the same. Then the ratio of rates at the start of the
reaction is :
A) 0.693 B) 1/0.693 C) 2 0.693 D) 2/0.693 E) 0.5 0.693
33. For a first order reaction t
0.75
is 1386 S. Therefore the specific rate constant is :
A) 10
-1
s
-1
B) 10
-3
s
-1
C) 10
-2
s
-1
D) 10
-4
s
-1
E) 10
-5
s
-1
34. In a gaseous reaction
1
2 2(g) (g) (g)
A B C + the increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm is noticed in 5
min. Then the rate of disappearance of A
2
in mm min
-1
is
A) 8 B) 4 C) 6 D) 2 E) 16
35. The rate law for reaction between the substance A and B is given by Rate = k[A]
n
[B]
m
on doubling the
concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of reaction
will be
A) m + n B) n - m C) m - n D) 2
n-m
E)
1
m n
2
+
36. For the reaction
2 5 2 2
2N O 4NO O + rate of reaction in terms of O
2
is
j
2
d O
dt
= 2.5 10
5
. The rate
disappearance of N
2
O
5
will be
A)
5
5 10

B)
5
1.25 10

C)
5
2.5 10

D)
5
4 10

E)
5
25 10

(mol. L
1
s
1
)
37. A solution containing one mole per lit each of Cu(NO
3
)
2
. AgNO
3
, Hg
2
(NO
3
)
2
Mg(NO
3
)
2
and Al(NO
3
)
3
is
being electrolysed by using inert electrodes . The values of E
0
redn are Ag = 0.80 V Hg = 0.79 V Mg = -2.37
V Al = -1.66 V Cu = 0.34 V. The sequence of deposition of the metal at the cathode is
A) Mg , Al , Cu , Hg , Ag B) Mg , Al
C) Ag , Hg , Cu D) Cu , Ag , Hg E) Hg , Ag , Cu , Al
38. A current of 5 amp is passd through a molten salt of a metal for one hour.The mass of the metal deposited is
11g. What is the oxidation state of the metal in the given salt?
A) +2 B) +3 C) +4 D) +1 E) +6
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39. IO
3-
+ 6H
+
+ 6e
-
I
-
+ 3H
2
O E
0
= + 0.90V
IO
3-
+ 3H
2
O + 6e
-
I
-
+ 6OH
-
E
0
= + 0.26V
From the above data IO
3
-
is a better oxidizing agent in
A) Acidic medium B) Basic medium
C) Neutral Medium D) Both A& B E) Both B&C
40. A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because :
A) Hydrogen is easiest to oxidise
B) This electrode potential is assumed to be zero
C) Hydrogen atom has only one electron
D) Hydrogen is the lightest element
E) Both A & D
41. On electrolysing a solution of dil. H
2
SO
4
between Platinum electrodes, the gas evolved at the anode and
cathode are respectively :
A) SO
2
and O
2
B) SO
3
and H
2
C) O
2
and H
2
D) H
2
and O
2
E) O
2
and SO
2
42. The correct order of chemical reactivity with water according to electrochemical series is :
A) K > Mg > Zn > Cu B) Mg > Zn > Cu > K
C) K > Zn > Mg > Cu D) Cu > Zn > Mg > K
E) K > Zn > Mg > Cu
43. In a cell that utilises the reaction,
2
(s) (aq) (aq) 2(g)
Zn 2H Zn H
+ +
+ + addition of H
2
SO
4
to cathode compartment
will :
A) Increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left
B) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right
C) Increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right
D) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left
E) No change
44. When KMnO
4
acts as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms MnO
4
2-
, MnO
2
, Mn
2
O
3
and Mn
2+
then the
number of electrons transferred in each case respectively is :
A) 4, 3, 1, 5 B) 1, 5, 3, 7 C) 1, 3, 4, 5 D) 3, 5, 7, 1 E) 7, 4, 3, 1, 5
45. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO
4
solution and then Na
2
S
2
O
3
solution is added to it. Which of the statement is
incorrect in this reaction?
A) Evolved I
2
is reduced B) CuI
2
is formed C) Na
2
S
2
O
3
is oxidised
D) Cu
2
I
2
is formed E) Na
2
S
4
O
6
is formed
46. If the Zn
2+
/ Zn electrode is diluted to 100 times then the change in emf.
A) Increase by 59mV B) decrease by 59 mV
C) Increase of 29.5 mV D) decrease of 29.5 mV
E) No change in emf
47. In alkaline medium ClO
2
oxidises H
2
O
2
to O
2
and itself gets reduced to Cl

