Ecology test regionals 2009 Sci DIy [Answer Strip]

ID: A

1.

7.

A 13.

B 20.

C 27.

E 2.

A 21. C 8: D 14.

E 28.

B 22. C 3. E 29. B 9. D 15.

D 23. B 30. E 10. B 4. B 24. D 11. B 17. E 31. E 16.

5. C 18. A 25. C 32.

6.

D 12.

D 19. D 26.

D 33.

Ecology test regionals 2009 Sci Oly [Answer Strip]

D 34. D 41. A 48. D 59.

ID: A

E 49.
E 35.

E 42: C 60.

B 36.

E 43.

E 50.

B 61. D 55.

A 37.

C 44. A 51. A 56. E 62.

B 38.

D 45. E 52.
B 57.

C 63.

39.

46. D 53.
C

64.

E E 40. D 47. A 54.

58.

Ecology test regionals 2009 Sci Diy [Answer Strip]

D 76. A 83. B 90.

ID: A

D 84. A 77. E 70. C 91.

B 78. A 65. D 71.

E 85. E 92.

B 86. E 79. E 66. A 72. C 93.

C 80. D 67. B 73. B 87. B 94.

E 81. B 68. A 74. B 88. E 95.

C 82. D 69. E 75. D 89. D 96.

Ecology test regionals 2009 Sci DIy [Answer Strip]

B 97. D 103. C 108. A 114. A 118.

ID: A

A 104. C 98.

C 109.

A 115.

D 119.

A 120. D 99. E 116.

A 110. C 121. D 100.

D 111. A 105.

C 122.

B 112. C 106.

B 123.

B 101. A 107. D 113. E 117. B 102. A 124.

Ecology test.regionals 2009 Sci Oly [Answer Strip]

D 125. D 129. D 136. D 143. A 148.

ID:A

B 130.

C 137. B 144. C 149.

D 126. D 131. C 138. E 145. A 150. D 127. A 139.

C 132.

D 140.

D 133. B 146.

B 128.

D 134.

D 141. C 147.

D 135.

D 142.

~,,,

. .,

ID: A

Name:

Ecology test regionals 2009 Sci Oly

Multiple Choice ( nJ all IdentifY the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. I L '
$f/IJo#r ~

Ot\TD

an S ~

S J ....: I

1. Important abiotic factors in ecosystems include which of the following? a. temperature b. water c. wind d. A and Conly e. A, B, and C 2. "How does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?" This question a. is a valid ecological question. b. is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required. c. is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C are correct. 3. Which ofthe following statements about ecology is incorrect? a. Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. b. Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers. c. Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history. d. Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems. e. Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment 4. Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? a. community, ecosystem, individual, population b. ecosystem, community, population, individual c. population, ecosystem, individual, community d. individual, population, community, ecosystem e. individual, community, population, ecosystem 5. Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except a. population. b. cellular. c. organismal. d. ecosystem. e. community. 6. Introduced species a. often fail to colonize the new area. b. may become common enough to become pests. c. can disrupt the balance of the natural species with which they become associated. d. Band Conly e. A, B, and C are all correct.

Name: __________________________

ID: A

7. Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? a. precipitation, wind b. nutrient availability, soil pH c. predation, competition d. temperature, water e. light intensity, seasonality 8. Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals? a. water b. wind c. temperature d. rocks and soil e. disturbances 9. All of the following would have a direct effect on the amount of precipitation in an area except a. air circulation cells. b. continental drift. c. ocean currents. d. mountain ranges. e. evaporation from vegetation. 10. Westerly winds in temperate zones are the result of a. descending air masses flowing toward the poles. b. the rotation of Earth. c. the unequal speed ofland moving through space at the equator and the poles. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C 11. In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes (compared with south-facing slopes) would be expected to a. receive more sunlight. b. be warmer and drier. c. support biological communities similar to those found at lower elevations and higher latitudes. d. support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations and higher latitudes. e. Band Conly 12. Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? a. sunlight b. precipitation c. day length d. ocean currents e. salinity

Name:

ID:A

13. Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude or at different latitudes in the interior of continents. This supports the idea that a. descending air masses tend to be dry. b. trade winds have a little moisture. c. water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. d. ascending air tends to be moist. e. these locations get more than their share of sunlight. 14. In an altitudinal gradient, all ofthe following would change in the same way as in a latitudinal gradient except a. temperature. b. humidity. c. vegetation. d. day length. e. communities. 15. Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually a. cold. b. humid. c. nsmg. d. falling. e. expanding. 16. Which of the following causes Earth's seasons? a. global air circulation b. global wind patterns c. ocean currents d. changes in Earth's distance from the sun e. the tilt of Earth's axis 17. Polar regions are cooler than the equator because a. there is more ice at the poles. b. sunlight strikes the poles at an oblique angle. c. the poles are farther from the sun. d. the poles have a thicker atmosphere. e. the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun. 18. The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by a. whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores. b. their tolerance to shade. c. their seed dispersal rate. d. their size. e. their growth rate. 19. As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that a. have wind-dispersed seeds. b. have animal-dispersed seeds. c. produce well-provisioned seeds. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A 20. Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? a. pelagic b. abyssal c. neritic d. continental shelf e. intertidal 21. The benthic zone it) an aquatic biome a. often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus. b. is the site of most photosynthesis within the biome. c. is where one would most expect to find a thermocline. d. Band Conly e. A, B, and C 22. Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones? a. oligotrophic b. photic c. benthic d. abyssal e. aphotic 23. You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to watch underwater organisms both close up and far away. You would do well to choose a. a nutrient-poor lake. b. a nutrient-rich lake. c. a relatively deep lake. d. A and Conly e. Band Conly 24. You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best biome in which to conduct such a study is a. mountains. b. an intertidal zone. c. a flver. d. tropical forest. e. an eutrophic lake. 25. If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except a. deep-sea vent communities. b. coral reef communities. c. benthic communities. d. pelagic communities. e. estuary communities. 26. Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are) a. wind and water current patterns. b. species diversity. c. community succession. d. climate. e. day length and rainfall.

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A 27. An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n) a. littoral zone. b. vertically stratified canopy. c. ecotone. d. abyssal zone. e. cline. 28. Which of the foll0'Ying statements about biomes is incorrect? a. Biomes are major terrestrial communities. b. Within biomes there may be extensive patchiness. c. Climographs are often used to demonstrate climatic differences among biomes. d. Temperature and precipitation account for most of the variation between biomes. e. Biomes can be recognized as separate entities because they have sharp, well-defined boundaries. 29. Which of the following terrestrial biomes is (are) adapted to frequent fires? a. savanna b. chaparral c. temperate grasslands d. only A and B e. A, B, and C 30. Fire suppression by humans a. will always result in an increase in the number of species in a given biome. b. can change the species composition within biological communities. c. will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use. d. is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. e. both C and D 31. Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall? a. tropical rain forest b. temperate forest c. chaparral d. taiga e. savanna 32. Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as a. taigas. b. tundras. c. savannas. d. chaparrals. e. temperate plains. 33. Which type ofbiome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers? a. desert b. taiga c. temperate grassland d. chaparral e. savanna

Name: A

ID:

34. In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods? a. tropical forest b. coral reef c. savanna d. temperate forest e. abyssal 35. The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? a. savanna b. temperate broadleaf forest c. temperate grassland d. tropical rain forest e. taiga 36. Which of the following best explains why energy cannot cycle through an ecosystem? a. the law of conservation of energy b. the second law of thermodynamics c. the competitive exclusion principle d. the green world hypothesis e. the principle ofbiomagnification 37. A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) a. pnmary consumer. b. secondary consumer. c. decomposer. d. autotroph. e. producer. 38. To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is a. producers. b. producers and decomposers. c. producers, primary consumers, and decomposers. d. producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers. e. producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers. 39. Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? a. heterotrophs b. herbivores c. carnIVores d. primary consumers e. secondary consumers 40. Production, consumption, and decomposition are important ecosystem processes. Which of the following could be decomposers? a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. invertebrates d. A and Conly e. A, B, and C

Name:

ID: A

41. Which of the following are responsible for most of the conversion of organic materials into e C h ,which can be
utilized in primary production? a. autotrophs b. bacteria c. fungi d. Band e only e. A, B, and e The main decomposers in an ecosystem are a. fungi. b. plants. c. insects. d. prokaryotes. e. both A and D The producers in ecosystems include organisms in which of the following groups? a. prokaryotes b. algae c. plants d. Band e only e. A, B, and e Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity? a. the energy contained in the standing crop b. the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration c. the energy used by autotrophs in respiration d. the energy fixed by photosynthesis e. all solar energy The difference between net and gross primary productivity would likely be greatest for a. phytoplankton in the ocean. b. com plants in a farmer's field. c. prame grasses. d. an oak tree in a forest. e. sphagnum moss in a bog. Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary productivity? a. tundra b. savanna c. salt marsh d. open ocean e. tropical rain forest Which ofthese ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter? a. savanna b. open ocean c. boreal forest d. tropical rain forest e. temperate forest