. How many moles of H

2
O
2
are
oxidised by one mole of ClO
2
?
A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2.5 D) 3.5 E) 5
48. Aluminium displaces hydrogen from dil. HCl whereas silver does not. The emf of the cell prepared by combining
Al | Al
3+
and Ag | Ag
+
is 2.46 V. The reduction potential of silver electrode is +0.80V. The reduction potential
of Aluminium electrode is :
A) +1.66V B) -3.26 V C) 3.26 V D) -1.66 V E) 0.66V
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49. The oxidation state of three bromine atoms in tribromoocta oxide (Br
3
O
8
) is :
A) +4, +4, +4 B) +6, +5, +6 C) +6, +4, +6 D) +3, +4, +3 E) +6, +6, +6
50. The ionic conductance of Ba
2+
and Cl

ions are respectively 127 and

1 2
76 cm

O at infinite dilution. The

equivalent conductance (in ohm
-1
cm
2
) of BaCl
2
at infinite dilution is :
A) 203 B) 279 C) 101.5 D) 139.5 E) 142.2
51. What will be the emf of given cell Pt, H
2 (P
1
)
/H
+
(aq)//H
+
(aq)
/H
2(P
2
)
Pt:
A)
1
2
P RT
ln
F P
B)
1
2
P RT
ln
2F P
C)
2
1
P RT
ln
F P
D)
2
1
P
RT.ln
P
E)
1
2
P
RT.ln
P
52. On the basis of the information available from the reaction
1
2 2 3
4 2
Al O Al O ; G 827kJmol
3 3

+ A =
, the
minimum EMF required to carry out the electrolysis of Al
2
O
3
A) 4.28 V B) 6.42 V C) 8.56 V D) 3.14 V E) 2.14 V
53. The metal which cannot be used for the cathodic protection of iron is:
A) Zn B) Al C) Ca D) Mg E) Cu
54. For the cell reaction
4 3 2 o
Cell
2Ce Co 2Ce Co , E
+ + +
+ + is 1.89V. If
2
o
Co / Co
E
+
is 0.28V, What is the value of
4 3
o
Ce / Ce
E
+ +
?
A) 2.17 V B) 1.61 V C) 1.89 V D) 0.28 V E) 2.17 V
55. If a reaction has an equilibrium constant K < 1, is E
o
positive or negative? What is the value of K when
o
E 0V? =
A) +ve, 0 B) ve, 0 C) +ve, 1 D) ve, 1 E) unpredictable, 0
56. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO
5
is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
57. Specific conductance of 0.1 M CH
3
COOH at 25
o
C is 3.9 x 10
4
ohm
1
cm
1
.
If , ,
3 3
H O CH COO and
+