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

Name:

ID:A

48. Which of the following organisms fix nitrogen in aquatic ecosystems? a. cyanobacteria b. chemoautotrophs c. phytoplankton d. legumes e. fungi 49. The amount of che1)1ical energy in consumers' food that is converted to their own new biomass during a given time period is called a. biomass. b. standing crop. c. biomagnification. d. primary production. e. secondary production. 50. Trophic efficiency is a. the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production. b. the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next. c. the ratio of net production at one trophic level to the net production at the level below, expressed as a percentage. d. usually greater than production efficiencies. e. both Band C 51. Which of the following pyramids cannot be inverted? a. production b. biomass c. numbers d. A and B only e. A, B, and C 52. If you wanted to convert excess grain into the greatest amount of animal biomass, to which animal would you feed the grain? a. chickens b. mice c. cattle d. carp (a type of fish) e. mealworms (larval insects) 53. Organisms in which of the following groups can be primary producers? a. cyanobacteria b. zooplankton c. flowering plants d. A and Conly e. A, B, and C 54. In general, the total biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem will be greatest for which trophic level? a. producers b. herbivores c. pnmary consumers d. tertiary consumers e. secondary consumers

Name:

ID: A

Refer to the figure below, a diagram of a food web, for the following questions. (Arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species.)

55. If this were a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of C + D would probably be
a. greater than the biomass of A. b. less than the biomass ofH. c. greater than the biomass ofB. d. less than the biomass of A + B. e. less than the biomass of E. 56. If this were a marine food web, the smallest organism might be a. A.

b. F. c. C. d. 1. e. E. 57. For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same-they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that a. secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers. b. at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive. c. as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment. d. biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores. e. top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers. 58. Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? a. Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. b. Most predators require large home ranges. c. Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems. d. Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition. e. Each energy transfer is less than 100% efficient.

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A

59. Which of the following statements about energy flow is incorrect?

a. b. c. d. Secondary productivity declines with each trophic level. Only net primary productivity is available to consumers. About 90% of the energy at one trophic level does not appear at the next. Eating meat is probably the most economical way of acquiring the energy of photosynthetic productivity. e. Only about one-thousandth of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis reaches a tertiary-level consumer. In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N2 are a. Rhizobium bacteria. b. nitrifying bacteria. c. denitrifying bacteria. d. methanogenic protozoans. e. nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling? a. The phosphorus cycle involves the rapid recycling of atmospheric phosphorus. b. The phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary cycle that involves the weathering of rocks. c. The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily reflects the burning of fossil fuels. d. The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO2 for the past million years. e. The nitrogen cycle involves movement of nitrogen very little of which is chemically altered by either the biotic or abiotic components of the ecosystem. Human-induced modifications ofthe nitrogen cycle can result in a. eutrophication of freshwater ecosystems. b. increased availability of fixed nitrogen to primary producers. c. accumulation of toxic levels of nitrates in groundwater. d. A and Conly e. A, B, and C The high levels of pesticides found in birds of prey is an example of a. eutrophication. b. predation. c. biological magnification. d. the green world hypothesis. e. chemical cycling through an ecosystem. If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain from seaweeds to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following is true? a. Polar bears can provide more food for people than seals can. b. The total energy content of the seaweeds is lower than that ofthe seals. c. Polar bear meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins. d. Seals are more numerous than fish. e. The carnivores can provide more food for people than the herbivores can.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

10

Name:

ID: A

Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Each letter is a species. The arrows represent energy flow.

/B~
~C

~1/
E 01{

~D

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

Which species is autotrophic? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Which species is most likely the decomposer? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Excluding the decomposer, biomass would probably be smallest for which species? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

11

Name:

ID: A

The following questions refer to the organisms in a grassland ecosystem listed below. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. B. C. D. E. 70. hawks snakes shrews grasshoppers' grass

an autotroph a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E an herbivore a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E smallest biomass a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E tertiary consumer a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E probably contains the highest concentration oftoxic pollutants (biological magnification) a. A b. B c. C

71.