at 25
o
C are 349.0 and 41.0 ohm
1
cm
2
mol
1
respectively, degree of
ionisation of CH
3
COOH at given concentration is:
A) 10 % B) 2.5 % C) 3 % D) 4 % E) 1 %
58. When zinc dust is added to MgCl
2
solution [E
0
Mg2+, Mg
= -2.4V and E
0
Zn2+, Zn
= -0.76V
A) Mg is precipitated B) Zinc dissolves in the solution
C) ZnCl
2
is formed D) Both B and C E) No reaction
59. The emf of a cell is measured by:
A) Voltmeter B) Potentiometer C) Galvanometer D) Ammeter E) None
Match the following
60. Column I Column II
(Compound) (Oxidation state
of sulphur)
A) Sulphurous acid (H
2
SO
3
) P) + 5
B) Peroxy mono sulphuric acid Q) + 3
(H
2
SO
5
)
C) Dithionic acid (H
2
S
2
O
6
) R) + 6
D) Dithionous acid (H
2
S
2
O
4
) S) + 4
A) A S; B R; C P; D Q B) A R; B Q; C P; D S
C) A S; B R; C Q; D P D) A R; B Q; C S; D P
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61. Commonly used antiseptic Dettol is a mixture of
A) o chlorophenozylenol + terpeneol B) o - cresol + terpeneol
C) phenol + terpeneol D) chlorozylenol + terpeneol E) none
62. Which one of the following is used to make non stickcook - wares?
A) Polystyrene B) Poly (ethylene terephthalate)
C) Polytetrafluoroethylene D) Poly (vinyl chloride) E) none
63. Which one of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and mood modification?
A) Diazepam B) Morphine
C) N Acetyl para aminophenol D) Tetrahydrocannabinol E) none
64. Which one of the following chemical units is certainly to be found in an enzyme?
A)
O
OH
O
HO
HO
O
B)
H
N C
O
C)
N
N
D)
O
O
R
O
O
R
O
R
O
E) none
65. The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is
A) 130 B) 36 C) 56 D) 86 E) none
66. In DNA the complementary bases are
A) adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
B) uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
C) adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine
D) adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil
E) none
67. Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which of the following represents its structure?
A)
2
n
CH CH
|
Cl
| |


\ .
B)
2
n
CH CH
|
CN
| |


\ .
C)
3
2
3
n
CH
|
CH C
|
COOCH
| |




\ .
D)
2
2 5
n
CH CH
|
COOC H
| |


\ .
E) none
68. Glycolysis is
A) Conversion of glucose to haem B) Oxidation of glucose to glutamate
C) Conversion of pyruvate to citrate D) Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
E) none
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69. Which one of the following structures represents the peptide chain?
A)
H O
| | ||
N C N C NH C NH
|| | |
O H

B)
H H
| | | | | | | |
N C C C C N C C C
|| | | | | | |
O

C)
H H H O
| | | | | | ||
N C C N C C N C C
| || | || |
O O

D)
H O H
| | | || | | | | |
N C C C N C C N C C C
| | | | | || | |
H O

E) none
70. A squence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?
A) Three B) Four C) One D) Two E) none
71. The monomer of the polymer
CH
2
C CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
C
CH
3
CH
3
is
A)
H
2
C C
CH
3
CH
3
B) CH
3
CH = CHCH
3
C) CH
3
CH = CH
2
D) (CH
3
)
2
C = C (CH
3
)
2
E) none
72. Bakelite is an example of
A) Elastomer B) Fibre C) Thermoplastic D) Thermosetting polymer E) None
73. A uniform electricfield pointing in positive y-direction exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the point
on the x-axis at x = 2cm and C be the point on the y-axis at y = 2cm. Then the potentials at the points A, B
and C satisfy:
A) V
A
< V
B
B) V
A
> V
B
C) V
A
< V
C
D) V
A
> V
C
E) V
A
= V
C
74. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged with 10c . Another uncharged sphere of radius 20cm is
allowed to touch it. After that if the spheres are separated, the surface density of charges on the spheres will
be in the ratio of
A) 1 : 4 B) 1 : 2 C) 1 : 3 D) 2 : 1 E) 2 : 3
75. Three condensers of capacity C each are joined first in series and then in parallel. The ratio of effective
capacity becomes n times, where n is :
A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 10 E) 12
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76. Two point charges +2 C and +6 C repel each other with a force of 12N. If a charge of 4C is given to each of
these charges, the force now is
A) zero B) 4N attractive
C) 4N repulsive D) 12 N attractive E) 12 N repulsive
77. A 2 f capacitor is charged to 100V and then its plates are connected by a conducting wire. The heat produced is:
A) 0.001 J B) 0.1 J C) 0.01 J D) 1 J E) 10 J
78. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic
energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
A) qEy
2
B) qE
2
y C) qEy D) q
2
Ey E) qEy
79. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of the cube
will be :
A)
0
8e
e
B)
0
16e
e
C)
0
e
e
D)
0
4e
e
E) zero
80. A soap bubble is charged to a potential of 16V. Its radius is then doubled. The potential of the bubble now will be:
A) 16 V B) 10 V C) 8 V D) 4V E) 2V
81. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The ratio of the energy stored and the energy drawn from the battery is:
A) 1:1 B) 1:2 C) 2:1 D) 4:1 E) 2:3
82. A soap bubble is given a positive charge. Its radius will:
A) Increase B) Decrease
C) Remain unchanged D) Oscillate E) None of these
83. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction different from that of an electric field, the path of the electron
is
A) a straight line B) a circle C) an ellipse D) a parabola E) none of these
84. If one gram of a solid there are
21
5 10
atoms. If one electrons is removed from every one of 0.01% of atoms
of the solid, charge gained by the solid would be
A) +0.08 C B) +0.8C C) 0.08C D) 0.8C E) 10 C
85. The graph between E and r for a conducting uniformly charged sphere of radius R is:
A) B) C) D) E) None
86. Static electricity is produced by:
A) Friction only B) Induction only
C) Friction and induction D) Chemical reaction only
E) Friction & Chemical reaction
87. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-section of wire is Q = 5t
2
+ 3t + 1. The value of
current at time t = 5 sec is
A) 9A B) 49 A C) 53 A D) 60 A E) 70 A
88. The resistance of the series combination of two resistance is S. When they are joined parallel the total resistance
is P. If S = nP, then the minimum possible value of n is
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 5
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
89. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material connected in parallel.
If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of
4
3
and
2
3
, then the ratio of currents passing through the
wires will be
A) 3 : 1 B) 1 : 3 C) 8 : 9 D) 2 : 1 E) 1 : 2
90. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is
A) 1A B) 2A C) 4A D) 6A E) 8A
91. In a given current distribution what is the value of I
A) 3A B) 8A C) 2A D) 5A E) 6A
92. The colour code for a resistance 3700 O 10%
A) orange, violet, red, silver B) red, grey, red, silver
C) brown, violet, yellow, silver D) orange, red, red, silver
E) yellow, green, blue, silver
93. No force is exerted by magneticfield on a stationary
A) electric dipole B) magnetic dipole C) current loop D) current carrying conductor E) None
94. A wire of length 2m carries a current of 1 ampere is bend to form a circle. The magnetic moment of the coil is
A)
2t
B)
2
t
C)
4
t
D) t E)
1
t
95. A
36O
galvanometer is shunted by a resistance of 4O . The percentage of total current, which passes
through the galvanometer is
A) 91% B) 10% C) 9% D) 8% E) 7%
96. Neutrons enter a magnetic field B in different direction with same speed V. Which of the following statement
is true
A) No force acts on the neutrons
B) Force is maximum when the angle between B and V is 90
0
C) Force is maximum when the angle between B and is 0
0
D) Force is maximum when the angle between B and is 60
0
E) Force is maximum when the angle between B and is 30
0
97. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not depend on
A) Shape of the loop B)Area of the loop
C) Number of turns in the loop D) Strength of the current
E) Strength of magnetic field
98. A straight thin conductor is bent as shown in the adjoining figure. It carries a current i ampere. The radius of
the circular arc is r metre, then the magnetic induction at the centre of the semicircular arc is:
A) zero B) C)

t
o
i
r
tesla
4
D)

t
t
o
i
r
tesla
4
E)

t
t
0
4 2
i
r
tesla
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
99. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 3.0 Am
2
is placed in a uniform magnetic induction field of
5
2 10 T