72.

73.

74.

d. D
e. E

75. All of the following are likely results ofland-clearing operations such as deforestation and agricultural activity
except a. destruction of plant and animal habitats. b. erosion of soil due to increased water runoff. c. leaching of minerals from the soil. d. rapid eutrophication of streams and lakes. e. decreased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

12

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A 76. Which of the following statements is consistent with the competitive exclusion principle? a. Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites. b. The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. c. Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. d. Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of inferior speCIes. e. Evolution tends to increase competition between related species. 77. The presence of all of the following tend to increase species diversity except a. competitive exclusion. b. keystone predators. c. patchy environments. d. moderate disturbances. e. migration of populations. 78. According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same a. habitat. b. niche. c. territory. d. range. e. biome. 79. The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its a. habitat. b. logistic growth. c. biotic potential. d. micro climax. e. ecological niche. 80. An insect that has evolved to resemble a plant twig will probably be able to avoid a. parasitism. b. symbiosis. c. predation. d. competition. e. commensalism. 81. Which ofthe following is an example of cryptic coloration? a. bands on a coral snake b. brown color of tree bark c. markings of a viceroy butterfly d. colors of an insect-pollinated flower e. a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig 82. Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry? a. an insect that resembles a twig b. a butterfly that resembles a leaf c. a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake d. a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment e. a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish

13

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A 83. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration? a. stripes of a skunk b. eye color in humans c. green color of a plant d. colors of an insect-pollinated flower e. a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf 84. Two species of ins~cts from different geographic areas display characteristic black and red stripes. Which of the following is unlikely to be related to this phenomenon? a. aposematic coloration b. convergent evolution c. common ancestry d. mimicry e. defense against a predator 85. Which of the following is least likely to kill the organism it feeds on? a. herbivore b. predator c. seed eater d. carnivore e. parasite 86. Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees? a. mutualism b. parasitism c. commensalism d. facilitation e. competition 87. Which of the following is not an example of a plant defense against herbivory? a. nicotine b. cryptic coloration c. spmes d. thorns e. strychnine 88. The oak tree pathogen Phytophthora ramorum migrated 650 km in ten years. West Nile virus spread from New York to 46 others states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to a. how lethal each pathogen is. b. the mobility of their hosts. c. the fact that viruses are very small. d. innate resistance. e. none of the above 89. All of the following represent ways that animals defend themselves against predators except a. incorporating plant toxins into their tissues. b. cryptic coloration. c. mobbing. d. interspecific competition. e. hiding or fleeing.

14

Name:

ID: A

90. Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut? a. commensalism b. mutualism c. competitive exclusion d. ectoparasitism e. endoparasitism 91. Which of the following types of species interaction is incorrectly paired to its effects on the density of the two interacting populations? a. predation-one increases, one decreases b. parasitism-one increases, one decreases c. commensalism-both increase d. mutualism-both increase e. competition-both decrease 92. Which of the following statements about communities is not correct? a. Many plant species in communities seem to be independently distributed. b. Some animal species distributions within a community are linked to other species. c. The distribution of almost all organisms is probably affected, to some extent, by both abiotic gradients and interactions with other species. d. Ecologists refer to species richness as the number of species within a community. e. The trophic structure of a community describes abiotic factors such as rainfall and temperature affecting members of the community. 93. With a few exceptions, most ofthe food chains studied by ecologists have a maximum of how many links?
a. 2

b.

c. 5 d. 10
e. 15

94. Which of the following members of a marine food chain is most analogous to a grasshopper in a terrestrial food chain? a. phytoplankton b. zooplankton c. detritivore d. fish e. shark 95. Consider a field plot containing 200 kg of plant material. Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported? a. 200 b. 100 c. 20 d. 10 e. 2 96. The dominant species in a community is a. characterized by very large individuals with long lives. b. the best competitor in the community. c. the best predator in the community. d. the population with the most biomass. e. the most energetically efficient species in the community.
15

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A
97. In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) a. community facilitator. b. keystone species. c. herbivore. d. resource partitioner. e. mutualistic organism. 98. If you wanted to alter the structure of a bottom-up community, your best bet would be to a. remove the top predators. b. remove the trees and shrubs. c. add plenty of fertilizer. d. add more predators. e. reduce the number of primary producers. In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was a. equilibrium. b. facilitation. c. immigration. d. inhibition. e. mutualism. 100. You are most likely to observe primary succession when you visit a(n) a. tropical rain forest. b. abandoned field. c. old riverbed. d. fairly recent volcanic island. e. deep sea vent. 99.