.
If each pole of the magnet experiences a force of
4
6 10 N

, the length of the magnet is

A) 0.5 m B) 0.3 m C) 0.2 m D) 0.1 m E) 1 m
100. A current carrying circular coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field with the plane of the coil normal to the
field. Then for the coil
A) The torque is maximum B) P.E is maximum
C) P.E minimum D) P.E may be maximum or minimum
E) None
101. If the total magnetic field due to earth is
1
28Am

, then total magnetic induction due to earth is

A) 28T B) 0.352T C) 0.353 gauss D) 28 gauss E) 30 gauss
102. When a material becomes super conducting it will become:
A) perfect diamagnetic B) perfect paramagnetic
C) perfect ferromagnetic D) perfect antiferromagnetic
E) perfect ferrimagnetic
103. A heating coil is labelled 100W, 220V. The coil is cut in half and two pieces are joined in parallel to same
source. The enegy now liberated per second is
A) 25J B) 50J C) 200J D) 300J E) 400J
104. Two electric bulbs one of 200V, 40 W and other of 200V, 100W are connected in domestic circuit. Then
A) They have equal resistance
B) The resistance of 40W bulb is more than 100W bulb
C) They have equal current through them
D) The resistance of 100W bulb is more than 40W bulb
E) Data not sufficient
105. Water boils in an electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching on. If length of heating wire is decreased to
2/3 of its initial value then same amount of water will boil with same supply voltage in
A) 8 min B) 10 min C) 12min D) 15min E) 18min
106. Heat developed in an electric wire of resistance R by current of I A for a time t s is:
A)
I Rt
calories
2
4 2 .
B)
I t
R
calories
2
4 2 .
C)
I R
t
calories
2
4 2 .
D)
Rt
I
calories
4 2
2
.
E)
I
Rt
2
4 2 .
calories
107. The value of internal resistance of an ideal cell is:
A) high B) low C) infinite D) zero E) none
108. Kirchoffs loop rule is based on the principle of conservation of :
A) charge B) energy C) momentum D) mass E) none
109. Two identical coils carry equal currents and have a common centre, but their planes are at right angles to
each other. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at the centre if the field due to one coil is B alone
A) zero B)
B/ 2
C)
2 B
D) 2B E) B/2
110. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the centre of
the coil is B. It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be
A) 2nB B) n
2
B C) nB D) 2n
2
B E) 3nB
111. The unit of magnetic field induction is
A) Wb/m
2
B) A/m
2
C) A
2
/m D) Wb
2
/m
2
E) Wb
2
/m
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
112. If only 2% of the main current is to be passed through a galvanometer of resistance G, then the resistance of
shunt will be:
A)
G
50
B)
G
49
C) 50 G D) 49 G E) 60 G
113. A magnet of magnetic moment 50 i Am
2
is placed along the x- axis in a magnetic field , B 0.5i 3.0j T = +

.
The torque acting on the magnet is
A) 175

k
N-m B) 150

k
N-m C) 75

k
N-m D) 250
k
N-m E) 100
k
N-m
114. The coercivity of a bar magnet is 120A/m . It is to be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid of length
120cm and number of turns 72, the current flowing through the solenoid is
A) 1A B) 0.5A C) 2A D) 3A E) 5A
115. Torque
1
t and
2
t are required for a magnetic needle to remain perpendicular to magnetic fields B
1
and B
2
at
two different places. The ratio
1
2
B
B
is
A)
2
1
t
t
B)
1
2
t
t
C)
1 2
1 2
t + t
t t
D)
2
1
1 2
t t
t +t
E)
2
1
t + t
116. Which of the following shows that earth behaves as a magnet
A) Repulsion of like poles
B) attraction of unlike poles
C) formation of null points in the magneticfield of a bar magnet
D) non existance of isolated magnetic monopoles
E) spherical shape of earth
117. A large magnet is broken in to two pieces so that their lengths are is the ratio 2:1. The pole strengths of the
two pieces will have the ratio
A) 2:1 B) 1:2 C) 4:1 D) 1:1 E) 1:3
118. Two magnets have the same length and the same pole strength. But one of the magnets has a small hole at its
centre. Then
A) both have equal magnetic moment
B) one with hole has smaller magnetic moment
C) one with hole has larger magnetic moment
D) one with hole loses magnetism through the hole
E) none
119. At certain place, horizontal component is
3
times the vertical component. The angle of dip at the place is
A) 0 B)
3
t
C)
6
t
D)
2
t
E) none
120. At certain place, the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field is B
0
and the angle of dip is 45
o
. The
total intensity of the field at that place will be
A) B
0
B)
0
2B C) 2B
0
D) B
0
2
E) 3B
0
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D Bauxite is concentrated by leaching with hot NaOH solution
5. A
6. A Self reduction involved in Cu and Pb
7. D During electrolytic refining of Cu, anode mud contains Ag and Au as impurity
8. B Argentite, Ag
2
S is concentrated by leaching with NaCN solution in presence of air
j
2 2 2 2
2Ag S 8NaCN O 2H O 4Na Ag(CN) 4NaOH 2S + + + + +
9. A Reaction (A) does not take place in blast furnace. The actual reaction that takes place at >1123 K
is :
1123K
2 3
Fe O 3C 2Fe 3CO
>
+ +
10. C Amalgamation method is used for the extraction of noble metals like Au, Ag from native ores
11. B Invar (Fe = 64%, Ni = 36%) has small coefficient of expansion
12. D
3 3 3
CH CO CH CH MgBr + 2
H O/ H
+

13. C The carbocation resulting from p-methoxy benzyl bromine is stabilized by resonance and hence it is
most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
14. A
15. C + 2HBr Br CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
Br + H
2
O
16. B Secondary alcohols on oxidation form ketones.
17. B
18. B
2
H
H O
+

H
+

19. D
20. E
21. C
2 5 5 2 5 3
C H OH PCl C H Cl POCl HCl + + +
2 5 2 2 5 2
C H Cl AgNO C H NO AgCl + +
22. C
23. C
Brilliant
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
STUDY CENTRE
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
Paper I - Key with Hints
KERALA CEE MEDICAL MODEL-3 UNIT I
30 - 01 - 2012 Batch: C, D, E, F, G, H, L, J, K
M1
Version
Code
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
24. B
Markownikov's
3 addition
CH O H
o o+
+
25. A
3 3 2
46g
1mol
2Na 2CH OH 2CH ONa H + +
; Volume of 1 mole of H
2
= 22.4L in NTP
26. D
27. D
28. D
29. D
,
,
j
j
n 1
n 1
3
1/ 2 n 1 2 n 1 2 1
1/ 2 2
1
t d A
a 1
; 9 3 ; 3 3 ; n 3; k A
t a 1/ 3 dt

| |
| |
= = = = = =

\ .
\ .
30. C t
1 2
is independet of initial concentration a, for first order reaction x oV
t
= ( = 5L at t = 20 minutes)
,
f
a V 50L at completion o = = ;
2.303 a 2.303 50
k log log
t a x 20 45
= =

31. C
j j j
3 4
d KClO d KClO d KCl
1 1
Rate
4 dt 3 dt dt
= = =
or j j j j
4 4 4 4
l 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 3
k k
KClO KClO k KClO k KClO or 3k 4k 12k
4 3
= = = = =
32. C
, ,
j
0
1/ 2 1/ 2
1 0
1 0
A
0.693
t , t
k 2k
= =
;
j
1
0
1 1 0 0 0
r k A , r k [A] = =
33. B
0.75 1/ 2 1/ 2
1386
t 2t ; t 6935
2
= = =
;
3 1
0.693
k 1 10 s
693