Refer to the list of terms below to answer the following questions. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. B. C. D. E. parasitism mutualism inhibition facilitation commensalism

101. the relationship between ants and acacia trees a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 102. the relationship between legumes and nitrogen-fixing bacteria a. A b. B c. C

d. e.

D E
16

Name:
103. successional event in which one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

ID:A

104. the relationship bet~veen the larvae of small wasps and caterpillars a. A b. B c. C d. D
e. E

Refer to the diagram below of five islands formed at about the same time near a particular mainland to answer the following questions.

Mainland I

D
E D

c=J

C J

105. island with the greatest number of species a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 106. island with the least number of species a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 107. island with the lowest extinction rate a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

17

Name: 108. island with the lowest immigration rate

a. A

ID:A

b. c.

B C

d. D
e. E 109. A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. II. III. inhabiting the same general area individuals belonging to the same species possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

110.

111.

112.

113.

a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II, and III A biologist reported that a sample of ocean water had 5 million diatoms of the species Coscinodiscus centralis per cubic meter. What was the biologist measuring? a. density b. dispersion c. carrying capacity d. quadrats e. range All of the following phrases could characterize a population except a. interacting individuals. b. dispersion. c. density. d. several species. e. boundaries. To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be a. 200. b. 500. c. 1,000. d. 10,000. e. 900,000. Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with a. chance. b. patterns of high humidity. c. the random distribution of seeds. d. antagonistic interactions among individuals in the population. e. the concentration of resources within the population's range.

18

Name:
114. Which of the following would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? a. red squirrels, which hide food and actively defend territories b. cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams c. dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest trees d. tassel-eared squirrels, which are nonterritorial e. lake trout, which seek out deep water 115. A table listing such, items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is known as a (an) . a. life table. b. mortality table. c. survivorship table. d. rate table. e. insurance table. 116. Life tables are useful in determining which of the following? 1. carrying capacity II. mortality rates III. the fate of a cohort of newborn organisms throughout their lives a. b. c. d. e. I only II only III o ly n I and III only II and III only

ID:A

Use the survivorship curves in the figure below to answer the following questions.
Q )

C \J

U
( /)

t::J')

(/)

"-

> >
"~
(/)

'+-

"Q)
.Q

E Relative age

~ z

117. Which curve best describes survivorship in oysters? a. A b. B c. C

d. D

e.

19

Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A
118. Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 119. Which curve best d,escribes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 120. Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 121. Which curve best describes survivorship in squirrels? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 122. Which curve best describes survivorship that is independent of age? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 123. A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Estimate the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. a. 120 individuals added b. 40 individuals added c. 20 individuals added d. 400 individuals added e. 20 individuals lost 124. A small population of white- footed mice has the same intrinsic rate of increase (r) as a large population. If everything else is equal, a. the large population will add more individuals per unit time. b. the small population will add more individuals per unit time. c. the two populations will add equal numbers of individuals per unit time. d. the J-shaped growth curves will look identical. e. the growth trajectories of the two populations will proceed in opposite directions.

20

Name:

ID: A
Imagine that you are managing a large ranch. You know from historical accounts that wild sheep used to live there, but they have been exterminated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriate founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will a. be a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation. b. look like an "S," increasing with each generation. c. look like an upside-down "U." d. look like a "J," increasing with each generation. e. look like none of the above.
d70. -N . ) f hI' h t I" oglStlc equatIOn. lV/I td= ny, K,7O.J (K a measure 0 t e popu atIOn s mtrmslc rate 0 mcrease. tIS In e ' r IS
Tl

125.

I '

. .

f'

I.

126.

127.

determined by which of the following? a. birth rate b. death rate c. density d. A and B only e. A, B, and C Carrying capacity (K) a. is calculated as the product of annual per capita birth rate (r). b. remains constant in the presence of density-dependent population regulation. c. differs among species, but does not vary within a given species. d. is often determined by energy limitation. e. is always eventually reached in any population. Use the following choices to answer the question below. Each choice may be used once, more than once,or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. rN K rN rN (K + N (K ) rN K (N rN K -- ) K A B C D
E

128. Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =

a. b. c. d.
e.

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Name: ________________________________________________________________________________________ID: A

129. Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt =

a. b. c. A B C D

d.

e. E 130. As N approaches K, for a certain population, which ofthe following is predicted by the logistic equation? a. The growth rate will not change. b. The growth rate will approach zero. c. The population will show an Allee effect. d. The population will increase exponentially. e. The carrying capacity of the environment will increase. 131. Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another-as moose populations increase, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population,dN/dt = rN, (K ---;. N) , which of the factors accounts for the effect on the moose population?
a. r

b. c.

N rN
K

d.

e. dt 132. Which of the following might be expected in the logistic model of population growth? a. As N approaches K, b increases. b. As N approaches K, r increases. c. As N approaches K, d increases. d. Both A and B are true. e. Both Band C are true. 133. In models of sigmoidal (logistic) population growth, a. population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K. b. new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at intermediate population Sizes. c. density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth. d. All of the above are true. e. Only A and C are true. 134. Which of the following statements about the logistic model of population growth is incorrect? a. It fits an S-shaped curve. b. It incorporates the concept of carrying capacity. c. It describes population density shifts over time. d. It accurately predicts the growth of most populations. e. It predicts an eventual state in which birth rate equals death rate. 135. Which of the following is true? a. K-selection can be density-independent. b. r-selection occurs in crowded environments. c. Different populations of the same species will be consistently r- or K-selected. d. r- and K-selection are two extremes of a range of life history strategies. e. r-se1ection tends to maximize population size, not the rate of increase in population size.

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Name:

ID:A

136. The life history traits favored by selection are most likely to vary with a. fluctuations in K. b. the shape of the J curve.
c. the maximum size of a population. d. population density. e. the terms used in the logistic equation. A species that is re!atively r-selected might have all of the following characteristics except a. a disturbed habitat. b. small offspring. c. parental care of offspring. d. numerous offspring. e. little homeostatic capability. In which of the following habitats would you expect to find the largest number ofK-selected individuals? a. an abandoned field in Ohio b. the sand dunes south of Lake Michigan c. the rain forests of Brazil d. south Florida after a hurricane e. a newly emergent volcanic island Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations? a. offspring with good chances of survival b. many offspring per reproductive episode c. small offspring d. a high intrinsic rate of increase e. early parental reproduction Your friend comes to you with a problem. It seems his shrimp boats aren't catching nearly as much shrimp as they used to. He can't understand it because originally he caught all the shrimp he could handle. Each year he added a new boat, and for a long time each boat caught tons of shrimp. As he added more boats, there came a time when each boat caught a little less shrimp, and now, each boat is catching a lot less shrimp. Which of the following topics might help your friend understand the source of his problem? a. density-dependent population regulation b. logistic growth and intrinsic characteristics of population growth c. density-independent population regulation d. A and B only e. A, B, and C Unlimited population growth is often prevented when death rates increase as population density increases. This is an example of a. K-selection. b. r-selection. c. positive feedback. d. negative feedback. e. the Allee effect. Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations? a. the accumulation of toxic waste b. intraspecific competition for nutrients c. predation d. all of the above e. none of the above

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

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Name:

ID: A

143. You are studying a population of finches on one island in an archipelago. You find that your population is much larger than you would predict from your careful recording of hatching, fledgling, and death rates. The likely explanation for this observation is a. you are dealing with a metapopulation. b. your island is the source of emigration. c. your island is the target of immigration. d. A and Conly e. A, B, and C .' 144. Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? a. social pressure for birth control b. earthquakes c. plagues d. famines e. pollution 145. Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range? a. 50 to 60 years b. 40 to 50 years c. 30 to 40 years d. 20 to 30 years e. 10 to 20 years

The following questions refer to the figure below, which depicts the age structure of three populations.

II

III

146. Which population is in the process of decreasing? a I . b. II c III . d. I and II e. II and III 147. Which population appears to be stable? a I . b. II c. III d. I and II e. II and III

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Name:

ID:A

148. Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is unemployment likely to be most severe in the future? a I . b. II c III . d. No differences in the magnitude of future unemployment would be expected among these populations. e. It is not possib1e to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams. 149. Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population is likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)?
a . I

II III d. I and II e. II and III 150. All of the following have contributed to the growth of the human population except a. environmental degradation. b. improved nutrition. c. vaccmes. d. pesticides. e. improved sanitation.

b. c.

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