= =
34. A
2
A g Bg 1/ 2Cg + ;
2
d[A ] d[c]
2
dt dt

=
Increase in pressure only due to the formation of c
1
dc 120 100
4mmmin
dt 5

= =
;
1
dA
8mmmin
dt

=
35. D Earlier rate = ka
n
b
m
; New rate =
n m
1
k 2a b
2
;
n n m m
n m n m
n m
new rate 2 a b 2
2 2 2
earlier rate a b

= = =
36. A
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. A
43. C
44. C
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
45. B
4 2 2 2 4 2
2CuSO 4KI Cu I 2K SO I + + + ;
2 2 2 3 2 4 6
I 2Na S O Na S O 2NaI + +
46. A
cell
0.059 1 0.059 1 0.059
E log log ( 2) 59mV
n c 2 100 2

= = = =
7
47. C The net reaction is
2 2 2 2 2
2ClO 5H O 2OH 2Cl 5O 6H O

+ + + +
Thus,
2 2 2 2 2 2
2ClO 5H O or ClO 2.5H O
48. D
3
Al | Al || Ag | Ag
+ +
; 3
o o o
cell
Ag |Ag Al |Al
E E E
+ +
=
or 2.46 = 0.80 - 3
o
Al |Al
E
+ or 3
o
Al |Al
E
+ = -1.66 V
49. C
O Br
Br
Br
O
O
O
O
O
O
O
+6
+6
+4
50. B 2
o o o
m 2
Ba cl
(BaCl ) 2

. = + = 127 + 2 76 =
1 2 1
279 cm mol

O
51. B , ,
2 1
H P 2H 2e oxdn
+
+
,
2 2
2H 2e H P redn
+
+ ; , ,
2 1 2 2
H P H P
0 2 2
1 1
P P RT RT
E E ln 0 ln
hF P 2F P
= =
or
1
2
P RT
ln
2F P
52. E
0 0 0
827000
G nF , 827 4 96500 E ; E 2.14V
4 96500
0
E A = = = =

53. E
54. B
55. D
56. E
57. E ,
4
C 1 2 1
m 3
3.9 10 1000
CH COOH 3.9ohm cm mol
0.1

. = =
58. E
59. B
60. A
61. D The mixture of chlorozylenol and terepeneol are dettol which is used as antiseptic
62. C We know that polytetrafluoroethylene or teflon is a tough material, resistance to heat and bad conduc-
tor of electricity. Therefore it is used for coating the cookware to make them non - sticky.
63. C We know that N - acetyl - para - aminophenol (or paracetamol) is an atnipyretic which can also be
used as an analgesic to relieve pains.
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12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
64. B Peptide bonds are present in enzyme
H
|
N C
||
O
(
(
(
(
(

65. A We know that in the lipid metabolism, when palmitic acid is oxidised, then two carbon fragments are
removed sequentially to form acetyl coenzyme. It enters the citric acid cycle for production of 130
ATP.
66. A In DNA, adenine faces thymine and guanine faces cytosine
67. B Acrilan is a polyacrylonitrile (PAN)
68. D It is a common pathway for both the aerobic & anaerobic respiration in which 1 glucose molecule is
converted to 2 molecules of pyruvate.
69. C Peptide chains are characterized by
O
||
C NH
linkage and grouping
O
||
C
and NH at the two
ends.
70. A A particular sequence of three nucleotides makes a codon for an amino acid
71. A Addition of monomers follows isoprene rule
CH
3
CH
3
C
CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
C CH
2
H
T
H T
CH
3
C
CH
2
C
CH
3
CH
2
CH
3
CH
3
72. D
73. D An electric field represents the direction of motion of positive charge, which is from higher
potential to lower potential, therefore V
A
= V
B
and V
A
> V
C
74. D Common potential,
1 2
1 2 0 0
q q 10 10 10
V
c c 4 (0.1 0.2) 4 (0.3)
+ +
= = =
+ te + te
Charges after contact,
/
1 1 0
0
10 10
q C V 4 (0.1)
4 (0.3) 3
= = te =
te
/
2 2 0
0
10 20
q C V 4 (0.2)
4 (0.3) 3
= = te =
te
2
2
/ / 2 /
1 1 2 1 2
/ 2 1 1
2 1 2 2 1
q 4 r q r 10 3 0.2 1
4 2:1
4 r q q r 3 20 0.1 2
| | o t | |
= = = = =

o t
\ .
\ .
75. C s p
3
1 1 1 1 3
or C C/ 3, C 3C
C C C C C
= + + = = =
p
s
C
3C
9 or n 9
C C/ 3
= = =
76. B
/ /
2 1 2
1 1 2
F q q ( 2 4) ( 6 4) 4
F q q ( 2) ( 6) 12
+ +
= = =
+ +
2
2
F 4
F 4N
12 12

= =
77. C Heat produced = Energy stored =
2 6 2 2
1 1
CV 2 10 (10 ) 0.01J
2 2

= =
78. C K.E. acquired = work done = force x distance = qE x y = qEy
79. E
80. C As
1
v
r
o
and r is doubled, therefore, potential becomes half, equal to 8V
81. B
82. A
83. D The path is a parabola, because initial velocity can be resolved into two rectangular components, one
along E and other
r
to E. The former decreases at a constant rate and the latter is uneffected. The
resultant path is therefore a parabola.
84. A n =
21
0.01
5 10
100

; q = ne =
21 19
.01
5 10 1.6 10
100

85. B
86. C
87. C
dq
I
dt
=
88. A S = R
1
+ R
2
, P =
1 2
1 2
R R
,S nP
R R
=
+
;
1 2
1 2
1 2
R R
R R n
R R
+ =
+
or
2 2
1 2 1 2 1 2
R R 2R R nR R + + = ; j
2
1 2 1 2
or (R R ) R R n 4 =
If
1 2
R R , = then n 4 = 0 or n = 4
89. B In parallel combination i
1
R
1
= i
2
R
2
;
2
2
1 2 2 1
2
2 1 1 2
i R (r ) 3 2 1
i R (r ) 4 3 3
| |
= = = =

\ .

90. C The equivalent circuit is ;

6V
R 1.5 ;1 4A
1.5R
= O = =
O
91. C
92. A
93. A
94. E
2
2
1 1
M IA I r 1
| |
= = t = t =

t t
\ .
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
95. B
g g
g g
1 G 36I
I I 9I
s 4

= = = ; or I = 10 I
g
% of total current passed through galvanometer =
g
I
1
100 100 10%
I 10
= =
96. A
97. A
98. D
99. D
M
F mB B = =

100. D
101. C
7 7 3
0
B H 4 10 28 352 10 T 352 10 G

= = t = =
102. A
103. E
104. B Domestic circuit are made in parallel.

V same,
2
v 1
p , p
R r
=
105. B t o
106. A
107. D
108. B
109. C The direction of the fileds are at right angles to each other. ;
2 2
B B B 2B = + =
110. B
111. A
112. B
113. B m B ( t =

114. C Coercivity = H = ni,
72
n 100 60
120
= =
,
H 120
i 2
n 60
= = =
115. B mBsin mBsin 90 mB t= 0= = ,
1 1 2 2
mB & mB t = t = ;
1 1
2 2
B
B
t
=
t
116. C
117. D Pole strength doesnot depend on length
118. B Hole reduces effective length of the magnet, hence magnetic moment reduces
119. C
v v 1
tan
H 3 v 3
o= = =
;
o
30
6
t
o= =
120. B
o
0
B H
R 2 B
cos cos 45
= = =
o
FT
12N
/MED/MOD[M1]/[BV+CKV+REK] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE